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Hematological System & Blood Composition

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which primary function of blood directly maintains stable pH and temperature in body tissues?

a)

Transport of nutrients and gases

b)

Regulation of homeostasis

c)

Protection against pathogens

d)

Formation of blood clots

2.

Which component of blood is the liquid matrix carrying proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, and hormones?

a)

Buffy coat

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Serum

d)

Plasma

3.

Which set best describes the protection functions of blood?

a)

Antibody-mediated defense

b)

Thermal heat distribution

c)

Complement cascade activity

d)

Platelet clot formation

4.

Which statement best distinguishes plasma from serum?

a)

Serum is whole blood with cells

b)

Plasma includes clotting proteins

c)

Serum contains fibrinogen

d)

Plasma lacks clotting factors

5.

Which process increases hematocrit by raising erythrocyte numbers?

a)

Erythropoiesis

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Thrombopoiesis

d)

Leukopoiesis

6.

Which leukocyte category is primarily involved in innate immune defense by phagocytosis?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Platelets

7.

A patient with anemia is evaluated. Which pathophysiological basis categories cover the main mechanisms?

a)

Blood loss

b)

Decreased RBC production

c)

Increased RBC destruction

d)

Reduced plasma volume

8.

Which nutritional factors increase risk for anemia due to impaired erythropoiesis?

a)

Low dietary iron intake

b)

Folate or B12 deficiency

c)

Excess protein consumption

d)

Strict vegan diet limiting B12

9.

Which physiologic states increase iron requirements and may precipitate anemia?

a)

Pregnancy and lactation

b)

Infancy and adolescence

c)

Chronic infections

d)

Menopause and aging

10.

Which blood component is most responsible for maintaining oncotic pressure and fluid balance across capillary walls?

a)

Sodium in extracellular fluid

b)

Platelet membrane glycoproteins

c)

Hemoglobin in RBCs

d)

Albumin in plasma

11.

Which characteristic best describes erythrocytes in peripheral blood?

a)

Large granulocyte cells

b)

Multilobed nucleus cells

c)

Anucleate biconcave cells

d)

Nucleated spherical cells

12.

Platelets primarily contribute to which phase of hemostasis?

a)

Primary hemostatic plug

b)

Erythropoietin synthesis

c)

Fibrinolysis termination

d)

Adaptive immune memory

13.

Which sites are primary locations of hematopoiesis in healthy adults?

a)

Long bone diaphyseal cortex

b)

Red bone marrow in axial skeleton

c)

Proximal humerus and femur marrow

d)

Liver and yolk sac persistently

e)

Spleen and thymus routinely

14.

Which statement about erythrocytes is accurate for function and lifespan?

a)

Secrete antibodies for months

b)

Form clots within minutes

c)

Defend against viruses for days

d)

Carry oxygen for about 120 days

15.

Which leukocyte subtype primarily mediates adaptive immune responses via antibody production?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

B lymphocytes

16.

Which event initiates platelet activation at a vascular injury site?

a)

Releasing erythropoietin from kidneys

b)

Migrating to lymph nodes for maturation

c)

Phagocytosing bacteria in circulation

d)

Binding exposed collagen via GP receptors

17.

Which stem cell property allows hematopoietic stem cells to maintain lifelong blood production?

a)

Dependence on thymic hormones

b)

Terminal differentiation only

c)

Self-renewal and multipotency

d)

Exclusive lymphoid commitment

18.

Negative regulation of erythropoiesis is best described by which mechanism?

a)

Low iron increases transferrin, raising EPO

b)

High oxygen destabilizes HIF, lowering EPO

c)

IL-6 reduces EPO receptor expression directly

d)

CXCL12 traps erythrocytes within sinusoids

19.

Hepcidin influences hematopoiesis primarily by modulating which physiological parameter?

a)

Oxygen diffusion across marrow sinusoids

b)

EPO binding affinity to CFU-E cells

c)

Iron egress from macrophages and enterocytes

d)

Plasma folate uptake by erythroblasts

20.

Which combination of factors typically suppresses hepcidin to increase iron efflux and raise plasma iron?

a)

Chronic inflammation with cytokines

b)

High hepatic iron stores with BMP/SMAD

c)

Hemolysis increasing circulating heme

d)

Expanded erythropoiesis via erythroferrone

e)

Hypoxia signaling through HIF pathways

21.

Which statements align with the depicted feedback between iron status and hepcidin?

a)

High iron stores stimulate hepcidin via BMP/SMAD

b)

Low iron stores suppress hepcidin production

c)

Inflammation lowers hepcidin to mobilize iron

d)

Hepcidin decreases iron efflux through ferroportin

e)

Hepcidin increases iron absorption via DMT1

22.

Which statement best defines anemia in clinical practice?

a)

Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

b)

Hyperviscosity due to increased proteins

c)

Decreased plasma volume with normal cells

d)

Elevated leukocyte count causing hypoxia

23.

Which laboratory parameter primarily reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity related to anemia?

a)

Platelet aggregation rate

b)

Creatinine clearance value

c)

Serum cholesterol level

d)

Hemoglobin concentration in blood

24.

Which set lists core indices used to diagnose anemia?

a)

Hemoglobin concentration measurement

b)

Red blood cell count determination

c)

Hematocrit percentage assessment

d)

Serum potassium concentration

25.

Which scenario meets WHO diagnostic criteria for anemia in adults?

a)

Hemoglobin below established sex-specific thresholds

b)

Normal hematocrit with high plasma volume

c)

Elevated RBC count with microcytosis

d)

Increased hemoglobin due to dehydration

26.

Which mechanism in chronic inflammation contributes to anemia?

a)

Autoantibodies against albumin

b)

Enhanced folate absorption in gut

c)

Reduced erythropoietin receptor number

d)

Increased hepcidin trapping iron

27.

Which defect underlies impaired DNA synthesis in megaloblastic anemia?

a)

Globin chain duplication in thalassemia

b)

Albumin gene mutation reducing transport

c)

Thymidine synthesis impairment with folate deficiency

d)

Heme synthesis excess with iron overload

28.

Which population group globally experiences the highest prevalence of anemia due to increased iron demands and hemodilution?

a)

Pregnant women in third trimester

b)

Infants aged 6–24 months

c)

Older adults above 70 years

d)

Adolescent boys during puberty

29.

In children aged 6–59 months, which nutritional deficiency most commonly drives anemia in low- and middle-income settings?

a)

Iron deficiency from low bioavailability

b)

Folate deficiency from low intake

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency from vegan diets

d)

Protein deficiency causing marrow failure

30.

Among women of reproductive age, which factor most increases anemia risk beyond diet alone?

a)

Lower exposure to sunlight

b)

Higher calcium supplementation

c)

Menstrual blood loss variability

d)

Reduced physical activity levels

31.

Which food pattern most increases risk of vitamin B12 deficiency–related anemia?

a)

Strict vegan diet without supplementation

b)

Mediterranean diet with fish intake

c)

Mixed diet including red meat weekly

d)

Vegetarian diet with dairy regularly

32.

Folate deficiency anemia is most likely in which situation?

a)

Low intake of leafy greens and legumes

b)

High intake of fortified cereals daily

c)

Regular prenatal folic acid use

d)

Frequent liver consumption weekly

33.

Iron deficiency anemia typically shows which laboratory feature before hemoglobin falls severely?

a)

Normal red cell distribution width

b)

Low transferrin saturation percentage

c)

Elevated mean corpuscular volume

d)

High serum ferritin levels

34.

Which overlapping risk factors commonly coexist to worsen anemia during pregnancy?

a)

Physiologic plasma volume expansion

b)

Folate needs for fetal growth

c)

Universal access to iron supplements

d)

Increased iron requirements

e)

Excess hemolysis from G6PD deficiency

35.

Which public health strategy best targets nutritional anemia in populations with high prevalence?

a)

Calcium fortification of staples

b)

Weekly iron‑folic acid supplementation

c)

Salt iodization alone for thyroid health

d)

Universal high‑dose vitamin C therapy

36.

Which life stage most increases iron requirements due to expanded blood volume and fetal growth?

a)

Pregnancy and lactation

b)

Post-menopausal period

c)

Infancy and rapid growth

d)

Late adulthood changes

37.

Select all conditions that commonly raise physiologic iron requirements.

a)

Infancy and adolescence

b)

Older age with low activity

c)

Chronic infections with inflammation

d)

Pregnancy and lactation

38.

A patient with celiac disease develops anemia. What is the primary mechanism?

a)

Iron malabsorption in proximal small bowel

b)

Platelet dysfunction causing bleeding

c)

Excess iron excretion in urine

d)

Reduced iron need due to low activity

39.

Which chronic disease class can cause anemia through inflammatory hepcidin upregulation?

a)

Chronic infections and inflammation

b)

Chronic heart failure

c)

Chronic dermatologic conditions

d)

Chronic kidney disease

40.

Select all causes of chronic blood loss that predispose to iron deficiency.

a)

Peptic ulcer disease bleeding

b)

Colorectal carcinoma bleeding

c)

Hookworm intestinal infestation

d)

Hemolysis without bleeding

41.

A woman with heavy menstrual bleeding presents with microcytic anemia. Which lab pattern fits iron deficiency?

a)

Normal ferritin, high serum iron

b)

High ferritin, low TIBC

c)

Low ferritin, high TIBC

d)

High serum iron, high transferrin

42.

Select all malabsorption conditions that can lead to iron deficiency.

a)

Post-gastrectomy gastric bypass

b)

Celiac sprue with villous atrophy

c)

Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency

d)

Ileal Crohn disease after resection

43.

A child with hookworm infection has pallor and fatigue. The anemia mechanism is best described as:

a)

Intravascular hemolysis by parasites

b)

Iron malabsorption in colon

c)

Suppressed erythropoiesis by toxins

d)

Chronic intestinal blood loss

44.

Which pair correctly matches anemia type with typical MCV category?

a)

Iron deficiency—macrocytic

b)

Thalassemia—microcytic

c)

B12 deficiency—normocytic

d)

Anemia of CKD—macrocytic

45.

IDA commonly precedes which red cell phenotype on CBC indices?

a)

Hypochromic microcytic pattern

b)

Hyperchromic macrocytic pattern

c)

Hyperchromic normocytic pattern

d)

Normochromic macrocytic pattern

46.

Which symptom is most characteristic of reduced oxygen delivery in anemia during exertion?

a)

Chest pain at rest without exertion

b)

Dyspnea on exertion with mild activity

c)

Polyuria after heavy fluid intake

d)

Pruritus localized to the extremities

47.

Which combination includes common general symptoms of anemia?

a)

Poor concentration and headache

b)

Cold intolerance and dizziness

c)

Fever and night sweats

d)

Fatigue and weakness

48.

A student asks why anemia often causes dizziness. What is the most accurate explanation?

a)

Reduced cerebral oxygen delivery causes lightheadedness

b)

Excess plasma volume increases intracranial pressure

c)

Peripheral neuropathy limits proprioceptive input

d)

Inner ear infection disrupts vestibular function

49.

Which symptom profile most suggests anemia rather than dehydration?

a)

Polyuria with nocturia and muscle cramps

b)

Fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, poor concentration

c)

Orthostatic hypotension with palpitations

d)

Dry mucosa and intense thirst

50.

Which sign or symptom set best reflects a generalized presentation of anemia?

a)

Hemoptysis with pleuritic chest pain

b)

Headache with poor concentration

c)

Cold intolerance in cool environments

d)

Fatigue after minimal effort

51.

During clinic, a patient with mild anemia denies weakness but notes harder breathing when jogging. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

Respiratory symptoms only appear with severe anemia

b)

Weakness always precedes any breathing difficulty

c)

Exertional dyspnea indicates heart failure only

d)

Dyspnea on exertion can occur without baseline weakness

52.

A graduate student evaluates cognitive effects of anemia. Which outcome is most consistent with the condition?

a)

Improved attention span in long tasks

b)

Poor concentration with frequent headaches

c)

Enhanced memory consolidation during study

d)

No cognitive change despite severe fatigue

53.

Which symptom is least likely to be explained by general anemia mechanisms?

a)

Fatigue due to reduced tissue oxygenation

b)

Cold intolerance from decreased thermogenesis

c)

Recurrent epistaxis from platelet dysfunction

d)

Palpitations from compensatory tachycardia

54.

Which symptom most strongly suggests iron deficiency anemia rather than other types?

a)

Glossitis and posterior column neuropathy

b)

Jaundice with dark urine after hemolysis

c)

Ataxia with loss of vibration sensation

d)

Pica with cravings for nonfood substances

55.

A patient with spoon-shaped nails and fatigue likely has which anemia?

a)

Folate deficiency anemia

b)

Anemia of chronic disease

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

56.

Which neurological finding is characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency but NOT folate deficiency?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy with paresthesias

b)

Megaloblastic changes in bone marrow

c)

Mouth ulcers with angular cheilitis

d)

Elevated homocysteine without MMA increase

57.

Which clinical feature best differentiates folate deficiency anemia from vitamin B12 deficiency?

a)

Presence of neurological deficits

b)

Megaloblastic red cell morphology

c)

Glossitis and mucosal changes

d)

Macrocytosis with hypersegmented neutrophils

58.

Which combination of symptoms most aligns with iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Pica and koilonychia

b)

Glossitis and neuropathy

c)

Ice craving and brittle hair

d)

Restless legs and fatigue

59.

Which symptom pair suggests folate deficiency anemia over iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Glossitis and megaloblastic changes

b)

Neuropathy and ataxia

c)

Koilonychia and pagophagia

d)

Microcytosis and pallor

60.

In anemia of chronic disease, which mechanism contributes to symptoms?

a)

Autoimmune destruction of erythrocytes

b)

Iron loss through gastrointestinal bleeding

c)

Inflammatory cytokines suppress erythropoiesis

d)

Vitamin deficiency impairs DNA synthesis

61.

Which presentation is least consistent with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

a)

Ataxic gait with positive Romberg

b)

Posterior column demyelination signs

c)

Loss of proprioception and vibration sense

d)

Angular cheilitis without neurological deficits

62.

A patient has fatigue, chronic inflammatory arthritis, and normal or high ferritin. The likely anemia type is:

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Anemia of chronic disease

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

d)

Folate deficiency anemia

63.

Which symptoms are most typical of folate deficiency anemia?

a)

Macrocytosis and glossitis

b)

Peripheral neuropathy with ataxia

c)

Mucosal ulcerations and fatigue

d)

Hypersegmented neutrophils on smear

64.

Which mechanism most directly reduces hemoglobin formation within developing erythroblasts?

a)

Excess folate in the diet

b)

Autoantibody-mediated hemolysis

c)

Low iron availability in marrow

d)

Elevated erythropoietin signaling

65.

Iron deficiency anemia typically presents with microcytic, hypochromic red cells due to which pathophysiologic process?

a)

Impaired hemoglobin synthesis

b)

Overproduction of globin chains

c)

Accelerated DNA replication

d)

Marrow fibrosis from toxins

66.

Which pair best matches impaired DNA synthesis with the expected red cell morphology?

a)

Target cells with microcytosis

b)

Schistocytes with anisocytosis

c)

Megaloblastic change with macrocytosis

d)

Spherocytes with normocytosis

67.

Which deficiencies most commonly cause megaloblastic anemia through impaired thymidylate synthesis?

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Folate deficiency

c)

Copper deficiency

d)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

68.

Bone marrow failure leading to decreased RBC production is characteristically associated with which finding?

a)

Reticulocytosis with splenomegaly

b)

Isolated microcytosis without cytopenias

c)

Pancytopenia with hypocellular marrow

d)

Hypercellular marrow with blasts

69.

Reduced erythropoietin production is a hallmark of which clinical setting?

a)

Autoimmune thyroiditis

b)

Hereditary spherocytosis

c)

Acute hemolytic crisis

d)

Chronic kidney disease

70.

Which cluster best represents general anemia symptoms due to reduced oxygen delivery?

a)

Fatigue, pallor, dyspnea, palpitations

b)

Pruritus, urticaria, flushing, wheeze

c)

Arthralgia, photosensitivity, rash

d)

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain

71.

First-line therapy to replenish iron stores in stable iron deficiency is typically which approach?

a)

High-dose erythropoietin

b)

Chelation with deferoxamine

c)

Immediate blood transfusion

d)

Oral iron supplementation

72.

Which treatment step is essential to prevent recurrence after correcting iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Identify and treat the cause

b)

Avoid all dietary calcium

c)

Use parenteral iron routinely

d)

Restrict physical activity

73.

Parenteral iron is preferred over oral iron in which circumstance?

a)

Normal ferritin with low transferrin

b)

Mild anemia responsive to diet alone

c)

Intolerance to oral iron or severe deficiency

d)

Asymptomatic microcytosis in athletes

74.

Which oral iron salt provides approximately 20% elemental iron per tablet?

a)

Ferrous gluconate

b)

Ferrous sulfate standard

c)

Ferrous sulfate dried

d)

Ferrous fumarate

75.

Which option correctly pairs the iron salt with the highest percent elemental iron listed?

a)

Ferrous sulfate dried – 20%

b)

Ferrous sulfate – 12%

c)

Ferrous fumarate – 33%

d)

Ferrous gluconate – 30%

76.

A patient has anemia with low MCV. Which initial laboratory pattern most strongly supports iron deficiency anemia over thalassemia trait?

a)

High ferritin, high TIBC, normal transferrin saturation

b)

Low ferritin, low TIBC, high transferrin saturation

c)

Low ferritin, high TIBC, low transferrin saturation

d)

Normal ferritin, low TIBC, high transferrin saturation

77.

Which combination of findings most consistently points toward anemia of chronic disease in the microcytic/normocytic branch?

a)

High ferritin, low TIBC, low transferrin saturation

b)

Normal ferritin, high TIBC, normal transferrin saturation

c)

Low ferritin, low TIBC, normal transferrin saturation

d)

Low ferritin, high TIBC, high transferrin saturation

78.

A patient with macrocytic anemia is evaluated. Which tests best differentiate folate deficiency from vitamin B12 deficiency in the megaloblastic branch?

a)

Intrinsic factor antibody testing

b)

Serum ferritin concentration

c)

Serum homocysteine levels

d)

Serum methylmalonic acid levels

79.

Reticulocyte count is high in which scenario within the anemia algorithm?

a)

Hemolysis or acute blood loss

b)

Iron deficiency without inflammation

c)

Aplastic anemia with pancytopenia

d)

Sideroblastic anemia due to lead

80.

Which laboratory profile most suggests thalassemia rather than iron deficiency in a microcytic anemia workup?

a)

Low ferritin, low TIBC, normal MCV

b)

High ferritin, low TIBC, normal MCV

c)

Low ferritin, high TIBC, slightly low MCV

d)

Normal ferritin, normal TIBC, markedly low MCV

81.

In suspected sideroblastic anemia, which combination is most aligned with the algorithm’s characteristics?

a)

Ring sideroblasts in marrow

b)

Basophilic stippling on smear

c)

Low ferritin with high TIBC

d)

Microcytosis with increased serum iron

82.

Which finding best supports pernicious anemia within the macrocytic megaloblastic branch?

a)

Positive intrinsic factor antibodies

b)

Elevated serum ferritin alone

c)

Low TIBC with high ferritin

d)

Normal methylmalonic acid levels

83.

In normocytic anemia, which result directs you toward underproduction rather than hemolysis in the algorithm?

a)

Elevated LDH and indirect bilirubin

b)

Low reticulocyte index

c)

Schistocytes on blood smear

d)

Positive direct antiglobulin test

84.

Which normal adult hemoglobin range best indicates adequate oxygen-carrying capacity in blood?

a)

16–20 g/dL range indicates adequacy

b)

8–10 g/dL range indicates adequacy

c)

10–12 g/dL range indicates adequacy

d)

12–16 g/dL range indicates adequacy

85.

Select the normal adult hematocrit range that aligns with typical red cell mass.

a)

25–35% reflects typical mass

b)

15–25% reflects typical mass

c)

55–65% reflects typical mass

d)

36–48% reflects typical mass

86.

Which mean corpuscular volume (MCV) range defines normocytic red blood cells?

a)

105–120 fL defines normocytic

b)

80–100 fL defines normocytic

c)

60–75 fL defines normocytic

d)

76–85 fL defines normocytic

87.

Identify the normal adult red blood cell (RBC) count range.

a)

4.2–5.9 ×10^12/L range

b)

7.0–8.5 ×10^12/L range

c)

3.0–3.8 ×10^12/L range

d)

1.5–2.5 ×10^12/L range

88.

Which reticulocyte percentage reflects a normal marrow response in a healthy adult?

a)

3–5% is normal

b)

6–8% is normal

c)

0.5–2.0% is normal

d)

0.1–0.3% is normal

89.

Which pair correctly matches microcytic and macrocytic patterns to MCV values?

a)

Microcytic >100 fL; Macrocytic <80 fL

b)

Microcytic 60–75 fL; Macrocytic 76–85 fL

c)

Microcytic <80 fL; Macrocytic >100 fL

d)

Microcytic 80–100 fL; Macrocytic 80–100 fL

90.

A patient has hemoglobin 9 g/dL, hematocrit 27%, MCV 72 fL, ferritin 8 ng/mL. Which findings are below normal reference ranges?

a)

Hematocrit 27% below normal

b)

Hemoglobin 9 g/dL below normal

c)

MCV 72 fL below normal

d)

Ferritin 8 ng/mL below normal

91.

In the MCV classification, which anemia is characterized by red blood cells smaller than normal, reflecting decreased MCV?

a)

Hemolytic anemia with variable MCV

b)

Macrocytic anemia with high MCV

c)

Microcytic anemia with low MCV

d)

Normocytic anemia with normal MCV

92.

Select all categories that belong to the MCV-based classification of anemia.

a)

Macrocytic anemia

b)

Microcytic anemia

c)

Normocytic anemia

d)

Hypochromic anemia

93.

A patient’s RBCs are normal in size. Which MCV category does this most likely indicate?

a)

Microcytic anemia with decreased MCV

b)

Macrocytic anemia with increased MCV

c)

Dimorphic anemia with dual MCV

d)

Normocytic anemia with normal MCV

94.

Which statement accurately relates MCV to RBC size in anemia classification?

a)

Higher MCV indicates larger red cells

b)

Lower MCV indicates larger red cells

c)

Higher MCV indicates smaller red cells

d)

MCV does not relate to red cell size

95.

A toddler presents with pallor and fatigue. Which feature most strongly suggests iron deficiency anemia in this age group?

a)

Macrocytic red cells on smear

b)

Hypochromic microcytic red cells

c)

Elevated reticulocyte count

d)

High serum ferritin level

96.

Which iron storage form is soluble and mobilized during deficiency?

a)

Ferritin in hepatocytes and macrophages

b)

Hemoglobin within erythrocytes

c)

Transferrin in plasma compartments

d)

Hemosiderin in macrophage lysosomes

97.

Which factor most directly regulates systemic iron homeostasis?

a)

Erythropoietin produced by kidneys

b)

Vitamin C concentration in plasma

c)

Hepcidin produced by the liver

d)

Transferrin receptor density

98.

Hepcidin lowers serum iron primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Stimulating intestinal iron absorption

b)

Promoting ferroportin degradation

c)

Increasing transferrin saturation

d)

Enhancing erythropoiesis rate

99.

Which scenario most likely leads to iron deficiency anemia in children worldwide?

a)

Inherited hemochromatosis gene

b)

Excess iron intake from supplements

c)

Rapid growth with low dietary iron

d)

Chronic blood donation at clinics

100.

Multiple factors contribute to high IDA prevalence in women of reproductive age. Which are most directly involved?

a)

Menstrual blood loss

b)

Low iron dietary intake

c)

Decreased intestinal transit time

d)

Reduced erythropoietin secretion

e)

Repeated pregnancies and lactation