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Quiz on Arterial Hypertension

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In essential arterial hypertension, in contrast to secondary symptomatic arterial hypertension, the increase in blood pressure is:

a)

symptom of the disease

b)

the main link in the pathogenesis of the disease

c)

the primary and main symptom of the disease

d)

etiological factor in the development of the disease

e)

a secondary pathogenetic factor in the development of the disease

2.

A genetic defect in cell membranes in primary arterial hypertension leads to:

a)

increasing the rate of reuptake of mediators

b)

an increase in calcium content in the cytoplasm of cells

c)

an increase in the electrical potential of the cell membrane

d)

reducing the time of action of mediators on the vascular wall

e)

suppression of ATPase activity of myosin

3.

Candidate genes for the development of arterial hypertension, the expression of which is associated with vasoconstriction, include:

a)

alpha-adducin gene

b)

angiotensinogen gene

c)

natriuretic peptide gene

d)

endothelial NO synthase gene

e)

prostacyclin synthetase gene

4.

Hypernatremia contributes to the development of arterial hypertension through:

a)

increasing the formation of angiotensin-3

b)

increasing the activity of natriuretic mechanisms

c)

increasing the sensitivity of adrenergic receptors to pressor factors

d)

increasing the reuptake of norepinephrine by nerve endings

e)

activation of prostacyclin synthesis by endothelial cells

5.

One of the modifying risk factors predisposing to the development of primary arterial hypertension is:

a)

insulin resistance

b)

low birth weight

c)

family history of early cardiovascular risk factors

d)

consumption of table salt less than 3 g/day

e)

renin gene polymorphism

6.

Endothelial dysfunction in arterial hypertension is characterized by an increase in the expression and production of:

a)

endothelial NO synthase

b)

prostaglandins of group E and A

c)

plasminogen activator inhibitor type 1

d)

hyperpolarizing factor

e)

bradykinin

7.

Nitric oxide, by activating guanylate cyclase with subsequent activation of cGMP-dependent protein kinase G, contributes to:

a)

the release of potassium ions from the cell

b)

activation of calcium-dependent actin and myosin kinases

c)

the movement of calcium from the cytoplasm to the mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

d)

accumulation of calcium in vascular smooth muscle cells

e)

closure of calcium-dependent potassium ion channels

8.

The pathogenetic stage of stabilization of arterial hypertension is characterized by:

a)

development of endothelial dysfunction

b)

dominance of systemic RAAS over tissue RAAS

c)

decreased sensitivity of arterioles to pressor agents

d)

transient increase in blood pressure

e)

increase in the lumen of resistance vessels

9.

The stable stage of the pathogenesis of hypertension is characterized by:

a)

decreased role of local RAAS

b)

increase in cardiac output, decrease in peripheral vascular resistance

c)

increased activity of depressor mechanisms

d)

hyperkinetic type of circulation

e)

target organ damage

10.

A patient complained of headaches, facial swelling, and general weakness. Symptoms appeared three weeks after tonsillitis. Blood pressure was 190/100 mmHg. The urine showed significant proteinuria and microhematuria. The patient developed a form of secondary arterial hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

exogenous

b)

renovascular

c)

renoparenchymatous

d)

endocrinopathic

e)

cardiovascular

11.

A patient experienced sharp increases in blood pressure, accompanied by palpitations, muscle tremors, profuse sweating, and pale skin. Elevated catecholamine levels were observed in the urine. A CT scan revealed a tumor on the left adrenal gland. This type of hypertension is characteristic of:

a)

Conn's syndrome

b)

coarctation of the aorta

c)

pheochromocytoma

d)

Itsenko-Cushing syndrome

e)

renoprival arterial hypertension

12.

Exogenous form of secondary arterial hypertension can occur when taking:

a)

glucocorticosteroids drugs

b)

antihypertensive drugs

c)

diuretics

d)

beta-blockers

13.

Which of the following is a first-line therapy for idiopathic bilateral adrenal hyperplasia with symptoms such as severe hypokalemia and elevated 17-hydroxycorticosteroid levels?

a)

Thiazide diuretics

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Beta-1-adrenergic receptor blockers

d)

Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists

e)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

14.

The hypotensive effect of beta-blockers is primarily due to their ability to:

a)

Enhance sodium reabsorption

b)

Increase plasma renin concentrations

c)

Have a negative chronotropic and inotropic effect

d)

Increase blood flow to the right side of the heart

e)

Reduce the synthesis of nitric oxide

15.

Under physiological conditions, coronary blood flow is regulated primarily by:

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Metabolic demands of the myocardium

d)

Activity of vascular adrenergic receptors

e)

Activity of kinin receptors

16.

The pathogenetic basis of ischemic heart disease is:

a)

Heart failure

b)

Coronary insufficiency

c)

Activation of the sympathoadrenal system

d)

Increased levels of catecholamines in the myocardium

e)

Increase in the volumetric velocity of coronary blood flow

17.

In coronary insufficiency, increased calcium content in cardiomyocytes is accompanied by:

a)

Inhibition of phospholipase activity

b)

Decreased activity of lysosomal hydrolases

c)

Increased coupling of aerobic oxidation and phosporylation

d)

activation of lipid peroxidation

e)

development of metabolic alkalosis

18.

Coronary factors in the development of absolute coronary insufficiency include:

a)

Prolonged tachycardia

b)

Coronary artery spasm

c)

A sharp increase in blood pressure

d)

Activation of the sympathoadrenal system

19.

The cause of absolute coronary insufficiency, which occurs when the blood supply to intact coronary vessels decreases, may be:

a)

Prolonged tachycardia

b)

Pronounced hemoconcentration

c)

Excessive physical activity

d)

Decrease in diastolic pressure in the aorta

e)

E. inflammatory obliteration of the coronary arteries

20.

In absolute coronary insufficiency, instability (“vulnerability”) of the atherosclerotic plaque is associated with:

a)

Thickening of its fibrous cap

b)

The development of aseptic inflammation in it

c)

A decrease in modified LDL in it

d)

A decrease in the concentration of cholesterol in it

e)

E. a decrease in the size of the lipid core

21.

Factors leading to the development of relative coronary insufficiency include:

a)

Coronary atherosclerosis

b)

Local stenosis of the coronary arteries

c)

Thickening of the coronary artery wall

d)

Prolonged tachycardia

e)

D. coronary artery thrombosis

22.

A patient with a myocardial infarction developed shortness of breath, tachycardia, and cyanosis of the visible mucous membranes. The development of hypoxia in this case is associated with:

a)

Reduction in oxygen extraction

b)

A decrease in the number of red blood cells

c)

Impaired oxyhemoglobin dissociation

d)

Insufficient blood oxygenation

e)

slowing down the volumetric velocity of blood flow

23.

Patient R., 52, was admitted to the emergency room of the hospital unconscious. According to his relatives, the patient had experienced a severe chest pain approximately five hours earlier, with no response to nitroglycerin. An ECG revealed abnormal Q waves (QS) in leads I, V1, and V2, with ST elevations above the isoline and an upward curve. The following factors are most significant in the development of this typical form of cardiac pathology:

a)

Toxic heart damage

b)

Increased myocardial oxygen demand

c)

Congenital features of the structure of the coronary arteries

d)

Coronary hemodynamic disturbances in arterial hypotension

e)

Rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis of the coronary arteries

24.

A 38-year-old patient experienced a sharp, crushing pain behind the sternum after emotional stress, radiating to the left arm and under the left shoulder blade. Blood levels of lactate dehydrogenase and creatine phosphokinase were elevated. An ECG showed changes in the ST segment and T wave. Coronary angiography revealed no changes. The most likely cause of cardiac damage in this case is:

a)

Coronary artery spasm

b)

Coronary artery stenosis

c)

Coronary artery thrombosis

d)

Coronary artery atherosclerosis

e)

Vasodilation of the coronary arteries

25.

Which feature of energy metabolism is observed under conditions of myocardial ischemia?

a)

Activation of the Krebs cycle

b)

Coupling of oxidation and phosphorylation processes

c)

Accumulation of underoxidized fatty acids in mitochondria

d)

Inhibition of the glycolytic pathway of ATP synthesis

e)

Inhibition of oxidation of higher fatty acids

26.

RAutopsy results revealed that the patient died of myocardial infarction associated with stent thrombosis. Histological examination of the myocardium revealed significant contracture changes in the cardiomyocytes. This is due to the accumulation of ions in the cardiomyocytes:

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Calcium

d)

Magnesium

e)

Chlorine

27.

Patient F., 67, has had a 10-year history of chest pain when walking, which is relieved by nitroglycerin. He smokes 10-15 cigarettes a day. Several hours ago, intense chest pain developed that was not relieved by nitroglycerin. An ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V1–V6, along with the formation of a pathological Q wave (with an amplitude greater than 1/4 of the R wave and a duration greater than 0.03 s). To determine the typical form of cardiac pathology, the following cardiac-specific marker must be measured in the blood:

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Troponin T, I

c)

Lactate dehydrogenase-1, 2

d)

Aspartate aminotransferase

e)

MB fraction of creatine phosphokinase

28.

In stable and unstable angina, myocardial infarction, and chronic heart failure of ischemic origin, which of the following is often detected?

a)

Strengthening the inotropic function of the heart

b)

Increase in cardiac output

c)

Endomyocardial fibrosis

d)

Myocardial hyperperfusion

e)

Myocardial hibernation

29.

Non-coronary myocardial necrosis in young women most often occurs with which of the following?

a)

Hemodilution

b)

Hypercatecholaminemia

c)

Low blood pressure in the aorta

d)

Coronary atherothrombosis

e)

Hyperaggregation of formed elements in the coronary arteries

30.

An increase in the diastolic pressure gradient between the left atrium and the left ventricle is characteristic of which condition?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Mitral stenosis

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Mitral insufficiency

e)

Aortic insufficiency

31.

Following acute rheumatic fever, a patient developed thickening and calcification of the valve leaflets, resulting in decreased left ventricular filling during diastole and increased pulmonary venous pressure. These signs are characteristic of which condition?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Mitral stenosis

c)

Aortic insufficiency

d)

Mitral insufficiency

e)

Tricuspid valve insufficiency

32.

The most common complication of mitral stenosis is the development of:

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Complete bundle branch block

c)

Absolute coronary insufficiency

d)

secondary arterial hypertension

e)

thrombi in the left ventricle

33.

Mitral valve prolapse, papillary muscle dysfunction, and rupture of the chordae tendineae can lead to the development of acquired heart disease, which is characterized by:

a)

difficulty emptying the left atrium

b)

stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice

c)

incomplete closure of the mitral valve leaflets

d)

reverse diastolic blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle

e)

increase in diastolic filling of the left ventricle with blood

34.

Complications of acute severe mitral regurgitation may include the development of:

a)

pulmonary edema

b)

hypotension of the pulmonary circulation

c)

stenosis of the left atrioventricular orifice

d)

concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle

e)

barrier to diastolic blood flow from the left atrium to the ventricle

35.

The patient complains of shortness of breath, increased fatigue, heart pain, irregular heart rhythms, and fainting during exertion. Left ventricular hypertrophy and aortic orifice diameter were detected. The characteristic hemodynamic abnormalities of this heart defect include:

a)

increased afterload

b)

increase in preload

c)

increase in minute blood volume

d)

decrease in the time of blood ejection from the left ventricle

e)

decrease in intraventricular systolic pressure

36.

The most common cause of aortic stenosis in younger patients is:

a)

calcification of the aortic valve

b)

diffuse connective tissue diseases

c)

congenital bicuspid aortic valve

d)

damage to the papillary muscles

e)

atherosclerosis of the aorta

37.

With narrowing of the aortic orifice, an increase in afterload is accompanied by the development of:

a)

coronary hyperperfusion

b)

myogenic dilation of the left atrium

c)

low intramyocardial tension of the left ventricle

d)

concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricular myocardium

e)

eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricular myocardium

38.

A patient with severe infective endocarditis developed rupture of the aortic valve leaflets, leading to heart pain. The mechanism of cardiac pain is as follows:

a)

Increasing the pumping function of the heart

b)

Increase in diastolic pressure

c)

Decrease in the volume of the left ventricle

d)

Decreased perfusion of the coronary arteries

e)

Decreasing pressure in the right chambers of the heart

39.

A patient presents with increased carotid artery pulsation, pupillary pulsation, and head nodding movements corresponding to each systole. The pulse is rapid, high, and systolic blood pressure is 200 mmHg, while diastolic blood pressure is 20 mmHg. These signs are characteristic of:

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Mitral stenosis

c)

Pulmonary trunk stenosis

d)

Aortic insufficiency

e)

Mitral regurgitation

40.

During which period are congenital heart defects and minor anomalies in the development of the heart formed?

a)

First month of embryogenesis

b)

The entire period of fetal development

c)

The first two months of embryogenesis

d)

Third trimester of pregnancy

e)

At the time of birth

41.

Patent ductus arteriosus with preserved connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery after birth is accompanied by the development of:

a)

Hypovolemia of the pulmonary circulation

b)

Hypovolemia of the systemic circulation

c)

Hypovolemia of the pulmonary and systemic circulation

d)

Hypervolemia of the systemic circulation

e)

Hypervolemia of the pulmonary circulation

42.

What occurs with an atrial septal defect?

a)

Right ventricular hypoplasia

b)

Shunting of blood from the pulmonary artery into the aorta

c)

Hypovolemia of the pulmonary circulation

d)

Left-to-right shunt

e)

Transposition of the great vessels

43.

The characteristic clinical symptoms of a congenital heart defect include cyanosis and dyspnea. Echocardiography reveals a large ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and aortic overhang. Pulmonary circulation hemodynamics in this heart defect are characterized by:

a)

increased pulmonary blood flow

b)

depletion of pulmonary blood flow

c)

collateral pulmonary blood flow

d)

hypertension of the pulmonary circulation

e)

hypervolemia of the pulmonary circulation

44.

The patient's ECG revealed a regular rhythm, with a P wave before each QRS complex and a heart rate of 110 min-1. The primary electrophysiological mechanism for the development of this arrhythmia is:

a)

Hyperpolarization in diastole

b)

Oscillation of transmembrane potential

c)

Acceleration of spontaneous diastolic depolarization of the sinus node

d)

Formation of heterotopic foci of automatism

e)

re-entry excitation circulation

45.

A patient with a traumatic brain injury was diagnosed with nomotopic arrhythmia with a heart rate of 40-45 bpm. Changes in cardiac automaticity may be associated with

a)

Development of trigger activity

b)

Acceleration of spontaneous diastolic depolarization of the sinus node

c)

A decrease in the magnitude of the resting membrane potential of the cells of the sinus node

d)

Transformation of 'slow response' cells into 'fast response' cells

e)

the appearance of ectopic foci of automatism

46.

Heterotopic rhythm disturbances associated with changes in impulse formation include:

a)

Extrasystole

b)

Sinus arrhythmia

c)

Sinoatrial blocks

d)

Atrioventricular dissociation

47.

The electrophysiological basis for the occurrence of arrhythmias associated with the development of trigger activity (trigger automatism) is:

a)

The appearance of ectopic pacemakers

b)

Formation of early or late afterdepolarizations

c)

Slowing of the rate of spontaneous slow diastolic depolarization

d)

Increase in abnormal 'slow' Na⁺ channels in cardiomyocytes

48.

Early afterdepolarizations may be the electrophysiological basis for trigger activity. An important condition for their occurrence is:

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Activation of Na⁺/Ca²⁺ exchange

c)

Ca2+ overload of cardiomyocytes

d)

prolongation of the repolarization phase of the action potential

e)

increase in the rate of spontaneous diastolic depolarization

49.

The consequence of a prolonged attack of paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is:

a)

decreased coronary blood flow

b)

synchronization of atrial and ventricular systole

c)

increased systolic blood pressure

d)

increase in ventricular filling time

e)

increase in impact ejection

50.

When potassium ions enter the extracellular environment and its concentration in cardiomyocytes decreases, the development of extrasystoles is associated with:

a)

prolongation of the repolarization phase

b)

prolongation of the refractory period

c)

increasing the duration of the action potential

d)

an increase in the resting potential of cardiomyocytes

e)

increased excitability of cardiomyocytes

51.

Patient Sh., 68, complains of palpitations and shortness of breath during moderate physical exertion. He has a history of myocardial infarction. Objectively: the heart rhythm is irregular, with an average heart rate of 100 beats per minute and weakened heart sounds. The ECG shows no P waves in all leads, variable RR intervals, and f waves of varying amplitude and shape. These findings indicate a cardiac arrhythmia:

a)

atrial flutter

b)

ventricular fibrillation

c)

atrial fibrillation

d)

ventricular extrasystole

e)

supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia

52.

The formation of the micro-re-entry mechanism most often leads to the emergence of:

a)

sinus arrhythmia

b)

atrial flutter

c)

bundle branch block

d)

pacemaker migration

e)

atrial fibrillation

53.

The patient's ECG shows all P waves associated with QRS complexes, a regular rhythm, and a PQ interval duration of 0.26 seconds. These signs indicate the

a)

sinus arrhythmia

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

first degree atrioventricular block

e)

tachystolic form of atrial fibrillation

54.

A patient with a myocardial infarction underwent 24-hour ECG monitoring, revealing a PQ interval of 0.36 seconds with the loss of every third QRS complex. The heart rate was 40 beats per minute. These signs indicate the patient is developing:

a)

sinus bradycardia

b)

bundle branch block

c)

complete transverse block

d)

atrioventricular block grade II, Mobitz I

e)

atrioventricular block grade II, Mobitz II

55.

In a patient with ischemic heart disease, the ECG revealed M-shaped QRS complexes (type rsR') in the right chest leads, and widened, jagged S waves in the left chest leads and in leads I, aVL. The development of this type of arrhythmia is associated with dysfunction of:

a)

automatism

b)

excitability

c)

rhythm acquisition

d)

myocardial contractility

e)

conduction of an electrical impulse

56.

The pathogenetic basis of cardiac arrhythmia associated with slowing or blocking of impulse conduction is:

a)

increased activity of Na+/K+-ATPase

b)

increase in resting membrane potential

c)

decreased voltage-gated Na+ channels in Purkinje cells

d)

the appearance of additional impulse conduction pathways

e)

decrease in slow Na+ channels

57.

The presence of additional abnormal pathways for conducting electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles contributes to the development of:

a)

sinus tachycardia

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

3rd degree atrioventricular block

d)

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

e)

paroxysmal tachycardia

58.

Myocardial heart failure occurs when:

a)

collapse

b)

aortic stenosis

c)

mitral insufficiency

d)

dilated cardiomyopathy

e)

renovascular arterial hypertension

59.

The development of the overload form of heart failure, caused by an increase in preload due to an increase in the end-diastolic volume of the ventricle of the heart, occurs when:

a)

mitral stenosis

b)

true polycythemia

c)

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d)

absolute coronary insufficiency

e)

cardiac arrhythmia

60.

Secondary (non-cardiogenic) form of heart failure can occur with:

a)

tetrade of Fallot

b)

mitral stenosis

c)

restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

acute massive blood loss

e)

acute myocarditis

61.

Heart failure with systolic dysfunction and reduced ejection fraction primarily develops with:

a)

aortic stenosis

b)

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c)

ventricular septal defect

d)

primary arterial hypertension

e)

acute myocardial infarction

62.

Characteristic hemodynamic signs of systolic heart failure include:

a)

decrease in cardiac output

b)

decrease in diastolic volume of the heart

c)

loss of elasticity and distensibility of the myocardium

d)

decrease in the final systolic volume of the heart

e)

increasing the rate of contraction and relaxation of the heart

63.

Left heart failure is most likely indicated by changes in the following hemodynamic parameters:

a)

central venous pressure

b)

systemic arterial pressure

c)

pulmonary artery capillary pressure

d)

linear blood flow velocity

e)

pulse pressure

64.

Left ventricular heart failure is characterized by:

a)

increased central venous pressure

b)

increased left ventricular ejection fraction

c)

increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

d)

decrease in left ventricular diastolic pressure

65.

The patient was admitted to the hospital in serious condition with a recurrent massive left ventricular myocardial infarction. He was agitated and unaware. His skin was pale, he had a cold, clammy sweat, and acrocyanosis. His respiratory rate was 24 beats per minute, his heart rate was 110 beats per minute, and his blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. He was also diagnosed with oliguria. These signs indicate the development of:

a)

cardiogenic shock

b)

cardiogenic pulmonary edema

c)

acute coronary syndrome

d)

acute right ventricular failure

e)

tachyostic form of atrial fibrillation

66.

A patient in the acute stage of myocardial infarction experienced an attack of severe inspiratory dyspnea accompanied by a feeling of fear, frothy sputum, and profuse fine rales in the lungs. The trigger for the development of this typical form of circulatory pathology is:

a)

vascular microthrombosis

b)

centralization of blood circulation

c)

sludge of formed elements of the blood

d)

pathological deposition of blood

e)

decrease in myocardial contractility

67.

A patient with an anterior left ventricular myocardial infarction experienced a severe asthma attack. Examination revealed diffuse cyanosis and numerous moist rales of varying caliber. Heart rate was 100 beats per minute, and blood pressure was 120/100 mmHg. The primary pathogenic factor for the development of this complication of myocardial infarction is:

a)

increased production of aldosterone

b)

positive water balance of the body

c)

disruption of the lymphatic system of the lungs

d)

increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries

e)

increased oncotic pressure of blood in the pulmonary capillaries

68.

A patient with myocardial infarction has pronounced pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, oliguria, respiratory rate of 28 beats per minute, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 100/85 mmHg. In this situation, blood pressure is maintained by compensatory mechanisms such as:

a)

stimulation of the respiratory center

b)

hypertension of the pulmonary circulation

c)

increased levels of vasodilators in the blood

d)

secondary hyperaldosteronism

e)

centralization of blood circulation

69.

The patient suffered a transmural myocardial infarction. He suddenly lost consciousness. His pulse and blood pressure are undetectable, and his breathing is agonal. The ECG, instead of ventricular QRS complexes, shows frequent (400 per minute) irregular waves of varying shape and amplitude. The treatment method for this heart rhythm disorder is:

a)

Cardiac defibrillation

b)

Use of sedatives

c)

Use of central analeptics

d)

Use of antihypertensive drugs

e)

Administration of cardiac glycosides

70.

With prolonged activation of the sympathoadrenal system, chronic heart failure progresses. What is this due to?

a)

Development of hibernation of some cardiomyocytes

b)

An increase in the density of β-adrenergic receptors in cardiomyocytes

c)

Inhibition of the activity of phospholipases and proteases of cardiomyocytes

d)

A decrease in myocardial oxygen demand

e)

Vasodilation and increased diuresis

71.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease developed tachycardia, severe peripheral edema, ascites, jugular vein distension, acrocyanosis, nausea, decreased appetite, and oliguria. This typical form of circulatory pathology is characterized by the development of:

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Hemoptysis

c)

Hepatomegaly

d)

Cardiac asthma

e)

Cardiogenic shock

72.

With myogenic dilation of the ventricles of the heart, characteristic changes in intracardiac hemodynamics are:

a)

Increase in cardiac output

b)

Increase in diastolic blood volume in the ventricular cavity

c)

Increase in the rate of systolic ejection of blood from the ventricles

d)

Decrease in blood pressure in the right atrium and the mouths of the vena cava

e)

Decrease in residual systolic volume of blood in the ventricular cavity

73.

After recovering from the flu, a patient with coronary artery disease developed signs of cardiac decompensation, including edema in the lower extremities. What is the initial link in the pathogenesis of edema development?

a)

Hyperproduction of vasopressin

b)

Increased vascular permeability

c)

Increase in hydrostatic pressure

d)

Decrease in blood albumin

e)

Renal sodium retention

74.

A patient with chronic heart failure secondary to coronary artery disease (CAD) was diagnosed with pleural effusion. A thoracentesis was performed. Characteristics of pleural effusion in congestive heart failure include:

a)

A.pH of effusion is less than 5.0

b)

B.protein content over 30 g/l

c)

C.effusion density less than 1.015

d)

D.positive testRivalta

e)

E. cytosis more than 3000 cells in 1 ml