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Geology final

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following concepts is associated with the birth of modern geology?

a)

Catastrophism

b)

Uniformitarianism

c)

Fossil correlation

d)

Radioactive decay

2.

What does relative dating in geology involve?

a)

Assigning specific ages to events

b)

Placing dates in their proper sequence or order

c)

Measuring radioactive decay

d)

Determining the exact time of fossil formation

3.

Why is an appreciation for the magnitude of geologic time important?

a)

It helps understand rapid geological processes

b)

It explains why most geological processes are gradual

c)

It determines the exact age of fossils

d)

It focuses on short-term geological changes

4.

Which principle of geologic time states that layers of sediment are originally deposited horizontally?

a)

Superposition

b)

Original horizontality

c)

Cross-cutting relations

d)

Fossil succession

5.

What marks the beginning of the Paleozoic Era and the Cambrian Period?

a)

The appearance of dinosaurs

b)

The extinction of trilobites

c)

The appearance of trilobites with hard shells

d)

The formation of radioactive elements

6.

What is the half-life of K^40 to Ar^40 in radioactive decay?

a)

1.3 million years

b)

1.3 billion years

c)

2.6 billion years

d)

4.5 billion years

7.

What are the two main components of the scientific method?

a)

Gathering facts through observation and formulating hypotheses and theories

b)

Conducting experiments and publishing results

c)

Memorizing facts and following a fixed path

d)

Collecting data and avoiding hypotheses

8.

Which statement about the scientific method is true?

a)

There is no fixed path that scientists follow to gain scientific knowledge

b)

Scientists must always follow a strict sequence of steps

c)

The scientific method only involves conducting experiments

d)

Hypotheses are not part of the scientific method

9.

What percentage of the geologic time scale does the Precambrian period represent?

a)

88%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

95%

10.

Which of the following is NOT one of the Earth's spheres?

a)

Hydrosphere

b)

Atmosphere

c)

Biosphere

d)

Lithosphere

11.

What does Earth System Science aim to study?

a)

The Earth's weather patterns

b)

Earth as a system composed of numerous interacting parts or subsystems

c)

The Earth's magnetic field

d)

The Earth's geological history

12.

What is a system, as defined in Earth System Science?

a)

A group of non-interacting parts

b)

A single part of Earth's surface

c)

Any size group of interacting parts that form a complex whole

d)

A static and unchanging structure

13.

Which type of feedback mechanism maintains the status quo in a system?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Neutral feedback

d)

Dynamic feedback

14.

What powers the Earth's external processes?

a)

The Earth's interior

b)

The moon's gravitational pull

c)

The sun

d)

The Earth's magnetic field

15.

What is the Nebular Hypothesis?

a)

A theory about the Earth's magnetic field

b)

A theory of how Earth and the Sun were made

c)

A theory about the Earth's weather patterns

d)

A theory about the Earth's tectonic plates

16.

A diagram showing the hydrologic cycle, rock cycle, and interactions of cycles, including processes like precipitation, evaporation, weathering, erosion, and melting. What does this diagram primarily illustrate?

a)

The interactions between the hydrologic cycle and rock cycle, including processes such as precipitation, evaporation, weathering, erosion, and melting.

b)

The process of photosynthesis in plants and its effect on the atmosphere.

c)

The movement of tectonic plates and formation of mountains.

d)

The food chain in a terrestrial ecosystem.

17.

What event marked the beginning of the nebula's contraction that led to the formation of the solar system?

a)

About 10 billion years ago

b)

About 5 billion years ago

c)

About 2 billion years ago

d)

About 1 billion years ago

18.

Which of the following describes the formation of the larger outer planets?

a)

They formed from metallic and rocky surfaces.

b)

They formed from fragments of ices like H₂O and CO₂.

c)

They formed from molten rock rising to the surface.

d)

They formed from the contraction of the lithosphere.

19.

What process led to the formation of Earth's primitive crust?

a)

Metals sank to the center.

b)

Molten rock rose to the surface.

c)

Chemical segregation occurred.

d)

Gases evolved from Earth's interior.

20.

Which layer of Earth's internal structure is defined as the first layer by physical properties?

a)

Asthenosphere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Inner Core

21.

What is the most prominent feature of continents?

a)

Oceanic Trenches

b)

Abyssal Plains

c)

Mountain Belts

d)

Continental Margins

22.

What are the components of the continental margins in the ocean basin?

a)

Abyssal Plains and Oceanic Trenches

b)

Continental Shelf, Continental Slope, and Continental Rise

c)

Shields and Stable Platforms

d)

Lithosphere and Asthenosphere

23.

What is the most prominent topographic feature on Earth found in the oceanic ridge system?

a)

Seamounts

b)

Oceanic Ridge System

c)

Continental Shelf

d)

Abyssal Plains

24.

Which type of rock is formed by changing preexisting igneous or sedimentary rocks under heat and pressure?

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Igneous Rock

c)

Metamorphic Rock

d)

Fossil Rock

25.

Which of the following is an example of a sedimentary rock?

a)

Gneiss

b)

Marble

c)

Limestone

d)

Basalt

26.

What is the driving force behind the formation of metamorphic rocks?

a)

Erosion and weathering

b)

Heat and pressure

c)

Deposition and compaction

d)

Cooling and solidification

27.

What does the rock cycle illustrate?

a)

The process of weathering and erosion only

b)

The loop by which one rock changes to another

c)

The formation of igneous rocks only

d)

The deposition of sediments in oceans

28.

Who first proposed the Continental Drift Hypothesis, and in what year?

a)

Alfred Wegener, 1915

b)

Charles Darwin, 1859

c)

James Hutton, 1785

d)

Harry Hess, 1962

29.

A diagram illustrating the rock cycle, showing processes like solidification, weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, and metamorphism. Which of the following processes is NOT part of the rock cycle?

a)

Solidification

b)

Weathering

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Metamorphism

30.

Who proposed the hypothesis of seafloor spreading in the early 1960s?

a)

Alfred Wegener

b)

Harry Hess

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

James Hutton

31.

What was the name of the supercontinent that began breaking apart about 200 million years ago, according to Alfred Wegener's hypothesis?

a)

Gondwana

b)

Laurasia

c)

Pangea

d)

Rodinia

32.

Which of the following was NOT used as evidence to support Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift?

a)

Fit of the continents

b)

Rock type and structural similarities

c)

Fossil evidence of dinosaurs

d)

Paleoclimatic evidence

33.

What was one of the objections to Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift?

a)

Lack of evidence for the fit of continents

b)

Incorrect suggestion that continents broke through the ocean like icebreakers

c)

No evidence of paleoclimatic changes

d)

Lack of evidence for rock type similarities

34.

What does polar wandering indicate about the movement of continents?

a)

Continents have remained stationary over time

b)

Continents have moved closer to the poles

c)

Continents have shifted positions over time

d)

Continents have moved away from the equator

35.

What is the term for the periodic reversal of Earth's magnetic field, where the north magnetic pole becomes the south magnetic pole and vice versa?

a)

Magnetic drift

b)

Geomagnetic reversals

c)

Polar wandering

d)

Magnetic anomalies

36.

What technological advancement during the 1950s and 1960s allowed for extensive mapping of the ocean floor?

a)

Satellite imaging

b)

Sonar technology

c)

Deep-sea drilling

d)

Submarine exploration

37.

What evidence did Vine and Matthews use in 1963 to support Hess's concept of seafloor spreading?

a)

Fossil records in the ocean crust

b)

Magnetic stripes in the ocean crust near ridges

c)

Changes in ocean water temperature

d)

Sediment layers on the ocean floor

38.

What is the primary method for determining plate motions according to paleomagnetism?

a)

Observing volcanic eruptions

b)

Studying paleomagnetism stored in rocks on the ocean floor

c)

Measuring earthquake frequencies

d)

Analyzing sediment deposits

39.

Which of the following statements about the lithosphere is correct?

a)

It is the weakest region in the mantle.

b)

It consists of the uppermost mantle and overlying crust.

c)

It is composed entirely of liquid magma.

d)

It is located below the asthenosphere.

40.

What is the largest lithospheric plate on Earth?

a)

The Atlantic Plate

b)

The Pacific Plate

c)

The Eurasian Plate

d)

The Indian Plate

41.

What is a key characteristic of Earth's major lithospheric plates?

a)

They are stationary and unchanging.

b)

They include only oceanic regions.

c)

They are in motion and continually changing in shape and size.

d)

They are composed entirely of continental crust.

42.

What is the term for the weaker region in the mantle that the lithosphere overlies?

a)

The asthenosphere

b)

The mesosphere

c)

The core

d)

The crust

43.

What was the most convincing evidence for the concepts of continental drift and seafloor spreading?

a)

Fossil evidence

b)

Geomagnetic reversal

c)

Ocean water salinity

d)

Sediment thickness

44.

What is the approximate rate at which tectonic plates move relative to each other?

a)

About 5 centimeters (2 inches) per year

b)

About 10 centimeters (4 inches) per year

c)

About 1 centimeter (0.5 inches) per year

d)

About 20 centimeters (8 inches) per year

45.

What happens to cooler, denser slabs of oceanic lithosphere?

a)

They rise to the surface of the ocean

b)

They descend into the mantle

c)

They remain stationary

d)

They break apart into smaller pieces

46.

What type of plate boundary is most commonly located along the crests of oceanic ridges?

a)

Convergent plate boundaries

b)

Divergent plate boundaries

c)

Transform plate boundaries

d)

Subduction zones

47.

What is a characteristic of oceanic ridges and seafloor spreading?

a)

The seafloor is elevated, forming oceanic ridges

b)

The seafloor sinks into the mantle

c)

The seafloor remains flat and unchanged

d)

The seafloor is covered by continental crust

48.

What is the process called when landmasses split into two or more smaller segments along a continental rift?

a)

Subduction

b)

Continental rifting

c)

Seafloor spreading

d)

Ridge topography

49.

What type of plate boundary is produced by extensional forces acting on lithospheric plates?

a)

Convergent plate boundaries

b)

Transform fault boundaries

c)

Divergent plate boundaries

d)

Subduction zones

50.

Which of the following is an example of a divergent plate boundary?

a)

East African Rift Valleys

b)

Andes Mountains

c)

San Andreas Fault

d)

Hawaiian Islands

51.

What is the surface expression of a descending plate in a convergent plate boundary called?

a)

Rift valley

b)

Ocean trench

c)

Transform fault

d)

Mantle plume

52.

Which type of plate boundary involves plates sliding past one another without creating new lithosphere?

a)

Divergent plate boundaries

b)

Convergent plate boundaries

c)

Transform fault boundaries

d)

Subduction zones

53.

What is the primary cause of hot spots and mantle plumes?

a)

Subduction of oceanic plates

b)

Rising plumes of mantle material

c)

Collision of continental plates

d)

Movement along transform faults

54.

Which of the following is an example of a transform fault boundary?

a)

East African Rift Valleys

b)

San Andreas Fault

c)

Andes Mountains

d)

Hawaiian Islands

55.

What are the characteristics of long-lived structures in plate tectonics?

a)

They are temporary and change frequently.

b)

They originate at shallow depths and are highly mobile.

c)

They are largely fixed and provide direction and rate for plate motion relative to the mantle framework.

d)

They are formed only at the Earth's surface.

56.

Which of the following methods is used to measure plate velocities from space?

a)

Seismic wave analysis

b)

Very Long Baseline Interferometry (VLBI)

c)

Ocean floor drilling

d)

Magnetic field mapping

57.

What is the basic driving force of plate tectonics according to researchers?

a)

Gravitational pull from the Moon

b)

Convective flow in the mantle

c)

Earth's magnetic field

d)

Solar radiation

58.

How can plate motion and rate be determined relative to the navigation satellite framework?

a)

By analyzing volcanic eruptions

b)

By using Global Positioning System (GPS)

c)

By studying fossil records

d)

By measuring ocean currents

59.

What is one of the forces that drive plate motion?

a)

Solar wind

b)

Mantle convection

c)

Earth's rotation

d)

Atmospheric pressure

60.

What is one of the forces involved in plate tectonics?

a)

Slab-pull

b)

Magnetic repulsion

c)

Oceanic drift

d)

Atmospheric pressure

61.

Which of the following is a model of plate-mantle convection?

a)

Layering at 660 kilometers

b)

Crustal folding

c)

Oceanic spreading

d)

Continental drift

62.

What must any model of plate-mantle convection be consistent with?

a)

Observed physical and chemical properties of the mantle

b)

The speed of tectonic plate movement

c)

The temperature of the Earth's core

d)

The density of the oceanic crust

63.

Analyze the diagram and explain how slab-pull and ridge-push contribute to plate movement.

a)

Slab-pull occurs as a dense plate sinks into the mantle, pulling the rest of the plate with it, while ridge-push occurs as magma rises at mid-ocean ridges, pushing plates apart.

b)

Slab-pull and ridge-push both occur due to the movement of ocean currents.

c)

Slab-pull is caused by the gravitational pull of the moon, while ridge-push is caused by volcanic eruptions.

d)

Slab-pull and ridge-push are unrelated processes that do not affect plate movement.

64.

Evaluate the differences between the whole-mantle convection model and the deep-layer model of plate-mantle convection.

a)

The whole-mantle convection model involves the entire mantle in circulation, while the deep-layer model suggests separate layers of convection.

b)

The whole-mantle convection model focuses on the crust, while the deep-layer model focuses on the core.

c)

The whole-mantle convection model is based on oceanic processes, while the deep-layer model is based on atmospheric processes.

d)

The whole-mantle convection model and the deep-layer model are identical in their approach.

65.

What is the primary function of mantle plumes in the Earth's mantle?

a)

To cool the Earth's core

b)

To transport heat from the core to the surface

c)

To create oceanic ridges

d)

To prevent volcanic activity

66.

Which layer of the Earth is directly above the core in the Whole-Mantle Convection model?

a)

Upper mantle

b)

Lower mantle

c)

Crust

d)

Oceanic plate

67.

In the Deep-Layer model, what is the role of the upper mantle?

a)

It acts as a rigid layer that does not move.

b)

It facilitates the movement of mantle plumes.

c)

It prevents heat transfer from the core.

d)

It forms the Earth's crust.

68.

What geological feature is commonly associated with hot spots in the Earth's mantle?

a)

Oceanic ridges

b)

Volcanic trails

c)

Descending ocean plates

d)

Lower mantle currents

69.

Why is the study of plate tectonics important?

a)

It explains the movement of ocean currents.

b)

It helps understand the formation of Earth's surface features.

c)

It describes the behavior of the Earth's atmosphere.

d)

It focuses on the Earth's magnetic field.

70.

What does the theory provide explanations for?

a)

Earth's major surface processes, geologic distribution of earthquakes, and ancient organisms

b)

Earth's weather patterns and climate changes

c)

The formation of galaxies and stars

d)

The behavior of animals in different ecosystems

71.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a mineral?

a)

Naturally occurring

b)

Generally inorganic

c)

Liquid substance

d)

Orderly crystalline structure

72.

What is the definition of a rock?

a)

A naturally occurring liquid

b)

A solid mass of minerals or mineral-like matter that occurs naturally

c)

A gaseous substance found in the atmosphere

d)

A synthetic material created in laboratories

73.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mineral's chemical composition?

a)

It is indefinite and varies widely

b)

It is definite and consistent

c)

It is always organic

d)

It is always liquid

74.

What is the smallest particle of matter that cannot be chemically split?

a)

Atom

b)

Molecule

c)

Mineral

d)

Rock

75.

Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Nucleus

76.

What surrounds the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Minerals

77.

What is the term for the cloud of negative charges surrounding the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Electron cloud

b)

Proton shell

c)

Neutron field

d)

Atomic layer

78.

Which of the following is an example of a mineral?

a)

Quartz

b)

Rock

c)

Mountain

d)

Planet

79.

What is the correct order of organization from smallest to largest in the given diagram?

a)

Atom → Mineral → Rock → Mountain → Planet → Solar System → Galaxy

b)

Atom → Rock → Mineral → Mountain → Planet → Galaxy → Solar System

c)

Mineral → Atom → Rock → Mountain → Planet → Solar System → Galaxy

d)

Atom → Mineral → Rock → Planet → Mountain → Galaxy → Solar System

80.

What does the atomic number of an atom represent?

a)

The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom

b)

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom

c)

The number of electrons in the outer shell of an atom

d)

The total number of particles in the atom

81.

What is the octet rule in chemical bonding?

a)

Atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons until they are surrounded by eight valence electrons

b)

Atoms always share electrons equally

c)

Atoms form bonds to achieve a total of ten valence electrons

d)

Atoms lose all their valence electrons to form stable compounds

82.

What type of bonding involves the sharing of a pair of electrons?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hybrid bonding

83.

Which of the following best describes an element?

a)

A group of different kinds of atoms

b)

A group of the same kind of atoms

c)

A compound formed by combining two or more atoms

d)

A mixture of atoms and molecules

84.

How does metallic bonding contribute to the properties of metals?

a)

By forming rigid structures that do not conduct electricity

b)

By allowing valence electrons to migrate freely among atoms

c)

By sharing a pair of electrons between atoms

d)

By transferring electrons to form oppositely charged ions

85.

Why do ionic bonds form between oppositely charged ions?

a)

Because oppositely charged ions repel each other

b)

Because oppositely charged ions attract each other

c)

Because ions with the same charge attract each other

d)

Because ions with the same charge repel each other

86.

How do hybrid bonds differ from purely ionic or covalent bonds?

a)

Hybrid bonds involve only electron transfer

b)

Hybrid bonds involve only electron sharing

c)

Hybrid bonds exhibit both electron sharing and electron transfer

d)

Hybrid bonds do not involve electrons at all

87.

Which of the following processes is NOT a way minerals can form?

a)

Precipitation of mineral matter

b)

Crystallization of molten rock

c)

Deposition as a result of biological processes

d)

Combustion of organic material

88.

What happens when ions in an aqueous solution reach saturation?

a)

They dissolve completely.

b)

They start forming crystalline solids.

c)

They evaporate into the atmosphere.

d)

They lose their chemical properties.

89.

What is the role of marine organisms in the formation of minerals?

a)

They secrete calcium carbonate (CaCO3).

b)

They dissolve existing minerals.

c)

They increase the temperature of magma.

d)

They prevent crystallization of minerals.

90.

Which property of minerals is determined by observation or performing a simple test?

a)

Optical properties

b)

Primary diagnostic properties

c)

Chemical composition

d)

Magnetic properties

91.

What does the term "luster" refer to in the context of minerals?

a)

The ability of a mineral to transmit light

b)

The appearance of a mineral in reflected light

c)

The hardness of a mineral

d)

The density of a mineral

92.

Which of the following is NOT a basic category of luster?

a)

Metallic

b)

Nonmetallic

c)

Transparent

d)

Opaque

93.

What happens to atoms in magma as it cools?

a)

They become more mobile.

b)

They slow down and begin to chemically combine.

c)

They evaporate into the atmosphere.

d)

They dissolve into the surrounding rock.

94.

What is the term for a mineral's ability to transmit light?

a)

Luster

b)

Transparency

c)

Optical property

d)

Opaque

95.

What does the term "streak" refer to in mineral identification?

a)

The color of a mineral in its powdered form

b)

The way a mineral reflects light

c)

The ability of a mineral to resist scratching

d)

The tendency of a mineral to break along planes

96.

Which type of bond is associated with minerals that are brittle and shatter easily?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Metallic bonds

c)

Covalent bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

97.

What is the Mohs Scale of Hardness used for?

a)

Measuring the density of minerals

b)

Comparing the resistance of minerals to abrasion or scratching

c)

Determining the color of minerals in powdered form

d)

Identifying the specific gravity of minerals

98.

What is the difference between cleavage and fracture in minerals?

a)

Cleavage refers to smooth and flat surfaces, while fracture is the absence of cleavage

b)

Cleavage is the color of a mineral in powdered form, while fracture is its density

c)

Cleavage is the resistance to scratching, while fracture is the ability to bend

d)

Cleavage is the tendency to shatter, while fracture is the ability to deform

99.

What is specific gravity in the context of minerals?

a)

The ratio of the weight of a mineral to the weight of an equal volume of water

b)

The mass of a mineral per unit volume

c)

The resistance of a mineral to breaking or deforming

d)

The ability of a mineral to reflect light

100.

Which era are we currently in?

a)

Mesozoic

b)

Precambrian

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Cenozoic

101.

In radioactive decay, an unstable ________ isotope will decay into a stable ________ isotope.

a)

ion; carbon

b)

parent; daughter

c)

daughter; parent

d)

neutron; ionized

102.

Using the geologic cross section above, put the rock layers in order from youngest to oldest

a)

h

h

m

x

p

c

z

t

b)

t

z

c

p

x

m

h

103.

Faults, fractures are younger than the rocks they cut through.

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Unconformities

d)

Inclusions

e)

Lateral continuity

104.

The oldest is on the bottom, the youngest on top.

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Unconformities

d)

Inclusions

e)

Lateral continuity

105.

Missing time

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Unconformities

d)

Inclusions

e)

Lateral continuity

106.

Chunks of weathered rock are older than the rock they are contained in.

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Unconformities

d)

Inclusions

e)

Lateral continuity

107.

Rocks extend in all directions until they reach the edge of a basin or pinch out.

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Unconformities

d)

Inclusions

e)

Lateral continuity

108.

Sedimentary layers/lava are deposited in horizontal layers.

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Original horizontality

d)

Inclusions

e)

Lateral continuity

109.

What is the definition of relative dating?

a)

Putting events in order from first to last

b)

Using radioactive materials to determine an age

c)

Counting tree rings to determine an age

d)

Calculating dates based on the theory of relativity

110.

A(n) ________ is a type of unconformity with parallel beds above and below the erosional surface.

a)

fossil conformity

b)

nonconformity

c)

disconformity

d)

angular unconformity

111.

What is an index fossil?

a)

An organism that existed for a vast period of time and is representative of an era

b)

An organisms that is restricted to one small, geographic setting

c)

A trace fossil that defines a colony of organisms

d)

An organism that was geographically widespread but limited to a short span of geologic time

112.

What scientific development made accurate numerical dating possible?

a)

Discovery of radioactivity

b)

Correlation of rock layers

c)

Development of radar

d)

Discovery of X-rays

113.

________ is a term used to define 88% of Earth's history prior to the start of the Paleozoic era.

a)

Quaternary

b)

Precambrian

c)

Paleogene

d)

Jurassic

114.

What kind of unconformity is visible in this figure?

a)

Angular unconformity

b)

Disconformity

c)

Nonconformity

d)

All these sedimentary layers are conformable.

115.

Which two conditions are the most important in order for an organism to become fossilized?

a)

Rapid death and oxygen-free environment

b)

Rapid burial and possession of hard parts

c)

Rapid mineralization and rapid desiccation

d)

Rapid decay and possession of soft tissues

116.

What is the effective maximum range for carbon-14 dating?

a)

150,000 years

b)

70,000 years

c)

10,000 years

d)

3,000 years

117.

The Mississippi River cuts through Silurian-aged dolomite between northwestern Illinois and eastern Iowa. Which is older? How do you know?

a)

Dolomite; the principle of superposition

b)

Mississippi; the principle of original horizontality

c)

Dolomite; the principle of cross-cutting relationships

d)

Mississippi; the principle of lateral continuity

118.

What is a fossil?

a)

Evidence of past life that can include skeletal as well as trace material

b)

Only the hard parts of a skeletal structure that have been preserved

c)

Mudcracks preserved in sedimentary rock

d)

A really old geologist

119.

The white granite of the Idaho Batholith near Boise, Idaho, contains dark gray xenoliths of metamorphic material. Which is older? How do you know?

a)

Granite; the principle of superposition

b)

Xenoliths; the principle of cross-cutting relations

c)

Granite; the principle of unconformities

d)

Xenoliths; the principle of inclusions

120.

What is the definition of an inclusion?

a)

A fossil of an organism that existed for a short period of geologic time

b)

A fragment of one rock unit enclosed in another rock unit

c)

An unstable isotope decaying into a stable form

d)

A fault bisecting a layer of rock

121.

________ is the scientific study of fossils.

a)

Quaternary geology

b)

Volcanology

c)

Geomorphology

d)

Paleontology

122.

Which of the following is an example of a relative date?

a)

The Cenozoic era began 65 million years ago.

b)

A headstone in a cemetery has the date a person died.

c)

The Declaration of Independence was written in 1776.

d)

The Silurian period came before the Devonian period.

123.

Which rock layer is the oldest in this image?

a)

Kaibab Limestone

b)

Toroweap Formation

c)

Coconino Sandstone

d)

Hermit Shale

e)

Supai Group

124.

What materials are best dated with carbon-14?

a)

Igneous rocks

b)

Volcanic rocks

c)

Organic materials

d)

Sandstones