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Biology Final Exam Overview

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which resource are students allowed to bring to the Biology Final Fall 2025?

a)

One 3x5 inch notecard

b)

A printed textbook and notes

c)

An online reference website

d)

A full study guide packet

2.

Which statement best describes cellular homeostasis in a single cell?

a)

Sending signals to nearby tissues only

b)

Maintaining internal balance of conditions

c)

Storing extra glucose for later use

d)

Increasing cell size without limits

3.

What is the primary role of receptors in cell communication?

a)

Bind signals and start a response

b)

Move ions across membranes randomly

c)

Break down hormones for energy

d)

Create new neurotransmitters quickly

4.

During DNA replication, what does semi-conservative mean?

a)

Each new DNA has one old strand

b)

DNA copies without any old strands

c)

All nucleotides are replaced fully

d)

Replication occurs only during mitosis

5.

Which checkpoint failure most directly leads to cancer development?

a)

Uncontrolled progression through cell cycle

b)

More differentiation before division

c)

Extra cytokinesis after mitosis

d)

Temporary pause in interphase growth

6.

What is the main purpose of mitosis in multicellular organisms?

a)

Produce identical cells for growth

b)

Create gametes with variation

c)

Mix genes by crossing over

d)

Increase specialization without division

7.

How does cell differentiation change a cell’s function?

a)

Specializes by turning specific genes on

b)

Adds extra chromosomes to work harder

c)

Stops all signaling to conserve energy

d)

Removes organelles to keep size small

8.

Which scenario shows negative feedback maintaining homeostasis?

a)

High blood sugar triggers insulin release

b)

High temperature causes faster mitosis

c)

Strong stimulus increases receptor number

d)

Low hormone levels stop all responses

9.

Which molecule is usually double-stranded, uses thymine, and stores hereditary information long term?

a)

tRNA with deoxyribose and uracil

b)

mRNA with ribose and thymine bases

c)

DNA with deoxyribose sugar and thymine

d)

RNA with ribose sugar and uracil

10.

What is the correct flow of information in the central dogma of biology?

a)

Protein to DNA to RNA

b)

Protein to RNA to DNA

c)

DNA to RNA to protein

d)

RNA to DNA to protein

11.

During transcription, which pairing occurs between bases in RNA and DNA?

a)

A pairs with U, C pairs with G

b)

A pairs with T, C pairs with U

c)

U pairs with T, G pairs with C

d)

A pairs with G, T pairs with U

12.

Which process produces gametes with half the chromosome number and increases genetic variation?

a)

Meiosis with crossing over and assortment

b)

Mitosis with cytokinesis and checkpoints

c)

Binary fission without recombination

d)

Replication with semi-conservative copying

13.

A point mutation changes one base in a gene. Which outcome is most likely if the change alters a codon to a stop?

a)

Truncated protein with lost function

b)

Silent protein with identical sequence

c)

Longer protein with extra domain

d)

Unchanged protein with improved activity

14.

Two heterozygous parents for a recessive disorder have a child. What is the probability the child shows the disorder?

a)

0 percent chance of being affected

b)

75 percent chance of being affected

c)

50 percent chance of being affected

d)

25 percent chance of being affected

15.

Which biotechnology method most directly changes an organism’s DNA to introduce a new trait?

a)

Gel electrophoresis for DNA separation

b)

Selective breeding over many generations

c)

Genetic engineering using recombinant DNA

d)

Cloning through somatic cell nuclear transfer

16.

Which statement best defines evolution in a population?

a)

A change in allele frequency over time

b)

A change in individual fitness after birth

c)

A change in environmental conditions each season

d)

A change in number of species in an ecosystem

17.

What is the most direct cause of natural selection within a population?

a)

Equal reproductive success for all individuals

b)

Random mating without any preferences

c)

Variation, competition, and survival pressures

d)

Stable environments with no change

18.

Which outcome is most likely when environmental changes reduce a species’ ability to survive?

a)

Uniform survival of all phenotypes

b)

Guaranteed increase in genetic diversity

c)

Adaptation or extinction over generations

d)

Immediate speciation within one generation

19.

Which scenario describes sexual selection rather than natural selection?

a)

Traits favored because food becomes scarce

b)

Traits favored because predators increase

c)

Traits favored because climate gets colder

d)

Traits favored because mates prefer them

20.

Which situation would most likely lead to speciation?

a)

Constant interbreeding across territories

b)

Identical environments across all ranges

c)

Unlimited migration maintaining gene flow

d)

Reproductive isolation between populations

21.

Which evidence most directly supports common ancestry among species?

a)

Homologous structures with similar anatomy

b)

Similar habitats with comparable climates

c)

Equal population sizes across regions

d)

Matching behaviors in social interactions

22.

A cladogram shows relationships among species. What feature on a cladogram indicates a shared derived trait?

a)

A branch point marking a new trait

b)

A legend listing geographic locations

c)

A leaf node with species names only

d)

A scale bar indicating time units

23.

Which list correctly orders ecological levels from smallest to largest?

a)

Organism, community, ecosystem, biosphere

b)

Community, ecosystem, biome, organism

c)

Population, organism, ecosystem, biome

d)

Organism, population, community, ecosystem

e)

Ecosystem, community, population, organism

24.

Which statement best distinguishes biotic from abiotic factors in an ecosystem?

a)

Biotic include climate; abiotic include species traits

b)

Biotic change slowly; abiotic change rapidly

c)

Biotic are renewable; abiotic are limited resources

d)

Biotic are producers; abiotic are consumers

e)

Biotic are living; abiotic are nonliving components

25.

In a food web, which role is directly responsible for converting sunlight into chemical energy?

a)

Keystone predator regulating prey

b)

Decomposer recycling nutrients

c)

Secondary consumer at level three

d)

Primary consumer at level two

e)

Producer at the first trophic level

26.

According to the 10% rule, if a grassland produces 1,000 kcal at the producer level, about how much energy is available to secondary consumers?

a)

1,000 kcal at level three

b)

100 kcal at level three

c)

1 kcal at level three

d)

300 kcal at level three

e)

10 kcal at level three

27.

Which graph pattern suggests a population has reached carrying capacity due to limiting factors?

a)

Straight line increasing without limit

b)

Exponential curve with no slowdown

c)

Random oscillations without any trend

d)

Logistic growth leveling into a plateau

e)

Sharp decline followed by extinction

28.

Which scenario best illustrates a keystone species?

a)

A mutualistic bee visiting several wildflowers

b)

A plant that adds minor nutrients to soil

c)

A predator whose removal collapses food web

d)

An invasive herbivore that eats fast-growing grass

e)

A decomposer that recycles fallen leaves

29.

Which human activity most directly reduces biodiversity and destabilizes ecosystems?

a)

Planting native trees in urban parks

b)

Releasing greenhouse gases from industry

c)

Restoring habitats after natural fires

d)

Protecting wetlands from development

e)

Tracking population changes with graphs

30.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
31.
The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
a)
positive and negative 
b)
receptor and effector
c)
static and dynamic
d)
minor and major
32.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
33.

What is the point of a feedback loop?

a)

To provide the body with more energy

b)

To provide the body with more food

c)

To make sure the conditions in the body are always changing

d)

To make sure the conditions in the body remain stable

34.

In this body temperature feedback loop, predict what would happen if cooling mechanisms were NOT activated?

a)

The body would not warm up.

b)

The body would not cool down.

c)

Your body would get colder and colder.

d)

Your body would release lots of heat.

35.

Osmosis is the diffusion of ______________ molecules.

a)

salt

b)

glucose

c)

water

d)

protein

36.

Passive transport is called “passive” because it occurs WITHOUT:

a)

Energy

b)

cause

c)

a cell wall

d)

a concentration gradient

37.

Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?

a)

osmosis 

b)

diffusion

c)

endocytosis

d)

facilitated diffusion

38.

In passive transport, particles move from and area of ____ concentration to _____ concentration.

a)

High to low

b)

low to high

c)

high to high

d)

low to low

39.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
40.

Active transport is movement of particles through the cell membrane from a region of ...1... to a region of ...2... using energy in the form of ...3...

a)

1: lower concentration, 2: higher concentration, 3: NADPH

b)

1: higher concentration, 2: lower concentration, 3: NADPH

c)

1: higher concentration, 2: lower concentration, 3: ATP

d)

1: lower concentration, 2: higher concentration, 3: ATP

41.

Plants, animals and fungi are composed of many cells working together. They are called

a)

multicellular organism

b)

unicellular organism

c)

cell differentiation

d)

cell diversity

42.

Cells differentiate to perform different functions because

a)

all genes are turned on inside that cell

b)

all genes are turned off inside that cell

c)

different genes are turned on inside that cell

d)

different genes are turned on or off inside that cell

43.

During the process of differentiation

a)

all sections of DNA are activated to determine the structure of a body cell

b)

ONLY ONE section of DNA are deactivated to determine the structure of a body cell

c)

only specific sections of DNA sequence are activated to determine the structure and functions of a body cell

44.

There are about 200 cells in the human body. All these cells have the same DNA. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

c)

maybe

d)

it depends upon the type

45.

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Fatty Acids

d)

Polysaccharides

46.

Cytosine bonds with ____

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

47.

Adenine bonds with _____

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

48.

What is a mutation?

a)

Adenine

b)

a change/mistake in DNA

c)

a copy of the original DNA

d)

Guanine

49.

This is an example of -

THE DOG HID THE TOY (ORIGINAL)

THE DOG SHI DTH ETO Y??

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

50.

This is an example of -

THE DOG HID THE TOY (ORIGINAL)

THE DOG HIM THE TOY (NEW)

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

51.

Frameshift mutations result from -

a)

additions

b)

substitutions

c)

deletions

d)

all of these

52.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)

Metaphase

53.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Interphase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Telophase
d)

Prophase

54.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)

Telophase

55.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Anaphase

56.
What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
a)
To create new daughter cells
b)
To prevent cancer from developing
c)
To help the body fight viruses and bacteria
d)

To make the cell grow in size

57.

Uncontrolled cell division which usually leads to tumors and disease is called:

a)

High cholesterol

b)

Blood clots

c)

Cancer

d)

Diabetes

58.

Cells of organisms must replicate for?

a)

Growth

b)

Replacement of dying cells

c)

Repair of damaged cells

d)

All of the above

59.

What is this structure called

a)

Double Helix

b)

Double Felix

c)

Two Cats

d)

Single Strand

60.

What are the differences between DNA and RNA?

a)

RNA is single stranded; DNA is double stranded

b)

RNA has the base U; DNA has the base T

c)

Both

d)

Neither

61.

Transcription goes from:

a)

DNA to DNA

b)

DNA to Protein

c)

DNA to RNA

d)

None of the above

62.

Transcribe the DNA to RNA:

G A C - C T A - A G T

a)

G A C - C T A - A G T

b)

C U G - G A U - U C A

c)

C T G - G A T- T C A

63.

What protein is UCC

a)

Ser

b)

STOP

c)

Thr

d)

Tyr

64.

What protein is AAC

a)

Ser

b)

STOP

c)

Asn

d)

Lys

65.

Transcribe the DNA to RNA:

A A G - C T G - T A G

a)

A A G - C T G - T A G

b)

A A G - C T G - T A G

c)

U U C - G A C - A U C

66.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
67.

The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.

a)

heterozygous

b)

haploid

c)

homologous

d)

diploid

68.

At the end of mitosis you have _____ cells.

a)

identical

b)

different

c)

identical twins

d)

variety

69.

The products of meiosis are genetically...

a)

different.

b)

identical.

70.

How many daughter cells are produced from mitosis?

a)

10

b)

6

c)

4

d)

2

71.

The alleles of a gene pair in a heterozygote are both expressed with no blending.

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic

d)

multiple alleles

72.

A trait associated with a gene that is carried on the X or Y chromosome.

a)

sex linked

b)

polygenic

c)

multiple alleles

d)

codomiance

73.

Neither allele is dominant. Heterozygote has a blended phenotype.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

sex linked

74.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
75.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
76.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
77.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
78.
Natural selection is when ____________ decides who survives and who doesn't
a)
nature
b)
humans
c)
animals
d)
years
79.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
80.
Change over time
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Evolution
81.
Which best describes mutations?
a)
Always helpful
b)
Always harmful
c)
Can be helpful or harmful
d)
Always neutral
82.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
83.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
84.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
85.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
86.
Which of these best represents a time period in which an organism could evolve?
a)
5 days
b)
100 years
c)
10,000 years
d)
2 decades
87.

Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis (hip) bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)

a)

vestigial structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

homologous structure

88.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
89.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
90.
An error in DNA copying that results in a new trait
a)
Homeostasis
b)
Mutation
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Selective Breeding
91.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
92.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
93.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
94.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
95.
When a population becomes divided by an event such as a new river forming, ____________ has occurred.
a)
Differentiation 
b)
Isolation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Separation
96.
Variations in a population are caused by:
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Random Mutations
97.
If an environment changes, populations with ______________ have a better chance of survival.
a)
No genetic variations
b)
Genetic variations
c)
A small number
d)
A large number
98.

Which of the following best describes the role of bacteria in the food web above?

a)

Uses energy from light, to combine oxygen, carbon dioxide and water and converts it into energy in the form of sugar.

b)

Uses energy from dead organisms or waste material to break down dead organisms and waste material into nutrients.

c)

Controls the population by removing energy from living organisms

d)

Uses energy from dead organisms or waste material to transfers energy

99.
A tree is a ....
a)
composer
b)
decomposer
c)
producer
100.
What is a herbivore?
a)
an animal that gets energy from eating other animals
b)
an organism that gets energy from eating only plants
c)
an animal that gets energy by eating both plants and other animals
d)
an animal that eats only herbs
101.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
102.
All food chains begin with a ____________.
a)
primary consumer
b)
secondary consumer
c)
producers
d)
scavengers
103.

Barnacles are animals that cannot move. In order to get food, they attach to whales and catch any floating plankton in the water. The whale is neither helped nor harmed in the interaction. What type of symbiosis is this?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Neutralism

104.

In the wild, some alligators gets their teeth cleaned by birds. The birds gets their food from the alligators' teeth.

What type of symbiosis is this?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Neutralism

105.

Which of the following best describes a relationship in the food web?

a)

The green plant is a decomposer because it is consumed by the rabbit.

b)

The goat is a primary consumer because it is consumed by the jackal.

c)

The wild cat is a secondary consumer because it consumes the rabbit.

d)

The mouse is a producer because it consumes the green plant.

106.
A tick and a dog have this type of relationship.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
neutralism
d)
parasitism
107.
a relationship that occurs when two or more organims of the same species need the same resource at the same time
a)
competition
b)
symbiosis
c)
predation
108.
In this food web, the snake and the mouse have this relationship
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
predation
d)
parasitsm
109.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
110.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
111.
Which of the following go through the process of photosynthesis?
a)
bees
b)
algae
c)
humans
d)
mushrooms
112.
What is the correct equation for photosynthesis?
a)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O
b)
6CO2 + 6O2 --> C6H12O6  + 6H2O
c)
 6CO2 + 6O2 --> 6H2O + C6H12O6
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O  -->  6O2 + C6H12O6
113.
Which of the following is an example of a HETEROTROPH?
a)
Grass
b)
Algae
c)
Lemon Tree
d)
Bear
114.
What are the reactants of photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide and oxygen
b)
water and oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
water and glucose
115.
The cell organelle that is the site for photosynthesis is called:
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast
116.
What is the energy molecule?
a)
DNA
b)
ATP
c)
RNA
d)
AAA
117.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ?
a)
energy
b)
oxygen
c)
sugar
d)
protein
118.
What is the energy organelle?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosomes
d)
lysosomes
119.
To get the most ATP molecules for energy in cellular respiration, you have to have lots of ?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
120.
The waste gas given off by cellular respiration is?
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrogen
d)
methane
121.
When respiration occurs with oxygen, it is called _______
a)
anaerobic
b)
aerobic
c)
light-dependent
d)
fermentation
122.
Because fermentation takes place in the absence of oxygen, it is said to be
a)
aerobic
b)
anaerobic
c)
cyclic
d)
oxygen-rich
123.
What is a disadvantage of fermentation as a process? 
a)
It produces too much ATP
b)
It only produces 2 ATP
c)
It occurs in the absence of oxygen
d)
It is only for quick bursts of energy
124.

Aerobic respiration produces ______ ATP than anaerobic respiration.

a)

More

b)

The Same

c)

Less

125.
What is transcription?
a)
When DNA is turned into RNA
b)
When RNA is turned into proteins
c)
When proteins are turned into DNA
d)
When proteins are turned in RNA
126.
What is translation?
a)
When DNA is turned into RNA
b)
When RNA is turned into proteins
c)
When proteins are turned into DNA
d)
When proteins are turned in RNA
127.

Is soil a biotic or abiotic factor?

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

128.
A living or once-living organisms in an ecosystem is a
a)
population
b)
biotic factor
c)
abiotic factor
d)
community
129.

What is the purpose of the cell cycle checkpoints?

a)

To make sure the cell isn't duplicating too fast

b)

They were there by chance and happen to help reduce the chances of cancer

c)

To make sure that all parts of the cell are healthy to avoid mutations

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