Free Printable Chemistry Honors Final Exam

1.

Which of the following states of matter is characterized by having definite shape?

a)

liquid

b)

gas

c)

solid

d)

plasma

2.

Matter in the liquid form _____.

a)

is easily compressed

b)

is generally denser than matter in the solid form

c)

has a definite shape

d)

has an indefinite volume

e)

can flow

3.

A hypothesis is ___________.

a)

A proposed explanation that has not yet been tested.

b)

An observation recorded from an experiment.

c)

A thoroughly tested model.

d)

An analysis of data collected from an experiment.

4.

A mixture of sand and water is known as a

a)

heterogeneous mixture

b)

heterozygous mixture

c)

isometric mixture

d)

homogeneous mixture

e)

solution

5.

A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood _____.

a)

is split

b)

decays

c)

is painted

d)

is cut

6.

All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT _______.

a)

bending

b)

rusting

c)

melting

d)

cutting

e)

polishing

7.

Convert $3.57 \times 10^{-6}$ into standard (long) form.

a)

0.0000357

b)

0.000357

c)

357000

d)

0.00000357

e)

357000

8.

Which of the following is a chemical property?

a)

color

b)

density

c)

reactivity with oxygen

d)

freezing point

9.

The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its _____.

a)

precision

b)

usefulness

c)

reproducibility

d)

accuracy

10.

The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?

a)

$1.54 \times 10^{-10}$ m

b)

$1.54 \times 10^{-12}$ m

c)

$1.54 \times 10^{10}$ m

d)

$1.54 \times 10^{12}$ m

e)

$1.54 \times 10^{-9}$ m

11.

What is the result of multiplying these two numbers: $(2.5 \times 10^{10}) \times (3.5 \times 10^{-7})$ ?

a)

$8.75 \times 10^{-3}$

b)

$8.75 \times 10^{17}$

c)

$8.75 \times 10^{-17}$

d)

$8.75 \times 10^{3}$

e)

$8.75 \times 10^{70}$

12.

Calculate the following and express the answer to the correct number of significant figures: $(4.0 \times 10^{-2}) \times (8.1 \times 10^{2})$

a)

$3 \times 10^{1}$

b)

$3.2 \times 10^{1}$

c)

$3.0 \times 10^{1}$

d)

$3.24 \times 10^{1}$

e)

$3.3 \times 10^{1}$

13.

Which of the following is a compound

a)

C

b)

CO

c)

Co

d)

O

14.

What is the quantity 15,300 mg expressed in kg?

a)

153 kg

b)

15.3 kg

c)

0.0153 kg

d)

1.53 kg

e)

0.153 kg

15.

What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters?

a)

0.075 cm

b)

7.5 cm

c)

70.5 cm

d)

75.0 cm

e)

0.75 cm

16.

How many feet is equal to 47.3 cm? (1 inch = 2.54 cm)

a)

1.55 ft

b)

1440 ft

c)

10.0 ft

d)

223 ft

e)

18.6 ft

17.

Dalton’s atomic theory included which idea?

a)

Atoms of the same element are always identical.

b)

All atoms of all elements are the same size.

c)

Atoms of different elements always combine in one-to-one ratios.

d)

Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope.

e)

When an atom of an element changes into another element, a chemical reaction takes place.

18.

What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element?

a)

An electron

b)

A proton

c)

A neutron

d)

A molecule

e)

An atom

19.

The nucleus of an atom _____.

a)

Has no charge

b)

Is composed of protons and electrons

c)

Occupies a large part of the atom

d)

Is the lightest part of the atom

e)

Is composed of protons and neutrons

20.

Select the correct statement about subatomic particles.

a)

Electrons are negatively-charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle

b)

The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton

c)

Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle

d)

Protons are positively-charged and the lightest subatomic particle

e)

Electrons, protons, and neutrons all have the same mass.

21.

When an atom is neutral, it has the same number of _________________________.

a)

Protons & neutrons

b)

Neutrons & electrons

c)

Protons & electrons

d)

Protons, neutrons & electrons

22.

The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus?

a)

neutrons

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

protons and electrons

e)

protons and electrons and neutrons

23.

The atomic mass of an element is equal to _____.

a)

The total number of subatomic particles in its nucleus

b)

The average of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in its nucleus

c)

The weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of the element

d)

The average of the mass number and the atomic number for the element

e)

The total mass of the isotopes of the element

24.

When Oxygen has a -2 charge, it has two more ______________________.

a)

Electrons

b)

Protons

c)

Neutrons

d)

All of the above

25.

The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the _____.

a)

Atomic number

b)

Nucleus number

c)

Mass number

d)

Atomic mass

26.

Isotopes of the same element have different _____.

a)

Numbers of protons

b)

Numbers of neutrons

c)

Numbers of electrons

d)

Atomic numbers

e)

Symbols

27.

Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in Pb-207.

a)

125

b)

82

c)

206

d)

207.2

e)

288

28.

The number of electrons in a Ca $^{2+}$ ion is:

a)

40

b)

22

c)

20

d)

18

e)

42

29.

In which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions?

a)

Na $^{+1}$ , Mg $^{+1}$ ,

Al $^{+1}$

b)

Rb $^{+1}$ , Ba $^{2-}$ ,

P $^{3-}$

c)

K $^{+1}$ , Sr $^{2+}$ ,

O $^{2-}$

d)

N $^{-1}$ , O $^{2-}$ ,

F $^{3-}$

e)

H $^{2-}$ , Li $^{+1}$ ,

Ne $^{-1}$

30.

Use the information in the chart to answer. The symbol for the element that belongs in the box labeled “E” is

a)

Hg

b)

Kr

c)

Rh

d)

Br

e)

Tl

31.

Ions form when atoms gain or lose _____

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

atomic number

e)

mass number

32.

When Group 2 (IIA) elements form ions, they _____.

a)

Lose two protons

b)

Gain two protons

c)

Gain two electrons

d)

Lose two electrons

e)

Become electrically neutral

33.

An element has 3 naturally occurring isotopes. The relative masses and abundances are: 35.978 amu (0.337%), 37.963 amu (0.063%), and 39.962 amu (99.600%). Calculate the atomic mass of the element.

a)

113.90

b)

37.97

c)

39.95

d)

36.62

e)

54.32

34.

As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is believed to be true?

a)

A model in which the protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom

b)

A model in which the nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and the region outside the nucleus is largely empty space in which the electrons are situated

c)

A model in which the nucleus is made of neutrons only

d)

A model in which the nucleus is made of electrons and protons

e)

A model in which the nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons

35.

A column of elements in the periodic table is known as a _____.

a)

row

b)

group

c)

list

d)

transition

36.

A cation is any atom or group of atoms with _____.

a)

No charge

b)

A positive charge

c)

A negative charge

d)

More electrons than the corresponding atoms

37.

When metals can be drawn into thin wires, they are ____________________.

a)

Dense

b)

Lustrous

c)

Malleable

d)

Ductile

e)

Brittle

38.

Which of the following is a nonmetal?

a)

Fe

b)

P

c)

Ca

d)

K

e)

Li

39.

Which of the following elements does NOT have similar chemical properties to sodium (Na)?

a)

Potassium (K)

b)

Cesium (Cs)

c)

Lithium (Li)

d)

Magnesium (Mg)

40.

Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic size?

a)

Na

b)

Cl

c)

Mg

d)

Al

41.

Which of the following elements has the largest atomic size?

a)

Li

b)

Na

c)

K

d)

Al

e)

Rb

42.

Which of the following elements has the largest ionization energy?

a)

Kr

b)

K

c)

Ca

d)

As

e)

Br

43.

What is the name of group 18 and can they chemically combine with other elements?

a)

Halogens, no

b)

Halogens, yes

c)

Noble gases, yes

d)

Noble gases, no

e)

Metalloids, no

44.

The atomic size of the elements within a group will generally

a)

decrease as you go down the group

b)

increase as you go down the group

c)

remain the same

45.

Electronegativity is defined as:

a)

The attraction of an atom for electrons when it is chemically combined with another atom

b)

The energy required for an atom to gain an electron

c)

The energy required for an atom to lose its most loosely held electron

d)

The charge an atom would have when it becomes isoelectronic with a noble gas

46.

Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound?

a)

CS2

b)

N2O4

c)

BaI2

d)

PCl

e)

Kr

47.

Molecular (covalent) compounds are usually _____.

a)

Composed of two or more nonmetallic elements

b)

Composed of two or more transition elements

c)

Composed of positive and negative ions

d)

Exceptions to the law of definite proportions

e)

Solids at room temperature

48.

Which of the following statements is true concerning molecular (covalent) compounds?

a)

They have much higher boiling points than ionic compounds.

b)

They have much lower melting points than ionic compounds.

c)

They are good conductors in the solid state.

d)

They are made from a metal and a non metal transferring electrons.

49.

When sulfur bonds covalently it will always make ________ bond(s).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

6

50.

A molecule which consists of a central atom covalently bonded to 4 other atoms and no unshared electrons on the central atom would have a ________ shape

a)

tetrahedral

b)

linear

c)

bent

d)

trigonal bipyramidal

e)

pyramidal

51.

Use the VSEPR theory to determine the shape of the molecule OCl₂

a)

linear

b)

pyramidal

c)

tetrahedral

d)

bent

e)

trigonal planar

52.

The electron dot structure for the molecule $N_2$ is:

a)

:N - N:

b)

:N = N:

c)

:N ≡ N:

d)

It is not possible to draw the electron dot structure for this molecule

53.

Use the VSEPR theory to determine the shape of the molecule $PF_3$ .

a)

linear

b)

bent

c)

tetrahedral

d)

trigonal planar

e)

pyramidal

54.

The VSEPR theory is a theory used to predict:

a)

the formula for ionic compounds

b)

the shape of molecular compounds

c)

the formula for molecular compounds

d)

the electron configuration of neutral atoms

e)

all of the above

55.

Which of the following molecules would have a linear shape?

a)

$H_2O$

b)

$CH_4$

c)

$F_2$

d)

$NH_3$

e)

$PF_5$

56.

The molecule HCN would have an electron dot structure:

a)

C≡H–N:

b)

H–C≡N:

c)

H–C–N:

d)

H≡C≡N:

e)

H≡C=N:

57.

Ionic bonding involves:

a)

a metal and a nonmetal transferring electrons

b)

a metal and a nonmetal sharing electrons

c)

two metals sharing electrons

d)

two nonmetals sharing electrons

e)

two nonmetals transferring electrons

58.

The correct formula for barium chlorate is _____.

a)

$Ba(ClO)_2$

b)

$Ba(ClO_2)_2$

c)

$Ba(ClO_4)_2$

d)

$Ba(ClO_3)_2$

e)

$BaCl_2$

59.

Which of the following correctly shows a prefix used in naming molecular compounds, with its corresponding number?

a)

deca-, 7

b)

tri-, 7

c)

penta-, 5

d)

hexa-, 8

e)

octa-, 4

60.

The compound $Fe_2(CO_3)_3$ is named

a)

Iron(III) carbonate

b)

Iron carbonate

c)

Iron(II) carbonate

d)

Diiron tricarbonate

e)

Triiron dicarbonate

61.

The correct name for $H_2SO_4$ is:

a)

Hydrosulfuric acid

b)

Sulfurous acid

c)

Hydrogen sulfite

d)

Sulfuric acid

e)

Hydrogen sulfide

62.

The correct name for $Sn_3(PO_4)_2$ is _____.

a)

tritin diphosphate

b)

tin(III) phosphate

c)

tin(IV) phosphate

d)

tin phosphate

e)

tin(II) phosphate

63.

The compound $PF_3$ is named

a)

Phosphorous trifluoride

b)

Potassium fluoride

c)

Potassium trifluoride

d)

Phosphorous fluoride

e)

Phosphorous (III) fluoride

64.

The correct formula for dinitrogen tetraoxide is _____.

a)

$N_2O_4$

b)

$N_2O_3$

c)

$NO_2$

d)

$N_2O$

e)

$N_4O_2$

65.

The correct formula for hexaiodine nonachloride is:

a)

$I_6Cl_9$

b)

$I_7Cl$

c)

$I_9Cl_6$

d)

$I_6Cl_9$

e)

$ICl_7$

66.

The correct formula for nitrous acid is:

a)

HN

b)

$HNO_2$

c)

$H_3N$

d)

$HNO_3$

e)

$H_2NO_2$

67.

What is the chemical formula for Magnesium Oxide?

a)

$Mg_2O_2$

b)

$MgO_2$

c)

$MgO$

d)

$Mg_2O$

68.

What is the correct name for the formula, $KCl$ ?

a)

Potassium Chlorine

b)

Potassium Chloride

c)

Potassium Chlorate

d)

Potassium Perchlorate

69.

1 mole is equivalent to ______________________.

a)

the molar mass of an element or compound

b)

22.4 Liters

c)

$6.02 \times 10^{23}$ particles

d)

all of the above

70.

What is the molar mass of $(NH_4)_2CO_3$ ?

a)

96.11 g

b)

94.09 g

c)

80.08 g

d)

78.06 g

e)

43.03 g

71.

The molar volume of a gas at STP occupies _____.

a)

a volume that depends upon the nature of the gas

b)

22.4L

c)

0°C

d)

1 kilopascal

e)

12 grams

72.

Which of the diagrams below represents a mixture?

a)

Diagram 1

b)

Diagram 2

c)

Diagram 3

d)

Diagram 4

73.

Who was the scientist who theorized that the atom is made up of mostly empty space, using the Gold Foil experiment?

a)

Einstein

b)

Thompson

c)

Rutherford

d)

Bohr

74.

Which of the following is an example of a polyatomic ion?

a)

P $^{3-}$

b)

ClO $_3^{-1}$

c)

S $^{2-}$

d)

Ca $^{2+}$

75.

Choose the scientific measurement with the correct number of significant figures for the graduated cylinder below.

a)

36 mL

b)

35.50 mL

c)

35.4 mL

d)

36.5 mL

76.

Choose the correct description of the following diagram.

a)

Both accurate and precise

b)

Neither accurate nor precise

c)

Accurate but not precise

d)

Precise but not accurate

77.

Which of the following is true concerning the noble gases?

a)

They belong to group 17

b)

They have a full outer energy level and do not accept electrons

c)

They are sometimes referred to as the halogens

d)

none of above

78.

This element has less protons than argon (Ar), but more than Magnesium (Mg) and has only 7 valence electrons.

a)

Fluorine

b)

Chlorine

c)

Nitrogen

d)

none of the above

79.

Which of the following pairs of atoms would likely be joined by a covalent bond?

a)

magnesium and aluminum

b)

sodium and sulfur

c)

oxygen and chlorine

d)

magnesium and chlorine

e)

argon and nitrogen

80.

The coefficients are missing from the equation below. ____ Cr + ____ Fe(NO $_3$ ) $_2$ ⟶ ____ Fe + ____ Cr(NO $_3$ ) $_3$ . The correct order of the missing coefficients used to balance the equation above is:

a)

4,6,6,2

b)

2,3,2,3

c)

2,3,3,2

d)

1,3,3,1

e)

2,3,1,2

81.

The coefficients are missing from the equation below. ____ NH $_3$ + ____ O $_2$ ⟶ ____ N $_2$ + ____ H $_2$ O. The correct order of the missing coefficients used to balance the equation above is:

a)

4,3,2,6

b)

2,1,2,3

c)

1,3,1,3

d)

2,3,2,3

e)

3,4,6,2

82.

In the chemical reaction: H $_2$ O $_2$ (aq) ⟶ H $_2$ O(l) + O $_2$ (g), the H $_2$ O $_2$ is a ________.

a)

product

b)

reactant

c)

catalyst

d)

solid

e)

gas

83.

When the following equation is balanced: ____ KClO $_3$ ⟶ ____ KCl + ____ O $_2$ . The coefficient for KClO $_3$ is ________.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

6

84.

When the following equation is balanced: ____ Fe + ____ Cl $_2$ ⟶ ____ FeCl $_3$ . The coefficient for Cl $_2$ is ________.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

6

85.

Predict the product(s) for the following reaction: Magnesium + Chlorine ⟶

a)

magnesium chlorate

b)

magnesium chlorite

c)

magnesium chloride

d)

magnesium chloride + oxygen

e)

magnesium chloride + carbon dioxide

86.

The following equation represents what type of reaction? sodium + calcium fluoride ⟶ calcium + sodium fluoride

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

87.

Predict the products for the following reaction: Lithium + nitric acid ⟶

a)

Lithium acid + nitrate

b)

Lithium nitride + hydrogen

c)

no reaction

d)

Lithium nitrate + hydrogen

e)

Lithium nitrate + water

88.

Predict the products for the following reaction: Calcium sulfide + aluminum oxide ⟶

a)

calcium aluminum + sulfur oxide

b)

aluminum oxide + calcium sulfide

c)

calcium oxide + aluminum sulfide

d)

calcium oxide + aluminum sulfate

e)

no reaction

89.

In a chemical reaction the mass of the products _____________________.

a)

is less than the mass of the reactants

b)

is greater than the mass of the reactants

c)

is equal to the mass of the reactants

d)

could be greater or less than the reactants, depending on the reaction

90.

The calculation of molar quantities in chemical equations is called __________.

a)

accuracy and precision

b)

dimensional analysis

c)

percent composition

d)

percent yield

e)

stoichiometry

91.

Observe the following reactions and use the activity series to determine which will occur.

I. Li + Mg(OH)2 → LiOH + Mg

II. CaCl2 + K → KCl + Ca

III. Na + K2O → Na2O + K

a)

only I

b)

only II

c)

only III

d)

only I and II

e)

I, II, and III

92.

Which type of stoichiometric calculation does not require the use of the molar mass of a substance?

a)

mass-mass problems

b)

mass-volume problems

c)

mass-particle problems

d)

volume-volume problems

93.

When two substances react to form products, the reactant which is used up is called the:

a)

determining reactant

b)

excess reactant

c)

limiting reactant

d)

catalytic reactant

94.

A process that produces heat is a(n) ____________ process.

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

c)

isothermic

d)

ectothermic

95.

When energy is changed from one form to another, ____________.

a)

Some of the energy is lost entirely

b)

all of the energy can be accounted for

c)

a physical change occurs

d)

all of the energy is changed to a useful form

96.

Which of the following best describes the motion of iron atoms in a piece of steel?

a)

all are at rest

b)

a few are moving

c)

all are moving

97.

As the temperature of a sample of matter is decreased, what happens to the average kinetic energy of the particles in the sample?

a)

It decreases

b)

It increases

c)

It does not change

98.

What volume does 1 mole of a gas occupy at STP?

a)

1 L

b)

20.4 L

c)

22.4 L

d)

760 L

99.

The first particles to evaporate from a liquid are ____________.

a)

those with the highest kinetic energy

b)

those with the lowest kinetic energy

c)

those farthest from the surface of the liquid

100.

An increase in the temperature of a contained liquid ____________.

a)

has no effect on the kinetic energy of the liquid

b)

decreases the vapor pressure of the liquid

c)

causes fewer particles to escape the surface of the liquid

d)

causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to increase

101.

During a phase change, the temperature of a substance

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

may increase or decrease

d)

remains constant

102.

The direct change of a substance from a solid to a gas is called ____________.

a)

evaporation

b)

sublimation

c)

condensation

d)

boiling

103.

The one temperature-pressure combination in which all three states of matter are in equilibrium with each other is referred to as the ____________.

a)

critical point

b)

specific point

c)

kinetic point

d)

double point

e)

triple point

104.

Looking at the phase diagram below, which state of matter is the most dense?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

plasma

105.

What happens to the pressure of a gas inside a container if the amount of the gas is increased?

a)

the pressure increases

b)

the pressure does not change

c)

the pressure decreases

106.

As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases ____________.

a)

the volume increases

b)

the pressure increases

c)

the average kinetic energy of the gas decreases

d)

all of the above

107.

The substance that is being dissolved is called the

a)

material

b)

solute

c)

solvent

d)

medium

108.

Which of the following operations usually makes a substance dissolve faster in a solvent?

a)

stirring

b)

raising the temperature

c)

crushing the substance to a powder

d)

all of the above

109.

If 2 liquids separate when they are mixed, they are said to be ____________.

a)

miscible

b)

soluble

c)

indicators

d)

immiscible

e)

supersaturated

110.

If a crystal added to an aqueous solution dissolves, the original solution was ____________.

a)

saturated

b)

unsaturated

c)

supersaturated

111.

What happens to the average kinetic energy if the temperature is increased?

a)

It decreases

b)

It increases

c)

It remains the same

112.

In general, as the temperature of a solution is increased, the solubility of a solid solute will:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain the same

113.

What is the molarity of a solution that contains 4 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution?

a)

4 M

b)

2 M

c)

0.5 M

d)

8 M

114.

What is the name of H2SO4?

a)

hyposulfuric acid

b)

hydrosulfuric acid

c)

sulfuric acid

d)

sulfurous acid

115.

What is the formula for phosphorous acid?

a)

H2PO3

b)

H3PO4

c)

HPO2

d)

H3PO3

e)

H3P

116.

Bases always contain which of the following ions?

a)

H+

b)

H2O

c)

OH−

d)

H3O+

117.

Which type of solution is one with a pH of 4?

a)

acidic

b)

basic

c)

neutral

d)

a buffer

118.

The following equation represents what type of reaction? Sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid → water + sodium chloride

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

119.

In a neutralization reaction, what will the products always be?

a)

an acid & a base

b)

an acid & water

c)

water & a salt

d)

water & a base

e)

transition state

120.

What is the name of Li(OH)?

a)

hydrolithic acid

b)

hydrogen lithium

c)

lithium hydroxide

d)

lithium acid

121.

Which of the following elements is an alkali metal?

a)

Al

b)

Ne

c)

Cl

d)

Mg

e)

Na

122.

What is the number of neutrons in an atom of ²³Na?

a)

23

b)

22

c)

12

d)

11

e)

13

123.

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a)

Burning paper

b)

Melting ice

c)

Boiling water

d)

Dissolving sugar in water

e)

Breaking glass

124.

Which ion is this an electron configuration of: 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶

a)

Na⁺

b)

O^2-

c)

P^3-

d)

Rb⁺

125.

This orbital diagram represents

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon

d)

Neon

126.

What atom is represented here?

a)

Carbon

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Fluorine

127.

An aluminium ion would have which electron configuration?

a)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s²

b)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p¹

c)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶

d)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶

128.

TRUE or FALSE: valence electrons are in the last s or s and p orbitals.

a)

true

b)

false

129.

Which of the following is written correctly?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

130.

All orbitals of equal energy are occupied by one electron before any single orbital is occupied by a second electron.

a)

Aufbau principle

b)

Pauli exclusion principle

c)

Hund’s rule

d)

Core Notation

131.

Which guideline, Hund’s rule or the Pauli exclusion principle, is violated in the following orbital diagrams?

a)

Hund's

b)

Aufbau's

c)

Pauli's Exclusive

132.

How many electrons can the p sublevel hold?

a)

14

b)

10

c)

2

d)

6

133.

Which atom matches this shorthand electron configuration?

[Xe] 6s²4f¹⁴5d⁹

a)

Mercury

b)

Gold

c)

Platinum

d)

Thallium

134.

This orbital diagram represents:

a)

Carbon

b)

Boron

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

135.

What is the electron configuration for this atom?

a)

1s²2s²2p⁶

b)

1s²2s²2p⁵

c)

1s²2s²2p³

d)

2s²2p³

136.

What is the configuration for Carbon?

a)

1s2 2p2

b)

1s2 2s2 2p2

c)

1s1 1s2 2s2 2p2

137.

1s2 2s2 is which element?

a)

Lithium

b)

Beryllium

c)

Helium

d)

Boron

138.

Iron (Fe) configuration is

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4d6

139.

Which element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d7?

a)

Cobalt

b)

Nickel

c)

Manganese

d)

Chromium

140.

Write the configuration for Oxygen

a)

1s2 2s2 1p4

b)

2s2 2p4

c)

1s2 2s2 3p4

d)

1s2 2s2 2p4

141.

Write the configuration for Phosphorus

a)

2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

b)

1s2 2s3 2p6 3p3

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

d)

1s2 2s2 2p5 3s2 3p3

142.

Which element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1?

a)

Sodium (Na)

b)

Lithium (Li)

c)

Potassium (K)

d)

Calcium (Ca)

143.

Choose the correct configuration for Zinc

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d9

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3s2 3d10

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8

144.

Choose the correct element for 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5

a)

Chlorine

b)

Bromine

c)

Krypton

d)

Sulfur

145.

Choose the correct configuration for Neon (Ne).

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6

d)

1s2 2s1 2p6

Chemistry Honors Final Exam

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

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