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Federal Pharmacy Regulations Game

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which federal agency is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act in the United States?

a)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

c)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

d)

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

2.

What is the primary purpose of the Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)?

a)

To regulate prescription labeling

b)

To ensure product tracing and serialization

c)

To control medication recalls

d)

To manage hazardous waste disposal

3.

Which schedule under the Controlled Substances Act includes drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse?

a)

Schedule II

b)

Schedule I

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

4.

What information must be included on a controlled substance prescription?

a)

Patient’s insurance number

b)

Prescriber’s DEA number

c)

Pharmacy’s license number

d)

Manufacturer’s name

5.

Which federal law requires pharmacies to protect patient health information and privacy?

a)

Controlled Substances Act

b)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

c)

Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)

d)

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

6.

What is the correct procedure for storing hazardous pharmaceutical waste in a pharmacy?

a)

Store with regular trash

b)

Store in designated, labeled containers

c)

Store in the refrigerator

d)

Store on open shelves

7.

Which of the following is required when returning expired controlled substances to a reverse distributor?

a)

A written inventory of the substances

b)

Patient consent forms

c)

A prescription from a physician

d)

A copy of the pharmacy’s business license

8.

When a medication is recalled by the FDA, what is the first step a pharmacy technician should take?

a)

Notify the DEA

b)

Remove the medication from inventory

c)

Dispense the medication until further notice

d)

Destroy the medication immediately

9.

Which document must be maintained by pharmacies to track the receipt and dispensing of controlled substances?

a)

Medication administration record

b)

Controlled substance logbook

c)

Patient consent form

d)

Insurance claim form

10.

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for pseudoephedrine. What federal requirement must be met before dispensing?

a)

Verify patient’s insurance

b)

Record the sale in a logbook and check identification

c)

Obtain prescriber’s DEA number

d)

Notify the FDA

11.

A patient requests a refill for a Schedule II controlled substance. What should the pharmacy technician do?

a)

Refill the prescription as requested

b)

Inform the patient that refills are not permitted for Schedule II drugs

c)

Transfer the prescription to another pharmacy

d)

Request verbal authorization from the prescriber

12.

How should a pharmacy technician handle a medication that is subject to a REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) program?

a)

Dispense without additional documentation

b)

Follow specific dispensing and documentation requirements outlined by the REMS program

c)

Store with over-the-counter medications

d)

Destroy the medication immediately

13.

When receiving a shipment of controlled substances, what is the appropriate action for a pharmacy technician?

a)

Store the shipment in the front of the pharmacy

b)

Verify the contents against the order and record in the controlled substance logbook

c)

Dispense immediately to patients

d)

Place the shipment in regular inventory

14.

A pharmacy technician is asked to transfer a Schedule III prescription to another pharmacy. What should they do?

a)

Refuse the transfer

b)

Complete the transfer following federal regulations and document the transfer

c)

Destroy the prescription

d)

Dispense the medication without transfer

15.

How should non-hazardous pharmaceutical waste be disposed of in a pharmacy?

a)

Flush down the toilet

b)

Place in designated non-hazardous waste containers

c)

Mix with hazardous waste

d)

Store indefinitely

16.

A pharmacy technician notices a discrepancy in the controlled substance inventory. What is the best course of action?

a)

Ignore the discrepancy

b)

Report the discrepancy to the pharmacist and follow pharmacy protocol for investigation

c)

Adjust the inventory to match the records

d)

Destroy the remaining inventory

17.

A patient requests information about their prescription history. How should the pharmacy technician ensure compliance with patient privacy regulations?

a)

Provide the information to anyone who asks

b)

Verify the patient’s identity and provide information only to the patient or authorized individuals

c)

Refuse to provide any information

d)

Share the information with the patient’s employer

18.

A pharmacy technician must plan for the destruction of expired controlled substances. What is the most compliant approach?

a)

Dispose of them in regular trash

b)

Coordinate with a DEA-registered reverse distributor and document the destruction process

c)

Flush them down the drain

d)

Store them indefinitely

19.

A pharmacy technician is reviewing prescription records for accuracy. What strategic steps should they take to ensure compliance with federal record keeping requirements?

a)

Only check the most recent prescriptions

b)

Review all records for completeness, accuracy, and proper documentation, and report any discrepancies

c)

Ignore missing information

d)

Destroy records older than one year

20.

What is the minimum amount of time federal law requires pharmacies to retain records of controlled substance transactions?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

5 years

d)

10 years

21.

When handling a prescription for a Schedule IV controlled substance, which federal regulation must a pharmacy technician follow?

a)

Prescription must be handwritten only

b)

Prescription must be reported to the FDA

c)

Refills are allowed up to five times within six months from the date of issue

d)

Refills are not permitted under any circumstances

22.

Which of the following actions is required by federal law when a pharmacy technician discovers a theft or significant loss of controlled substances?

a)

Destroy the remaining inventory

b)

Contact the patient whose medication was lost

c)

Report the incident to the DEA immediately and complete DEA Form 106

d)

Notify the FDA within 24 hours

23.

Under federal law, which of the following is true regarding the transfer of Schedule III, IV, and V prescriptions between pharmacies?

a)

Transfers are not permitted under any circumstances

b)

Transfers are allowed only once, unless the pharmacies share a real-time online database

c)

Transfers require approval from the FDA

d)

Transfers can be made unlimited times without documentation

24.

Which of the following is a federal requirement for the storage of Schedule II controlled substances in a pharmacy?

a)

Store in the patient counseling area

b)

Store with over-the-counter medications

c)

Store in an unlocked cabinet accessible to all staff

d)

Store in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet

25.

What is the federal limit on the amount of pseudoephedrine that can be sold to a single customer in one day?

a)

9 grams

b)

1 gram

c)

7.5 grams

d)

3.6 grams

26.

Under federal law, which form must be used by a pharmacy technician to order Schedule II controlled substances?

a)

DEA Form 224

b)

DEA Form 222

c)

DEA Form 106

d)

DEA Form 41

27.

Under federal law, which of the following is true regarding the partial filling of Schedule II prescriptions?

a)

Partial fills are not permitted under any circumstances

b)

Partial fills are allowed, but the remainder must be dispensed within 72 hours

c)

Partial fills can be completed at any time

d)

Partial fills require approval from the FDA

28.

Which of the following is a federal requirement when dispensing controlled substances to patients in a pharmacy?

a)

Ignore prescription expiration dates

b)

Dispense only to patients with private insurance

c)

Ensure proper documentation and verify patient identity as required

d)

Dispense without verifying patient identity

29.

What is the appropriate federal procedure for handling a prescription that appears to be altered or forged?

a)

Dispense the medication as written

b)

Report the incident to the pharmacist and do not dispense the medication

c)

Destroy the prescription immediately

d)

Contact the patient for clarification

30.

What is the primary purpose of OBRA '90 as it relates to pharmacy technicians?

a)

To regulate controlled substances

b)

To require patient counseling and drug utilization review

c)

To manage hazardous waste disposal

d)

To enforce prescription expiration dates

31.

Which of the following best describes the primary focus of USP 797?

a)

Regulation of hazardous drug compounding

b)

Standards for non-sterile compounding

c)

Standards for sterile compounding to ensure patient safety

d)

Guidelines for prescription labeling

32.

Which of the following best describes the primary focus of USP 795?

a)

Standards for sterile compounding

b)

Guidelines for non-sterile compounding of medications

c)

Requirements for prescription labeling

d)

Regulations for hazardous drug handling

33.

What is the primary purpose of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)?

a)

To mandate electronic prescriptions

b)

To control the sale of controlled substances

c)

To require child-resistant packaging for certain household substances and medications

d)

To regulate prescription drug advertising

34.

Which of the following medications is typically exempt from the child-resistant packaging requirements of the PPPA?

a)

Acetaminophen tablets

b)

Amoxicillin capsules

c)

Oral contraceptives in dispenser packs

d)

Ibuprofen liquid

35.

What is the primary purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) in a pharmacy setting?

a)

To provide dosing instructions for medications

b)

To outline the chemical hazards and safe handling procedures for substances

c)

To track prescription refills

d)

To record patient allergies

36.

Which federal agency publishes guidelines and recommendations for workplace safety, including handling hazardous drugs in pharmacies?

a)

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)

b)

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

37.

How should a pharmacy technician use an SDS when preparing to handle a hazardous chemical?

a)

File the SDS with patient prescription records

b)

Refer to the SDS for information on proper protective equipment and first aid measures

c)

Use the SDS to determine medication expiration dates

d)

Ignore the SDS and follow only verbal instructions

38.

What is a key feature of an electronic Controlled Substance Ordering System (CSOS) compared to traditional paper ordering methods?

a)

It allows for verbal orders of controlled substances

b)

It enables secure, paperless transmission of orders for Schedule II drugs

c)

It eliminates the need for DEA registration

d)

It is only used for over-the-counter medications

39.

Which warning statement is federally required to appear on the label of all dispensed prescription medications?

a)

Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed

b)

Store in a cool, dry place

c)

For veterinary use only

d)

May cause drowsiness

40.

What is the purpose of the federal warning required on prescription drug labels?

a)

To list inactive ingredients

b)

To inform patients about possible side effects

c)

To prevent unauthorized transfer of prescription medications

d)

To provide dosing instructions

41.

What is the primary role of a reverse distributor in pharmacy practice?

a)

To dispense medications to patients

b)

To manufacture new drugs

c)

To deliver prescriptions to patients' homes

d)

To collect and manage expired or unwanted pharmaceuticals for proper disposal

42.

Which document must a pharmacy technician complete when transferring expired controlled substances to a reverse distributor?

a)

DEA Form 106

b)

DEA Form 224

c)

DEA Form 41

d)

DEA Form 222

43.

According to the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a patient can purchase in a 30-day period?

a)

12 grams

b)

9 grams

c)

7.5 grams

d)

3.6 grams

44.

Which recall level is issued when a drug product is likely to cause serious adverse health consequences or death?

a)

Class III

b)

Class II

c)

Class IV

d)

Class I

45.

What is the primary reason for a Class II drug recall?

a)

Product is associated with life-threatening risks

b)

Product is counterfeit

c)

Product is unlikely to cause any adverse health effects

d)

Product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health effects

46.

Which of the following best describes a Class III drug recall?

a)

Use of the product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences

b)

Use of the product may cause temporary or reversible health problems

c)

Use of the product may result in serious health consequences or death

d)

Use of the product is required by law

47.

What was the primary purpose of the Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment of 1962?

a)

To regulate controlled substances

b)

To establish prescription expiration dates

c)

To require proof of drug efficacy and safety before approval

d)

To create the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

48.

How did the Durham-Humphrey Act impact the labeling requirements for prescription medications handled by pharmacy technicians?

a)

It required all medications to have dosage instructions only

b)

It mandated that prescription drugs carry the statement: 'Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription'

c)

It allowed pharmacy technicians to create their own warning labels

d)

It eliminated the need for any warning labels on prescription drugs

49.

Which of the following best describes an adulterated drug under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?

a)

A drug that contains any filthy, putrid, or decomposed substance

b)

A drug that is missing the manufacturer’s address

c)

A drug that is dispensed without a prescription

d)

A drug that is labeled with false or misleading information

50.

Which scenario is an example of misbranding?

a)

A drug with a label that omits required warnings

b)

A drug that is contaminated with bacteria

c)

A drug that is stored at the wrong temperature

d)

A drug that contains an incorrect active ingredient

51.

What is the primary purpose of OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard in a pharmacy setting?

a)

To ensure employees are informed about chemical hazards and proper handling procedures

b)

To mandate electronic prescriptions

c)

To regulate prescription drug advertising

d)

To require child-resistant packaging for medications

52.

Which part of the National Drug Code (NDC) identifies the manufacturer or labeler of a medication?

a)

The first segment

b)

The second segment

c)

The third segment

d)

The last two digits

53.

What does the second segment of the NDC number represent?

a)

Expiration date

b)

Manufacturer

c)

Package size and type

d)

Drug product and strength

54.

How many segments are there in a standard NDC number, and what is their typical order?

a)

Three segments: labeler, product, package

b)

Four segments: product, labeler, package, expiration

c)

One segment: universal code

d)

Two segments: manufacturer and product

55.

What is the primary purpose of DEA Form 224?

a)

To report theft or loss of controlled substances

b)

To apply for a new registration to dispense controlled substances

c)

To order Schedule II controlled substances

d)

To destroy expired controlled substances

56.

What is the primary purpose of DEA Form 224a?

a)

To report theft or loss of controlled substances

b)

To renew a pharmacy's or practitioner's DEA registration

c)

To order Schedule II controlled substances

d)

To destroy expired controlled substances

57.

When conducting a federal inventory review of CIIs, which of the following is required for proper documentation?

a)

Exact count of each CII on hand

b)

Estimated count of CIIs

c)

Only the total value of CIIs

d)

No documentation is required

58.

Under federal pharmacy law, what is the primary purpose of recording the lot number when dispensing medications?

a)

To facilitate product recalls and ensure traceability

b)

To determine the cost of the medication

c)

To identify the manufacturer of the drug

d)

To track medication expiration dates

59.

Which federal act requires pharmacies to maintain records of lot numbers for certain prescription drugs to ensure supply chain security?

a)

Controlled Substances Act

b)

Poison Prevention Packaging Act

c)

Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)

d)

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

60.

When a medication is recalled, which piece of information is essential for a pharmacy technician to identify affected products in inventory?

a)

Lot number and expiration date

b)

Patient's insurance information

c)

Prescriber's DEA number

d)

Pharmacy license number