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Midterm Review

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 3hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The amount of space taken up by an object
a)
Mass
b)
Volume
c)
Density
d)
Weight
2.
The curve of the liquid
a)
Mass
b)
Meniscus
c)
Density
d)
Weight
3.
This refers to how close the measurement is to the true or accepted value
a)
estimate
b)
accuracy
c)
precision
d)
mean
4.
This refers how close a group of measurements are to eachother
a)
estimate
b)
accuracy
c)
precision
d)
mean
5.
The metric system is based on multiples of:
a)
100
b)
20
c)
10
d)
1
6.
It is a measure of how close measurements come to each other when they are made in the same way
a)
Accuracy
b)
Precision
c)
Error
d)
Extrapolation
7.
a)
Student A
b)
Student B
c)
Student C
d)
Cannot be determined
8.

How close a measurement is to the accepted value is called..

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Significant

d)

Estimate

9.
This bullseye demonstrates...
a)
High Accuracy & High Precision
b)
High Accuracy & Low Precision
c)
Low Accuracy & High Precision
d)
Low Accuracy & Low Precision
10.
The students measured length during a science experiement, they got 12 cm. But the actual measurement was 14.25 cm. What was the percent error?
a)
15.79%
b)
18.75%
c)
2.25%
d)
18%
11.

Which is the more precise measurement?

a)

4 mL

b)

4.3 mL

c)

4.30 mL

d)

4.300 mL

12.

How close a measurement is to the true value is called..

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Significant

d)

Estimate

13.
volume?
a)
48 mL
b)
48.2 mL
c)
48.25 mL
d)
4 mL
14.
Volume?
a)
63.5 mL
b)
63 mL
c)
63.55 mL
d)
6 mL
15.

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a)

a bike rusting

b)

toast burning

c)

butter melting

d)

food spoiling

16.

Which of the following examples is a physical change but NOT a change of state of matter?

a)

logs burning

b)

water freezing into ice cubes

c)

candle wax melting

d)

paper being cut

17.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a)

a penny tarnishing

b)

a mirror being scratched

c)

hair being cut

d)

water being boiled

18.

What is the best way to separate a mixture of sugar, sand, and water?

a)

Freeze the mixture, causing the water to be destroyed, then sift the sugar from the sand.

b)

Filter the sand from the sugar and water, then heat the mixture, causing the water to evaporate.

c)

Filter the mixture, causing the sugar and sand to get caught but not the water.

d)

Stir the mixture, causing the water to move above the sugar and sand.

19.

Physical or Chemical Change? Cutting an orange

a)

Physical Change

b)

Chemical Change

20.

Frying an egg

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

21.

The ability to burn is known as---

a)

Flammability

b)

Combustion

c)

Density

d)

Exploding

22.

Mass divided by volume is the formula for calculating----

a)

Mass

b)

Volume

c)

Density

d)

Matter

23.

Reactivity (bubbling, fizzing) is a --- property.

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

24.
Which is an example of a chemical change?
a)
melting ice to make water
b)
baking cake batter to make a cake
c)
putting cheese on bread to make a cheese sandwich
d)
cutting an orange into slices for a snack
25.

______________________ can only be recognized when substances react or do not react chemically with one another.

a)

Physical properties

b)

Chemical properties

c)

Flammable properties

d)

Colorful properties

26.

Which liquid is the least dense?

a)

Oil

b)

Water

c)

Syrup

d)

Plastic bottle

27.

If a cube has a mass of 50 grams and a volume of 10cm3, what is its density?

a)

10/50 = .2 cm3/g

b)

10 x 50 = 500 gcm3

c)

50/10 = 5 g/cm3

d)

not enough information

28.

A key is placed in a graduated cylinder with 60 cm3 of water. It makes the water level rise to 67 cm3. What is the volume of the key?

a)

60 cm3

b)

67 cm3

c)

127 cm3

d)

7 cm3

29.
How many molecules are in 2.5 mol of NaCl?
a)
1.51x1023
b)
146
c)
4.15
d)
1.51x1024
30.
How many molecules of sugar (C6H12O6) are in a mole?
a)
24 molecules
b)
180 molecules
c)
180 g
d)
6.02 x 1023 molecules
31.
How many atoms of carbon are in 6.00g of carbon?
a)
1.20x1024atoms C
b)
6.02x1023atoms C
c)
3.01x1023atoms C
d)
1.50x1023atoms C
32.
How many grams are in 1.2 x 1024 molecules of CO?
a)
28 grams
b)
56 grams
c)
6.02 grams
d)
1.2 grams
33.
How many steps are in a gram to mole conversion?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
34.
How many moles are in 3.01 x 1022 atoms of magnesium?
a)
0.05 moles
b)
1.81 x 1046 moles
c)
5.00 x 1021 moles
d)
5 moles
35.
How many moles are in 3.01 x 1022 atoms of magnesium?
a)
0.05 moles
b)
1.81 x 1046 moles
c)
5.00 x 1021 moles
d)
5 moles
36.
If an atom of Fluorine has an atomic mass of 19 amu, it has a Molar mass of ____
a)
19 lbs.
b)
19 kg
c)
How am I supposed to know?
d)
19 g/mol
37.
What are the units for molar mass?
a)
grams
b)
amu
c)
grams/mole
d)
liters
38.
What is the molar mass of table salt (NaCl)?
a)
116.886 g/mol
b)
35.453 g/mol
c)
22.990 g/mol
d)
58.443 g/mol
39.
What is the mass of 0.89 mol of CaCl2?
a)
111 grams
b)
0.008 grams
c)
98.9 grams
d)
none of the choices
40.
How many steps are in a gram to molecule conversion?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
41.
The smallest unit of a pure substance that has the properties of that substance
a)
element
b)
atom
c)
neutron
d)
compound
42.
Atoms are made up of three basic parts, which are -
a)
Protons, neutrons, electrons
b)
neutrinos, protons, neutrons
c)
quarks, protons, electrons
d)
electrons, neutrons, and quarks
43.
The nucleus is made up of -
a)
neutrons and electrons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
protons and electrons
d)
electrons and quarks
44.
Protons have this charge -
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
no charge
45.
Electrons have this charge - 
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
no charge
46.
What scientist is best known for his "Plum Pudding" model of the atom?
a)
J.J. Tomson
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
John Dalton
d)
Democritus
47.
Place the following scientists in order, from earliest to latest: 
A) Ernest Rutherford
B) J.J. Thomson
C) John Dalton
a)
B,C,A
b)
C,A,B
c)
A,C,B
d)
C,B,A
48.
An atom's overall charge is ________.
a)
positive 
b)
depends
c)
neutral 
d)
negative 
49.
J.J. Thomson provided evidence that an atom...
a)
is the smallest particle of matter
b)
contains negatively charged particles
c)
has an overall negative charge
d)
has an overall positive charge
50.
Rutherford's gold foil experiment provided evidence that...
a)
negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout the atom.
b)
alpha particles have a positive charge.
c)
gold is not a dense as previously thought.
d)
there is a dense positively charged nucleus at the center of an atom.
51.
Ernst Rutherford discovered which part of the atom through the use of gold foil?
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Orbitals
52.
The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are
a)
neutrons and electrons
b)
electrons only
c)
protons and neutrons
d)
protons and electrons
53.
Rutherford's gold foil experiment provided evidence that...
a)
Negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout the atom.
b)
Alpha particles have a positive charge.
c)
Gold is not a dense as previously thought.
d)
There is a dense positively charged nucleus at the center of an atom.
54.
What contribution did John Dalton make to atomic theory? 
a)
He discovered that every atom was positively charged. 
b)
He discovered that every element consisted of one type of atom.  
c)
He discovered that atoms had nuclei. 
d)
He discovered that atoms could be divided into smaller parts. 
55.

On the periodic table, Groups are

a)

Horizontal rows

b)

Vertical columns

56.

On the periodic table, Periods are

a)

Horizontal rows

b)

Vertical columns

57.

On the periodic table, Periods are

a)

Horizontal rows

b)

Vertical columns

58.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
59.
What electron configuration matches an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s2, 3p64s23d104p5
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
60.
The electron configuration of an atom is 1s22s22p6.  The number of electrons in the atom is 
a)
3
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
61.
Which electron configuration belongs to Chlorine (Cl)?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7
62.
Identify the Electron Configuration for Aluminum (Al)
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4p1
63.
Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy first is part of what electron configuration rule?
a)
Hund’s Rule
b)
Aufbau Principle
c)
Pauli Exclusion Principle
64.

What does Pauli exclusion principle state ?

a)

states that each electron occupies the lowest energy orbital available

b)

states that -no two electrons in the same orbital can have the same spin

c)

states that single electrons electrons with the same spin must occupy each-energy orbital before additional electrons with opposite spins can occupy the same orbitals

65.

What is the maximum number of electrons that an S orbital can have?

a)

1 electron

b)

2 electrons

c)

3 electrons

d)

4 electrons

66.
How many valence electrons are represented here?
a)
7
b)
5
c)
2
d)
8
67.

How many electrons can the d sublevel(orbital) hold?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

2

d)

4

68.
How many valence electrons does Chlorine have?
a)
5
b)
2
c)
7
d)
5
69.

What is this element?

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p6

a)

Argon

b)

Krypton

c)

Selenium

d)

Bromide

70.

What is this element?

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p6

a)

Argon

b)

Krypton

c)

Selenium

d)

Bromide

71.
Which element is pictured?
a)
neon
b)
fluorine
c)
magnesium
d)
argon
72.
Which element is depicted from this orbital diagram
a)
Fluorine
b)
Neon
c)
Chlorine
d)
Argon
73.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
74.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
75.
What is incorrect about this orbital diagram?
a)
Both arrows in the 2p box should be pointing up
b)
There is nothing incorrect with this diagram
c)
In the 2p box there should only be 1 electron in the first 2p box and one in the 2nd 2p box
d)
All the arrows should be pointing up.
76.
Which orbital shows a violation of Hund's Rule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
77.
Which orbital shows a violation of the Aufbau Principle?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
78.
Which orbital shows a violation of the Pauli Exclusion Principle?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
79.
Which element is depicted from this atomic orbital diagram?
a)
Carbon
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
Phosphorus
80.

What electromagnetic wave . has . the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Ultraviolet Rays

c)

Radio Waves

d)

X Rays

81.

What happens to wavelength as the frequency of a wave increases?

a)

increase

b)

stays the same

c)

decreases

d)

becomes faster

82.

What electromagnetic wave has the longest wavelengths and lowest frequencies?

a)

Microwaves

b)

Ultraviolet Rays

c)

Infrared Waves

d)

Radio Waves

83.

The human eye is only capable of seeing which electromagnetic wave?

a)

Infrared Light

b)

Ultraviolet Light

c)

Visible Light

d)

All of the above

84.

What electromagnetic wave do humans emit as heat energy?

a)

infrared light

b)

ultraviolet light

c)

visible light

d)

microwaves

85.
A certain photon of light has a wavelength of 4.22x10-7nm. What is the frequency? (v=c/λ)
a)
7.11x1014 Hz
b)
7.11Hz
c)
1.41x10-15
d)
-1.41x1015
86.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
87.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
88.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
89.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
90.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
91.
What is a photon?
a)
When radiation burst through electric waves
b)
The emission of electrons from a metal caused by light striking the metal
c)
The rate at which a waves energy flows through a given unit of area.
d)
packets of electromagnetic energy
92.
Light behaves like both a particle and a ______.
a)
Mass
b)
Wave
c)
Current
93.
What happens to the energy of a photon as the frequency of the wave increases? 
a)
The energy increases
b)
The energy decreases
c)
The energy stays the same 
94.
What does the letter 'h' represent in the formula E = hv?
a)
Planck's constant
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Energy
95.
What is the energy of a quantum of light with a frequency of 7.39x1014Hz.(E=Hv)
a)
4.88x1019
b)
4.88x10-19
c)
2.22x1023
d)
2.22x10-23
96.
Certain blue lights have a frequencey of 6.91x1014Hz. What is the wavelength? (λ=c/v)
a)
4.34x1021
b)
4.34x10-21
c)
4.34x10-7
d)
2.07x1023
97.
What is the wavelength for a quantum of light with energy of 7.56x10-19J? (λ=hc/E) 
a)
2.62x10-7m
b)
2.62x107m
c)
2.64x10-45m
d)
2.64x1045m
98.
A light has a wavelength of 5.06x10-7m. What is the frequency of the light? What is the color of light? (v=c/λ)
a)
16.87Hz, Red
b)
5.93Hz, Orange
c)
5.93x10-14Hz, Blue
d)
5.93x1014Hz, Green
99.
What is the Energy of a blue light with the frequency of 6.91x1014Hz? (E=hv)
a)
4.56x1049J
b)
9.55x10-49J
c)
4.56x10-19J
d)
5.82x1019J
100.
What do these isotopes of carbon all have in common?
a)
neutrons & mass number
b)
atomic number and neutrons
c)
atomic number and electrons
d)
protons, atomic number, and mass number
101.
How many neutrons does the isotope of lithium have?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
102.
How many protons does this isotope of titanium have?
a)
48
b)
22
c)
26
d)
70
103.
In a correctly written symbol what would be located in the "A" position?
a)
number of neutrons
b)
atomic number
c)
number of electrons 
d)
mass number
104.
What quantities vary between isotopes of an element?
a)
protons, electrons, and atomic mass
b)
protons, electrons, and atomic number
c)
neutrons and electrons
d)
neutrons and atomic mass
105.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different #’s of __________ & therefore different __________.
a)
n0 ;  atomic #’s
b)
p+ ; atomic #’s
c)
e- ; atomic masses
d)
n0 ; atomic masses
106.
How many neutrons does the isotope below have?     89 36Kr
a)
53
b)
36
c)
89
d)
125
107.
How many neutrons does an atom of the isotope Neon-22 have?
a)
12
b)
10
c)
22
d)
20
108.
Four isotopes of lead include lead-204, lead-206, lead-207, and lead-208.  The average atomic mass of lead is 207.2.  Which isotope of lead is likely to be the most abundant.
a)
204
b)
206
c)
207
d)
208
109.

Isotopes of an element have a different number of...

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mass

110.

76 protons and 114 neutrons

a)

Osmium-114

b)

Osmium-76

c)

Osmium-190

d)

Osmium-190.23

111.
24.1% of all the isotopes of a an element have a mass of 75.23 amu, 48.7% have a mass of 74.61 amu, and 27.2% have a mass of 75.20 amu.
What is the average mass of this element?
a)
74.92 amu
b)
24.97 amu
c)
75.01 amu
d)
74.51 amu
112.
What does the 1.00794 stand for?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
atomic number
c)
atomic mass
d)
atomic explosion
113.

The atomic mass of an element is the ___.

a)

average of the mass number and the atomic number for the element

b)

weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of the element

c)

total mass of the isotopes of the element

d)

total number of subatomic particles in the nucleus

114.

Calculate the average atomic mass of the element iron (Fe) using the following data:

[Isotope / % abundance]

[Iron 54 / 6% ] [Iron 56 / 92% ] [ Iron 57 / 2% ]

a)

53.7 amu

b)

54.9 amu

c)

5592.0 amu

d)

55.9 amu

115.
4.35% of all X atoms have a mass of 39.946 amu. 83.79% have a mass of 41.941 amu, 9.50% have a mass of 42.941 amu, and 2.36% have a mass of 43.939 amu. What is the average atomic mass of atom X?
a)
41.97 amu
b)
42.19 amu
c)
10.43 amu
d)
40.04 amu
116.

How many CORE ELECTRONS does Chlorine have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

10

e)

17

117.

How many VALENCE ELECTRONS does Chlorine have?

a)

2

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

e)

17

118.

Ionic bonds are formed when electrons get

a)

Shared between two atoms

b)

Removed from both atoms

c)

Transferred from one atom to another

d)

Added to both atoms

119.

Ionic bonds typically form between

a)

A metal and a nonmetal

b)

Two nonmetals

c)

Two metals

d)

A metalloid and a metal

120.

Atoms are most stable when their outer shell is complete.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Why do elements form chemical bonds?

a)

Because they're friendly

b)

To create a new element

c)

To become stable

d)

Because they all need to gain more electrons

122.

What is the correct formula for Sodium Chloride?

a)

SCl

b)

NaCl

c)

SC

d)

NaCl2

123.

Name this ionic compound: Al2O3

a)

Dialuminum oxide

b)

Aluminum oxygen

c)

Oxygen Aluminide

d)

Aluminum oxide

124.

If you were to draw the lewis dot structure for Germanium (Ge), how many dots would you put around it?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

125.

Cations _______ electrons, becoming _______ charged.

a)

Gain; positively (+)

b)

Gain; negatively (-)

c)

Lose; positively (+)

d)

Lose; negatively (-)

126.

Anions ____ electrons, becoming _____ charged.

a)

Gain; positively (+)

b)

Gain; negatively (-)

c)

Lose; positively (+)

d)

Lose; negatively (-)

127.

Write the chemical formula for K and Br (potassium bromide).

a)

KBr

b)

K2Br

c)

KBr3

d)

KBr2

128.

Write the chemical formula for Na and S (sodium sulfide).

a)

NaS

b)

S2S2

c)

Na2S

d)

NaS2

129.

Nonmetals (like Cl) typically ____ electrons when they form ionic bonds.

a)

Gain

b)

Lose

c)

Keep the same

130.

The name of FeCl₂ is

a)

iron chloride

b)

iron (II) chloride

c)

iron (I) chloride

d)

iron dichloride

131.

LiBr is called

a)

lithium bromine

b)

lithium (I) bromine

c)

lithium bromide

d)

lithuim (I) bromide

132.

Name the ionic compound SnSe2

a)

Tin diselenide

b)

Tin (IV) Selenide

c)

Tin selenide

d)

Tin (II) triselenide

133.

Name the following ionic compound: BeCl2

a)

beryllium chlorine

b)

beryllium II chloride

c)

beryllium chloride

d)

beryllium dichloride

134.

Name the following ionic compound: Cs2S

a)

cesium sulfide

b)

cesium sulfate

c)

cesium II sulfate

d)

cesium II sulfide

135.

What is the name of the compound Na2(SO4)?

a)

Sodium sulfate

b)

Sodium sulfide

c)

Sodium sulfite

d)

Sodium sulfuroxide

136.

What is the name of the compound Sc(OH)3?

a)

Scandium (III) hydroxide

b)

Scandium (I) hydroxide

c)

Scandium (II) hydroxide

d)

Scandium hydroxide

137.

The name of the compound Ca3(PO4)2

a)

calcium phosphate

b)

tricalcium diphosphate

c)

calcium phosphorus oxide

d)

calcium phosphide

138.
name the following ionic compound: NaF
a)
nitrogen fluorine
b)
sodium fluoride
c)
nitrogen fluoride
d)
sodium fluorine
139.
AgF
a)
silver fluoride
b)
silver fluorine
c)
monosilver monofluoride
d)
silver monofluorine
140.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Na1+  F1-         
a)
NaF
b)
NaF3
c)
Na3F
d)
Na1F2
141.
The proper formula for magnesium hydroxide:
a)
MgOH
b)
Mg2OH
c)
Mg(OH)2
d)
Mg2OH2
142.
The chemical formula of iron (III)bromide is
a)
FeBr
b)
Fe(III)Br
c)
FeBr₃
d)
Fe₂Br₃

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