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AP Chemistry Final Review

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 24hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

List the strongest to weakest IMFs.

a)

Hydrogen Bond, London Dispersion, Dipole-dipole

b)

London Dispersion, Dipole-dipole,

Hydrogen Bond

c)

Hydrogen Bond, Dipole-dipole, London Dispersion

d)

Dipole-dipole, Hydrogen Bond, London Dispersion

2.

A strong IMF increases

a)

boiling point

b)

solubility

c)

flammability

d)

malleability

3.

Type of intermolecular force present in I2, Br2, and Cl2.

a)

dipole dipole

b)

H-bond

c)

London dispersion

d)

metallic

4.
Does HF have hydrogen bonding?
a)
yes
b)
no
5.

Which type of IMF is responsible for the attraction pictured above?

a)

Dipole-Dipole Interaction

b)

Ion-Dipole Interaction

c)

Hydrogen Bonds

d)

Covalent Bond

e)

Ionic Bond

6.

According to the KMT, increasing the temperature of particles will

a)

give off energy

b)

increase motion

c)

decrease volume

d)

increase pressure

7.

According the KMT, the particles are in

a)

different states

b)

organized patterns

c)

constant motion

d)

various containers

8.
a)
Gas particles are elastic and do not attract each other.
b)
The kinetic energy of gas is dependent on temperature 
c)
Energy is not lost when gas particles collide with each other or with the walls of the container.
d)
All of the above
9.

Which of the following measures the amount of particle collisions against the walls of the container?

a)

pressure

b)

temperature

c)

volume

d)

density

10.

Which of the following is an assumption of the kinetic-molecular theory of gases?

a)

Collisions between gas particles are inelastic.

b)

Gases consist of closely spaced particles.

c)

Gas particles move around in an orderly manner.

d)

The temperature of a gas depends on the average kinetic energy of the gas particles.

11.
A measure of the average amount of kinetic energy of the particles in the object.
a)
energy
b)
expansion
c)
temperature
d)
heat
12.

Convert

100oC100^oC  to Kelvin

a)

373 K373\ K  

b)

273 K273\ K  

c)

212 K212\ K  

d)

0 K0\ K  

13.

What is the boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale?

a)

0K0^{ }K

b)

373K373^{ }K

c)

100K100^{ }K

d)

212K212^{ }K

14.

Absolute zero is

a)

0 K

b)

where there is no molecular movement

c)

the coldest temperature possible

d)

all of these

15.
How are pressure and volume related?
a)
Directly
b)
Indirectly
c)
They aren't related
16.

What does "like dissolves like" mean?

a)

polar solvents dissolve in polar solutes

b)

polar solutes dissolve in polar solvents

c)

non-polar solvents dissolve in polar solutes

d)

non-polar solutes dissolve in polar solvents

17.
Oil molecules are nonpolar. What kind of solvent is required to remove an oil stain?
a)
saturated
b)
unsaturated
c)
polar
d)
nonpolar
18.

The following properties are all characteristics of ionic compounds EXCEPT

a)

high melting and boiling points

b)

soft

c)

crystal lattice structure

d)

conduct electricity when molten (melted) and dissolved in water

19.

What property of an ionic solid is being shown here?

a)

electrical conductivity

b)

solubility

c)

brittleness

d)

malleability

20.

According to the kinetic theory of matter, all matter is composed of

a)

waves

b)

particles

c)

solid material

d)

plasma

21.

Chromatography separates solutions on the basis of _____ while distillation separates solutions on the basis of ______.

a)

IMFs; solubility

b)

solubility; conductivity

c)

IMFs; boiling point

d)

boiling point; solubility

22.
Which salt is LEAST soluble at 0 ºC?
a)
K2Cr2O7
b)
KNO3
c)
 KClO3
d)
Ce2(SO4)3
23.
What is a solvent?
a)
The substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
b)
The substance that is being dissolved in a solution.
c)
The mixing of different substances.
d)
The process in which neutral molecules lose or gain electrons
24.

The dotted line is a representation of a hydrogen bond.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Distillation separates mixtures based on differences in what property?

a)

Solubility

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Particle Size

d)

State of Matter

26.
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a)
the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
b)
the attraction between protons and neutrons.
c)
the attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons.
d)
the attraction between positive metal ions and free floating electrons.
27.
What pressure, in atm, is exerted by 2.50 L of gas containing 1.35 mol at 320 K?
PV=nRT
a)
14.19 atm
b)
16.53 atm
c)
18.42 atm
d)
22.54 atm
28.
PV=nRT
a)
Charles Law
b)
Boyle's Law
c)
Combined Gas Law
d)
Ideal Gas Law
29.

What does the variable "R" represent in the ideal gas law?

a)

pressure

b)

volume

c)

moles

d)

the gas constant

e)

temperature

30.

Which type of IMF is responsible for the attraction pictured above?

a)

Dipole-Dipole Interaction

b)

Ion-Dipole Interaction

c)

Hydrogen Bonds

d)

Covalent Bond

e)

Ionic Bond

31.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

32.
a)

CH4CH_4  

b)

CH3FCH_3F  

c)

HFHF  

d)

PH3PH_3  

33.
a)

CH3OHCH_3OH  

b)

CH3OCH3CH_3OCH_3  

c)

HFHF  

34.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.

Draw the complete Lewis electron dot diagram for HCOOH

36.

Draw an HCOOH molecule and a water molecule in the correct orientation that allows a hydrogen bond to form between them

37.

Which IMFs are present in acetic acid?

a)

LDFs

b)

Dipoe-Dipole

c)

Hydrogen bonding

38.

Which IMFs are present in methyl acetate?

a)

LDFs

b)

Dipoe-Dipole

c)

Hydrogen bonding

39.

Which is the best justification for the boiling point of acetic acid being 118 C while methyl acetate is 57 C?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.

Including the types and relative strengths of the intermoecular forces present in each molecule, explain why the boiling point of CS2 is higher than that of COS.

4 lines
41.

Which of the following listed the substances in order of increasing viscosity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.
Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near
a)
an open door
b)
an open flame
c)
another student
d)
 a sink
43.
If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately
a)
notify your instructor
b)
 run for the fire extinguisher
c)
throw water on the fire
d)
 open the windows
44.
Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory
a)
 to avoid eye strain
b)
to improve your vision
c)
only if you don’t have corrective glasses
d)
 any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used
45.
If you wear contact lenses in the school laboratory
a)
take them out before starting the lab
b)
you do not have to wear protective goggles
c)
 advise your science instructor that you wear contact lenses
d)
 keep the information to yourself
46.
 If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should 
a)
skip it and go on to the next part.
b)
ask the instructor before proceeding
c)
try several methods until something works
d)
figure it out as you do the lab
47.
 After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be
a)
taken home
b)
dumped in the sink
c)
disposed of according to your instructor’s directions
d)
left at your lab station for the next class
48.
 If a lab experiment is not completed, you should 
a)
make up some results
b)
come in during lunch and finish while eating lunch
c)
sneak in after school and work alone
d)
discuss the issue with your instructor
49.
You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube 
a)
away from all people
b)
toward another classmate
c)
toward your lab partner
d)
toward yourself
50.
You are heating a piece of glass and now want to pick it up. You should 
a)
pour cold water on it
b)
use tongs
c)
pick up the end that looks cooler
d)
use a rag or paper towels
51.
You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should
a)
apply first aid yourself
b)
tell the science instructor at once
c)
see a doctor after school
d)
visit the school nurse after class
52.
When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should
a)
 All of the choices
b)
clean any glassware that appears dirty
c)
examine all glassware to check for chips or cracks
d)
read all directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary
53.
You want to place a piece of glass tubing into a rubber stopper after the tubing has been fire polished and cooled. This is best done by 
a)
all of the choices
b)
 twisting the tubing and stopper carefully
c)
using a towel or cotton gloves for protection
d)
lubricating the tubing with water or glycerin
54.
Long hair in the laboratory must be 
a)
tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, hairpins, or other confining device
b)
always neatly groomed
c)
held away from the experiment with one hand
d)
cut short
55.

Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as

a)

a face shield

b)

safety glasses

c)

splashproof chemical goggles

d)

none of the above

56.
In a laboratory, the following should not be worn. 
a)
all of the answers
b)
dangling jewelry
c)
sandals
d)
loose clothing
57.
 The following footwear is best in the laboratory. 
a)
shoes appropriate for the weather
b)
open-toed shoes
c)
closed-toed shoes
d)
sandals
58.
 Horseplay or practical jokes in the laboratory are 
a)
okay if you are working alone
b)
not dangerous
c)
okay
d)
always against the rules
59.
If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell 
a)
the science instructor
b)
your best friend in the class
c)
the custodian
d)
your lab partner
60.
If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with 
a)
weak base
b)
soap
c)
plenty of water
d)
oil
61.
When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always 
a)
wipe your hands on your clothes
b)
wipe your hands on a towel
c)
wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water
d)
treat your hands with skin lotion
62.
Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near
a)
an open door
b)
an open flame
c)
another student
d)
 a sink
63.
If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately
a)
notify your instructor
b)
 run for the fire extinguisher
c)
throw water on the fire
d)
 open the windows
64.
Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory
a)
 to avoid eye strain
b)
to improve your vision
c)
only if you don’t have corrective glasses
d)
 any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used
65.
If you wear contact lenses in the school laboratory
a)
take them out before starting the lab
b)
you do not have to wear protective goggles
c)
 advise your science instructor that you wear contact lenses
d)
 keep the information to yourself
66.
 If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should 
a)
skip it and go on to the next part.
b)
ask the instructor before proceeding
c)
try several methods until something works
d)
figure it out as you do the lab
67.
 After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be
a)
taken home
b)
dumped in the sink
c)
disposed of according to your instructor’s directions
d)
left at your lab station for the next class
68.
 If a lab experiment is not completed, you should 
a)
make up some results
b)
come in during lunch and finish while eating lunch
c)
sneak in after school and work alone
d)
discuss the issue with your instructor
69.
You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube 
a)
away from all people
b)
toward another classmate
c)
toward your lab partner
d)
toward yourself
70.
You are heating a piece of glass and now want to pick it up. You should 
a)
pour cold water on it
b)
use tongs
c)
pick up the end that looks cooler
d)
use a rag or paper towels
71.
You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should
a)
apply first aid yourself
b)
tell the science instructor at once
c)
see a doctor after school
d)
visit the school nurse after class
72.
When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should
a)
 All of the choices
b)
clean any glassware that appears dirty
c)
examine all glassware to check for chips or cracks
d)
read all directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary
73.
You want to place a piece of glass tubing into a rubber stopper after the tubing has been fire polished and cooled. This is best done by 
a)
all of the choices
b)
 twisting the tubing and stopper carefully
c)
using a towel or cotton gloves for protection
d)
lubricating the tubing with water or glycerin
74.
Long hair in the laboratory must be 
a)
tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, hairpins, or other confining device
b)
always neatly groomed
c)
held away from the experiment with one hand
d)
cut short
75.

Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as

a)

a face shield

b)

safety glasses

c)

splashproof chemical goggles

d)

none of the above

76.
In a laboratory, the following should not be worn. 
a)
all of the answers
b)
dangling jewelry
c)
sandals
d)
loose clothing
77.
 The following footwear is best in the laboratory. 
a)
shoes appropriate for the weather
b)
open-toed shoes
c)
closed-toed shoes
d)
sandals
78.
 Horseplay or practical jokes in the laboratory are 
a)
okay if you are working alone
b)
not dangerous
c)
okay
d)
always against the rules
79.
If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell 
a)
the science instructor
b)
your best friend in the class
c)
the custodian
d)
your lab partner
80.
If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with 
a)
weak base
b)
soap
c)
plenty of water
d)
oil
81.
When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always 
a)
wipe your hands on your clothes
b)
wipe your hands on a towel
c)
wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water
d)
treat your hands with skin lotion
82.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
83.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
84.
How many isotopes are shown in this mass spectrum?
a)
1
b)
84
c)
86
d)
4
85.
What is the average atomic mass for this element?
a)
10 amu
b)
10.8 amu
c)
19.9 amu
d)
11 amu
86.
The average atomic mass rhenium, Re, is 186.21 amu. If 37.1% of rhenium has mass# = 185, what is the other stable isotope?
a)
Rhenium-183
b)
Rhenium-181
c)
Rhenium-187
d)
Rhenium-189
87.

Which is the first stage of mass spec?

a)

Acceleration

b)

Ion drift

c)

Ionisation

d)

Detection

88.

A mixture of 35Cl and 37Cl are analysed, which travels faster?

a)

35Cl

b)

37Cl

89.
What do these isotopes of carbon all have in common?
a)
neutrons & mass number
b)
atomic number and neutrons
c)
atomic number and electrons
d)
protons, atomic number, and mass number
90.
Four isotopes of lead include lead-204, lead-206, lead-207, and lead-208.  The average atomic mass of lead is 207.2.  Which isotope of lead is likely to be the most abundant.
a)
204
b)
206
c)
207
d)
208
91.
Two isotopes of carbon are carbon-12 and carbon-14.  These isotopes differ from one another by two protons.
a)
true
b)
false
92.
Atomic Radius is...
4 lines
93.
As you move down the periodic table atoms get bigger.  This is because ____________.
a)
The atoms have more mass.
b)
The atoms have more protons.
c)
The atoms have more energy levels
d)
The atoms have more nuetrons
94.
The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 18 is - 
a)
Ar
b)
He
c)
Kr
d)
Rn
95.
Which periodic group has the smallest atomic radius?
a)
Alkali metals
b)
Halogens
c)
Noble Gases
d)
Transition metals
96.
Ionization energy is...
4 lines
97.
Which of the following will have a lower ionization energy than Scandium (Sc)?
a)
Helium (He)
b)
Titanium (Ti)
c)
Calcium (Ca)
d)
Magnesium (Mg)
98.
Which of the following will have a higher ionization energy than arsenic (As)?
a)
Gallium (Ga)
b)
Neon (Ne)
c)
Antimony (Sb)
d)
Germanium (Ge)
99.
Electronegativity is...
4 lines
100.
Which of the following will have a higher electronegativity than arsenic (As)?
a)
Carbon (C)
b)
Neon (Ne)
c)
Antimony (Sb)
d)
Germanium (Ge)
101.
What term is used to describe "an atom's tendency to attract electrons to itself when is is chemically combined with another element"
a)
electronation
b)
electron affinity
c)
electronegativity
d)
electrolysis
102.
What term is used to describe "The energy required to remove an electron from gaseous atoms"
a)
excitation energy
b)
ionization energy
c)
polarization energy
d)
electrolytic energy 
103.
What term is used to describe "A measure of the size of an atom"
a)
chemical reactivity
b)
atomic radius
c)
energy levels
d)
orbit
104.

What is the electron configuration for this PES graph?

a)

1s22s22p63s23p2

b)

1s22s22p63s23p1

c)

1s22s22p63s23p3

d)

1s22s22p63s2

105.

Which element is represented by this PES graph?

a)

aluminum

b)

phosphorus

c)

sulfur

d)

silicon

106.

What is the electron configuration for the oxygen atom?

a)

1s22s22p4

b)

1s22s22p2

c)

1s22s22p43s2

d)

1s22s22p6

107.

What is the name of group number 1?

(a)  

108.

What is the name of group number 2?

a)

transition metals

b)

halogens

c)

metaloids

d)

alkaline earth metals

109.

where are the metalloids found

a)

far left, vertical

b)

stair step/diagonal

c)

far right horizontal

d)

at the bottom

110.

Periodic law states that the elements are arranged according to their atomic ________ so that elements with similar chemical properties are in the same ________ and properties repeat periodically.

a)

numbers, rows

b)

masses, rows

c)

masses, column

d)

numbers, column

111.

A row on the Periodic Table of Elements

a)

family

b)

period

c)

row

d)

isotope

112.

___________ is a metal that is a liquid at room temperature.

a)

Platinum

b)

Water

c)

Tin

d)

Mercury

113.

Which element has similar chemical properties as sodium but has 7 energy levels?

a)

Francium (Fr)

b)

Cesium (Cs)

c)

Rubidium (Rb)

d)

Potassium (K)

114.

Elements that have the same number of energy levels are said to be in the same ______.

a)

group

b)

period

c)

family

d)

classification

115.
Who arranged the first periodic table.
a)
Mosely
b)
Einstein
c)
Mendeleev
d)
Bohr
116.
What property did Menedleev use to organize his first periodic table?
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
alphabetical order
d)
chemical properties
117.

is a method of studying and measuring a specific spectrum. Often these techniques can be destructive to our samples after analysis.

(a)  

118.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
119.
Which element does this mass spectrum most likely represent?
a)
neon
b)
scandium
c)
boron
d)
sodium
120.
Which electron configuration belongs to Chlorine (Cl)?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7
121.
Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy first is part of what electron configuration rule?
a)
Hund’s Rule
b)
Aufbau Principle
c)
Pauli Exclusion Principle
122.

There are 4 different types of subshells(orbitals). What are they?

(a)  

123.
The periodic table is organized by the number of ______ in each element's nucleus
a)
neutrons
b)
protons
c)
electrons
d)
atoms
124.

He was the British scientist who came up with th modern periodic table of elements that is based on ATOMIC NUMBER.

a)

Henry G.J Mosely

b)

J.J Thomson

c)

Erwin Schrodinger

d)

John Dalton

125.

Which electron configuration belongs to a Sodium ion (Na+)?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p5

126.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
127.

What is pH ?

a)

Concentration of Hydrogen ions

b)

Concentration of ions

128.

pH is measured on a scale from

a)

0-7

b)

5-10

c)

0-14

d)

7-14

129.

pH of 7 is _____.

a)

more alkaline

b)

more acidity

c)

neutral

130.

An acidic solution has a

a)

higher concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions

b)

higher concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions

c)

equal concentration of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions

131.

A basic ( alkaline ) solution has a

a)

higher concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions

b)

equal concentration of hydroxide ions and hydrogen ions

c)

higher concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions

132.
Which of these colours would suggest the most acidic solution?
a)
Yellow
b)
Red
c)
Green
d)
Blue
133.

Which of these colours would suggest the most basic (alkaline) solution?

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Blue

134.
Is this substance acidic, basic, or neutral?
a)
Acidic
b)
Basic
c)
Neutral
135.
Is this substance acidic, basic, or neutral?
a)
Acidic
b)
Basic
c)
Neutral
136.
The pH scale 8-14 are...
a)
acids
b)
bases
c)
neutral
137.

Which food is the most acidic?

a)

bananas

b)

lemon juice

c)

orange juice

138.

Is this substance acidic, basic, or neutral?

a)

Acidic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

139.

An acid can be described has a substance that releases

a)

H+ ions in water

b)

OH- ions in water

c)

both answers are correct

d)

none of the above

140.
Neutralization happens when acids and base combine
a)
True
b)
false
141.

One way to define bases - they are substances that ...

a)

accept hydrogen atoms

b)

reject hydrogen atoms

142.

Litmus paper is an indicator of acids and bases, it turns red for bases.

a)

True

b)

false

143.

You test a substance with red litmus paper, and it stays red, you can you conclude?

a)

It is a base

b)

It is an acid

c)

It is a neutral substance

d)

You should test further

144.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a base?

a)

bitter

b)

sour

c)

corrosive

d)

releases hydrogen ions in water

145.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an acid?

a)

bitter

b)

slippery

c)

sour

d)

releases hydroxide ions in water

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