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Molecules of Life (Biochemistry) — Worksheet Questions (Grade 9)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What element must all organic compounds contain?

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

2.

What other element is most commonly bonded to carbon in organic compounds?

a)

hydrogen

b)

chlorine

c)

sodium

d)

phosphorus

3.

Based on the results of testing an unknown sample (refer to the last column of the table below), what conclusion can be drawn?

a)

You can conclude whether or not a particular type of molecule is present.

b)

You can determine the exact 3D structure of the molecule.

c)

You can calculate the precise caloric value of the molecule.

d)

You can locate the molecule’s exact position in the cell.

4.

Match biomolecules to their monomers: Which of the following pairings are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

carbohydrates — monosaccharide

b)

lipids — amino acid

c)

proteins — amino acid

d)

nucleic acids — nucleotide

5.

Which biomolecule primarily provides long‑term energy storage (approximately 9 Cal/g) and contributes to biological membranes and insulation?

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

6.

Which biomolecule includes enzymes that control the rate of chemical reactions and contributes to structure and transport in and out of cells?

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

7.

Which biomolecule stores and transmits genetic information, with ATP storing energy in its bonds?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

carbohydrates

8.

We can assume that the function of certain biomolecules—such as an enzyme’s substrate specificity or a receptor’s signal specificity—is dependent on their what?

a)

shape/structure

b)

mass

c)

color

d)

cellular location

9.

If a protein molecule is synthesized from 9 amino acids, how many peptide bonds are formed?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

10.

If a protein molecule is synthesized from 9 amino acids, how many molecules of water are formed?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

11.

If glycogen is broken down into 1248 glucose molecules, how many molecules of water were required?

a)

1247

b)

1248

c)

624

d)

1

12.

If glycogen is broken down into 1248 glucose molecules, how many covalent bonds were broken?

a)

1247

b)

1248

c)

624

d)

1

13.

A nucleic acid is broken down into the nucleotides that compose it, producing 5931 molecules of water. How many nucleotides were produced?

a)

5930

b)

5931

c)

5932

d)

6000

14.

Identify the polymer and its monomer type shown in the top‑left image of connected hexagonal rings (polysaccharide chain).

a)

carbohydrate polymer — monosaccharide monomers

b)

protein polymer — amino acid monomers

c)

nucleic acid polymer — nucleotide monomers

d)

lipid — fatty acid and glycerol components

15.

Identify the monomer and polymer represented by the top‑right structural diagram featuring an R group attached to the central carbon.

a)

amino acid monomer — protein polymer

b)

monosaccharide monomer — carbohydrate polymer

c)

nucleotide monomer — nucleic acid polymer

d)

fatty acid monomer — lipid

16.

Identify the polymer shown in the bottom‑left image and name the three parts of its monomer.

a)

RNA — sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

b)

DNA — glycerol, fatty acid, phosphate

c)

protein — amino group, carboxyl group, R group

d)

carbohydrate — carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

17.

Identify the monomer parts depicted in the bottom‑right nucleotide structure diagram.

a)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

b)

glycerol, fatty acid, phosphate

c)

amino group, carboxyl group, R group

d)

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

18.

Explain how the shape of a molecule relates to an enzyme’s function. Choose the statement that best reflects the worksheet explanation.

a)

An enzyme’s function depends on the specific shape of its active site; if the active site’s shape changes, the enzyme no longer functions.

b)

An enzyme’s function is independent of shape and relies only on temperature.

c)

An enzyme’s function increases whenever the enzyme becomes larger in size.

d)

An enzyme’s function is determined by the number of substrates present, not by shape.

19.

Explain what it means to say an enzyme is denatured.

a)

It has lost its structure (unfolded) so it no longer works.

b)

It has gained energy and speeds up all reactions.

c)

It splits every substrate into products without binding.

d)

It becomes a DNA molecule that stores genetic information.

20.

Select all true statements about how enzymes affect reaction rate.

a)

They increase reaction rate by lowering the activation energy required to start the reaction.

b)

They change the energy in the products and reactants, altering delta G.

c)

They are not used up in a reaction.

d)

They slow reactions by raising the activation energy.

21.

Based on the pH activity graph, what is the optimal pH for gastric protease?

a)

pH 2

b)

pH 3

c)

pH 5

d)

pH 8

22.

Based on the pH activity graph, what is the optimal pH for intestinal protease?

a)

pH 3

b)

pH 5

c)

pH 7

d)

pH 8

23.

Based on the pH activity graph, at what pH do both proteases have some activity?

a)

pH 2

b)

pH 3

c)

pH 5

d)

pH 8

24.

Identify the reactants in the cellular respiration equation C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2O+36 ATPC_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightarrow 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + 36\,\text{ATP} .

a)

C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6 and 6O26O_2

b)

6CO26CO_2 and 6H2O6H_2O

c)

36 ATP36\,\text{ATP} only

d)

C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6 and 6CO26CO_2

25.

Identify the reactants in the photosynthesis equation 6CO2+6H2O+Esun→C6H12O6+6O26CO_2 + 6H_2O + \text{E}_{\text{sun}} \rightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 .

a)

6CO26CO_2 , 6H2O6H_2O , and sunlight energy

b)

C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6 and 6O26O_2

c)

6CO26CO_2 and 6O26O_2

d)

C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6 and water only

26.

How do the reactants and products of photosynthesis and cellular respiration compare?

a)

The reactants of cellular respiration are the products of photosynthesis, and the reactants of photosynthesis are the products of cellular respiration.

b)

Both processes share identical reactants and products with no differences.

c)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration have unrelated reactants and products.

d)

Cellular respiration produces sunlight energy used as a reactant in photosynthesis.

27.

What organelle is involved in photosynthesis?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

28.

What organelle is involved with part of the cellular respiration pathway?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Vacuole

29.

If there are 18 atoms of oxygen on the reactant side of a balanced equation, how many atoms of oxygen will be on the product side?

a)

12

b)

18

c)

24

d)

36

30.

The equal number of atoms on each side of a balanced equation models which law?

a)

Law of conservation of matter

b)

Law of independent assortment

c)

Law of superposition

d)

Law of segregation

31.

Explain how energy is transferred through photosynthesis starting with the sun and ending with carbohydrate. Choose the statement that best matches the worksheet description.

a)

Light energy from the sun is captured by chlorophyll in plant cell chloroplasts and converted to chemical energy; the chemical energy is stored in ATP formed in the light reactions and transferred to carbohydrate molecules.

b)

Light energy is directly turned into heat in leaves without forming ATP or carbohydrates.

c)

Chemical energy begins in carbohydrates and is converted into sunlight energy by chlorophyll.

d)

Energy transfer skips ATP and moves straight from light to proteins in the nucleus.

32.

Which sequence correctly shows the order of molecules from glucose to ATP as chemical energy is transferred?

a)

Glucose → Pyruvate → Citrate → ATP, NADH, FADH2 → 34 ATP

b)

Glucose → Citrate → Pyruvate → ATP, NADH, FADH2 → 34 ATP

c)

Glucose → ATP, NADH, FADH2 → Pyruvate → Citrate → 34 ATP

d)

Citrate → Glucose → Pyruvate → ATP, NADH, FADH2 → 34 ATP

33.

Which diagram shows a plant cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of the diagrams

34.

Which diagram shows a prokaryotic cell? Select all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

35.

Which diagram shows an animal cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of the diagrams

36.

Which diagrams show eukaryotic cells? Select all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

37.

Which diagram shows bacteria?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of the diagrams

38.

Which diagram does not have a nucleus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All have a nucleus

39.

Which diagrams have a nucleus? Select all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

40.

Which diagrams have ribosomes? Select all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

41.

What are two features to look for in a eukaryotic cell that help you determine it is eukaryotic and not prokaryotic?

a)

Presence of a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

b)

Presence of a cell wall and flagella

c)

Absence of DNA and ribosomes

d)

Only single circular chromosome with no membranes

42.

Which organelles are thought to be evidence supporting the theory of endosymbiosis? Select all that apply.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Peroxisomes

43.

Which structures are common to all cells? Select all that apply.

a)

Ribosomes

b)

DNA

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cell membrane

e)

Nucleus

44.

Based on the labeled cell diagram, what is structure #5 and what is its main function?

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum; modifies and packages proteins

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum; produces lipids

c)

Golgi apparatus; digests macromolecules

d)

Mitochondrion; generates ATP

45.

In the labeled cell diagram, what is structure #1 and what does it do?

a)

Nucleolus; produces ribosomes

b)

Nucleus; stores genetic material

c)

Centrosome; organizes microtubules

d)

Lysosome; breaks down waste

46.

In the labeled cell diagram, what is structure #7 and what is its purpose?

a)

Cell membrane; maintains homeostasis by controlling what enters and leaves the cell

b)

Cell wall; provides rigid external support

c)

Mitochondrion; carries out cellular respiration

d)

Vacuole; stores water and ions

47.

What is structure #7 made of?

a)

Two layers of phospholipids with hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails

b)

A single layer of carbohydrates

c)

Three layers of proteins forming a rigid barrier

d)

A double layer of nucleic acids

48.

Looking at the labeled cell diagram, what does the structure labeled #2 do and why is it important?

a)

It is the nucleus; houses and protects DNA, acting as the cell's control center

b)

It is the nucleolus; synthesizes rRNA and assembles ribosomal subunits

c)

It is the mitochondrion; produces ATP for cellular energy

d)

It is the Golgi apparatus; modifies and sorts proteins for secretion

49.

What is structure #6 in the labeled cell diagram?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Lysosome

d)

Centrioles

50.

Structure #6 can form which structure(s) that help transport nutrients and wastes around and out of the cell via endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)

Vesicles

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Microfilaments

d)

Peroxisomes

51.

Structure #3 synthesizes proteins for the cell. What is this structure called?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Lysosome

d)

Vacuole

52.

Which protein transmits information from the extracellular fluid to the inside of the cell?

a)

Receptor

b)

Transporter

c)

Marker

d)

Channel

53.

Which protein shown in the membrane illustration would be used to move molecules across the cell membrane?

a)

Transporter

b)

Receptor

c)

Marker

d)

Structural filament

54.

Which membrane protein is important in identifying cells as self to the immune system?

a)

Marker

b)

Receptor

c)

Transporter

d)

Pump

55.

Fill out the table using the word bank diffusion, facilitated diffusion, vesicles, osmosis, pumps. Name the process that matches: movement of water down a concentration gradient.

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

vesicles

d)

osmosis

e)

pumps

56.

For movement of water down a concentration gradient, identify whether the process is active or passive.

a)

active

b)

passive

57.

For movement of water down a concentration gradient, does the process require ATP?

a)

yes

b)

no

58.

Fill out the table using the word bank diffusion, facilitated diffusion, vesicles, osmosis, pumps. Name the process that matches: a “bubble” of membrane that transports materials into or out of the cell.

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

vesicles

d)

osmosis

e)

pumps

59.

For a “bubble” of membrane that transports materials into or out of the cell, identify whether the process is active or passive.

a)

active

b)

passive

60.

For a “bubble” of membrane that transports materials into or out of the cell, does the process require ATP?

a)

yes

b)

no

61.

Fill out the table using the word bank diffusion, facilitated diffusion, vesicles, osmosis, pumps. Name the process that matches: movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration through a protein.

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

vesicles

d)

osmosis

e)

pumps

62.

For movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration through a protein, identify whether the process is active or passive.

a)

active

b)

passive

63.

For movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration through a protein, does the process require ATP?

a)

yes

b)

no

64.

Fill out the table using the word bank diffusion, facilitated diffusion, vesicles, osmosis, pumps. Name the process that matches: movement of small molecules through the cell membrane from a high concentration to low concentration.

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

vesicles

d)

osmosis

e)

pumps

65.

For movement of small molecules through the cell membrane from a high concentration to low concentration, identify whether the process is active or passive.

a)

active

b)

passive

66.

For movement of small molecules through the cell membrane from a high concentration to low concentration, does the process require ATP?

a)

yes

b)

no

67.

Fill out the table using the word bank diffusion, facilitated diffusion, vesicles, osmosis, pumps. Name the process that matches: proteins embedded in the membrane that move large, polar or charged molecules against the concentration gradient, generally requiring energy.

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

vesicles

d)

osmosis

e)

pumps

68.

For proteins embedded in the membrane that move large, polar or charged molecules against the concentration gradient, identify whether the process is active or passive.

a)

active

b)

passive

69.

For proteins embedded in the membrane that move large, polar or charged molecules against the concentration gradient, does the process require ATP?

a)

yes

b)

no

70.

Looking at the picture labeled to the left, which one displays endocytosis? Choose the letter of the diagram.

a)

A

b)

B

71.

Which one displays exocytosis? Choose the letter of the diagram.

a)

A

b)

B

72.

A cell does not contain mitochondria. Which of these transport processes does not occur? Select all that apply.

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

pumps

e)

vesicles

73.

Explain why the mitochondria is important for the processes you selected above. Choose the best statement.

a)

Mitochondria produces ATP energy required for active transport such as pumps and vesicles.

b)

Mitochondria synthesizes membrane proteins for diffusion.

c)

Mitochondria stores water to drive osmosis.

d)

Mitochondria controls cell division to allow exocytosis.

74.

Label the diagrams as isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic based on the environment outside of the cell. For the left diagram, which label applies?

a)

isotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

hypotonic

75.

For the left diagram, which way will water move relative to the cell?

a)

into the cell

b)

out of the cell

c)

no net movement

76.

Label the diagrams as isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic based on the environment outside of the cell. For the middle diagram, which label applies?

a)

isotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

hypotonic

77.

For the middle diagram, which way will water move relative to the cell?

a)

into the cell

b)

out of the cell

c)

no net movement

78.

Label the diagrams as isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic based on the environment outside of the cell. For the right diagram, which label applies?

a)

isotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

hypotonic

79.

For the right diagram, which way will water move relative to the cell?

a)

into the cell

b)

out of the cell

c)

no net movement

80.

Draw a picture of what a cell (model: grape) would look like in each of these types of solutions. For hypotonic (tap water), what happens to the grape cell?

a)

it swells

b)

it shrinks

c)

it remains the same size

81.

Draw a picture of what a cell (model: grape) would look like in each of these types of solutions. For hypertonic (glucose solution), what happens to the grape cell?

a)

it swells

b)

it shrinks

c)

it remains the same size

82.

Draw a picture of what a cell (model: grape) would look like in each of these types of solutions. For isotonic (grape juice), what happens to the grape cell?

a)

it swells

b)

it shrinks

c)

it remains the same size

83.

Describe the mass change in each and water movement.

a)

The cell will swell as water moves into the cell. Mass will increase

b)

The cell will shrink as water moves out of the cell. Mass will decrease

c)

There will be no noticeable change in the cell as water moves in and out at equal rates. The mass will stay the same

84.

Transport across membranes ultimately helps a cell maintain homeostasis. The movement of molecules continues until a dynamic equilibrium is reached. What term describes the state that is reached when molecular movement continues until balance is achieved?

a)

homeostasis

b)

dynamic equilibrium

c)

diffusion

d)

active transport

85.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: cannot maintain homeostasis

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

86.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: do not metabolize or perform cellular respiration to make ATP

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

87.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: can only replicate inside of a living host cell

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

88.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: composed of protein capsid and nucleic acid

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

89.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: nucleic acid is DNA or RNA

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

90.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: nucleic acid single ring of DNA

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

91.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: nucleic acid is multiple linear chromosomes

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

92.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: use 20 amino acids in their proteins

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

93.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: marker proteins on surface

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

94.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: change over time (evolve) due to mutation of their nucleic acid

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

95.

Categorize the characteristic by selecting one category: change over time due to accumulating plasmids from other cells

a)

viruses

b)

all cells

c)

just eukaryotic cells

d)

just prokaryotic cells

e)

both cells and viruses

96.

Eukaryotes protect their genome (DNA) inside a nucleus which is inside the cell. The nuclear envelope is a double membrane. How many layers of lipids are between the DNA and the environment outside the cell?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

97.

Prokaryotes protect their DNA inside the plasma membrane which is in turn covered with a cell wall of peptidoglycan (a sugar/protein complex). How is this similar to the location of nucleic acid in a virus?

a)

Both place nucleic acid behind a protective structure; in viruses this structure is called the capsid

b)

Both enclose nucleic acid within a cytoplasm

c)

Both have nucleic acid enclosed in a membrane

d)

Both have circular nucleic acid

98.

Prokaryotes protect their DNA inside the plasma membrane which is in turn covered with a cell wall of peptidoglycan (a sugar/protein complex). How is it different from viruses?

a)

Viruses do not have a cytoplasm that their nucleic acid is in nor is the nucleic acid enclosed in a membrane

b)

Prokaryotes can have DNA or RNA, while viruses always have DNA

c)

Viral genomes are circular while prokaryotic genomes are linear

d)

Prokaryotes always have DNA, while viruses can have DNA or RNA

e)

Prokaryotes have their DNA in a circle; viral DNA/RNA is linear

99.

Viruses are spread through 3 common vectors. Select all that apply.

a)

body fluids such as snot, spittle, and blood

b)

contaminated food/water such as undercooked meat, unwashed vegetables, or nonpotable water

c)

zoonotic sources such as mosquitoes, ticks, bats, and birds

d)

clean water and sterile instruments

100.

Viruses cause disease by which mechanisms? Select all that apply.

a)

damaging or killing cells in the host organism

b)

causing infected cells to produce toxins

c)

having molecular components that are toxic, such as an envelope

d)

increasing host cell ATP production to boost immunity

101.

DNA stands for what full name?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Deoxyribose nucleic acid

c)

Deoxyribosomal acid

d)

Deoxyribonitric acid

102.

RNA stands for what full name?

a)

Ribonucleic acid

b)

Ribosomal nucleic acid

c)

Ribonitric acid

d)

Ribose nucleic acid

103.

Complete the statement: All somatic cells in all ______ contain DNA.

a)

living organisms

b)

bacterial plasmids

c)

nonliving materials

d)

only nervous tissues

104.

Complete the statement: The sequence of DNA determines the ______, or characteristics, in living organisms.

a)

traits

b)

masses

c)

charges

d)

membranes

105.

Complete the statement: The sequence of DNA is the template for making ______.

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

glycogen

d)

cellulose

106.

Based on the chart of differences, which sugar is found in DNA?

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

c)

Glucose

d)

Fructose

107.

Based on the chart of differences, which sugar is found in RNA?

a)

Ribose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Glucose

d)

Galactose

108.

Which description matches the overall shape of DNA according to the chart of differences?

a)

Double helix

b)

Single stranded

c)

Beta sheet

d)

Spherical

109.

Which description matches the overall shape of RNA according to the chart of differences?

a)

Single stranded

b)

Double helix

c)

Linear crystal

d)

Triple helix

110.

Which set lists the nucleotides present in DNA according to the chart of differences?

a)

A, T, G, C

b)

A, U, G, C

c)

A, T, U, C

d)

A, U, G, T

111.

Which set lists the nucleotides present in RNA according to the chart of differences?

a)

A, U, G, C

b)

A, T, G, C

c)

A, U, T, C

d)

A, T, G, U

112.

DNA and RNA are made of smaller subunits called nucleotides which are made up of three parts. Which list correctly identifies these three parts?

a)

5-carbon sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

b)

Amino group, carboxyl group, R-group

c)

Phosphate, fatty acid tails, glycerol

d)

Ribosome, tRNA, mRNA

113.

Use the DNA strand shown to determine the sequence of nucleotides for the complementary strand. The original strand is labeled 3’ ACG-TCG-AAG-CCA 5’. Which complementary sequence is correct?

a)

5’ TGC-AGC-TTC-GGT 3’

b)

5’ TGA-AGC-TTC-GGT 3’

c)

5’ TGC-AGC-TTG-GGT 3’

d)

5’ TGC-ACG-TTC-GGT 3’

114.

In DNA, purines bond with pyrimidines. Which base does adenine bond with?

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

115.

In DNA, purines bond with pyrimidines. Which base does guanine bond with?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

116.

Which type of bonds hold the nitrogen bases together in DNA?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Covalent bonds

d)

Peptide bonds

117.

What process is shown in the diagram to the right, and why is it important?

a)

DNA replication, because it copies DNA to produce two identical strands

b)

Transcription, because it translates mRNA into protein

c)

Translation, because it synthesizes RNA from DNA

d)

Mitosis, because it divides the cytoplasm to form two cells

118.

Where does DNA replication occur?

a)

Nucleus of eukaryotic cells

b)

Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells

c)

Mitochondrial intermembrane space

d)

Golgi apparatus

119.

During which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

S phase of interphase

b)

G2 phase of interphase

c)

Metaphase of mitosis

d)

G1 phase of interphase

120.

Which enzyme unwinds and unzips the DNA molecule at the start of replication?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA primase

d)

Ligase

121.

Which enzyme lays down the RNA primers during DNA replication?

a)

Primase

b)

Ligase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

Exonuclease

122.

Which enzyme begins laying down DNA nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ direction, adding to the 3’ end?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Helicase

123.

On the lagging strand, the Okazaki fragments created will be joined by which enzyme?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA polymerase

124.

What is the overall direction of DNA replication relative to the replication fork?

a)

5’ to 3’ toward the replication fork

b)

3’ to 5’ away from the replication fork

c)

5’ to 3’ away from the replication fork

d)

3’ to 5’ toward the replication fork

125.

Which term describes the process in which each new DNA molecule contains one original strand and one newly constructed strand?

a)

Semiconservative replication

b)

Conservative replication

c)

Dispersive replication

d)

Reductive replication

126.

Which term describes the orientation of the two DNA strands relative to each other?

a)

Antiparallel

b)

Parallel

c)

Perpendicular

d)

Iso-directional

127.

In a basic drawing of a duplicated chromosome, which description correctly identifies its main parts?

a)

two sister chromatids joined at a centromere

b)

a single chromatid with multiple nucleoli

c)

several ribosomes attached to a spindle fiber

d)

four chromatids joined at two nuclei

128.

Select the correct labels you would apply to a duplicated chromosome.

a)

sister chromatids

b)

centromere

c)

spindle fibers

d)

nucleolus

129.

What is chromatin?

a)

the genetic material in the nucleus that is long and thin

b)

the protein that forms spindle fibers

c)

the fluid in the cytoplasm surrounding organelles

d)

the membrane separating the nucleus from cytoplasm

130.

Where would you find chromosomes inside of the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosome

131.

What is a genome?

a)

the complete set of genes (DNA) of an organism

b)

a single chromosome

c)

the division of the cytoplasm

d)

the set of organelles in a cell

132.

According to the cell cycle diagram, which stages belong to interphase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M (mitosis)

133.

What happens in the G1, S, and G2 stages within interphase?

a)

G1 decides whether to replicate and carries out daily functions; S is DNA replication; G2 checks replication and organelles replicate

b)

G1 is DNA replication; S prepares for mitosis; G2 is when the cell exits the cycle

c)

G1 is cytokinesis; S is cell growth only; G2 is when chromosomes pair with homologs

d)

G1 begins mitosis; S forms spindle fibers; G2 dissolves the nuclear envelope

134.

Which phase does DNA replication take place, and what happens to the amount of DNA during this process?

a)

S phase; the amount of DNA increases from one copy to two copies

b)

G1; the amount of DNA decreases by half

c)

G2; the amount of DNA remains unchanged

d)

M phase; the amount of DNA increases only during metaphase

135.

What are the four stages of mitosis?

a)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

b)

interphase, prophase, anaphase, cytokinesis

c)

metaphase, telophase, interphase, anaphase

d)

prophase, S phase, G2, telophase

136.

What phase starts in late telophase, but is not part of mitosis?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

interphase

c)

metaphase

d)

G1

137.

Where do our cells spend 90% of the time?

a)

interphase (mostly G1)

b)

mitosis (M phase)

c)

cytokinesis

d)

S phase only

138.

Using the stages shown, which labels are stages of mitosis?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

e)

cytokinesis

139.

Why is mitosis important in your body? Select all that apply.

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

digestion

e)

respiration

140.

After mitosis, how many chromosomes are in each daughter cell compared to the parent cell in humans?

a)

46 in daughter cells; 46 in parent cells

b)

23 in daughter cells; 46 in parent cells

c)

46 in daughter cells; 23 in parent cells

d)

23 in daughter cells; 23 in parent cells

141.

What type of cells does mitosis produce?

a)

somatic (body) cells

b)

gametes (sex cells)

c)

haploid spores

d)

stem cells only

142.

Uncontrolled cell division is more commonly known as what, when the cells repeat the cell cycle faster than normal?

a)

cancer

b)

apoptosis

c)

meiosis

d)

senescence

143.

How many chromosomes TOTAL do humans have, and how many pairs?

a)

46 total, 23 pairs

b)

44 total, 22 pairs

c)

48 total, 24 pairs

d)

23 total, 46 pairs

144.

Which description best fits the cells that result from mitosis?

a)

2 identical somatic cells

b)

2 nonidentical gametes

c)

1 diploid cell and 1 haploid cell

d)

4 identical daughter cells

145.

If a mutation alters the production of cyclin or cyclin dependent kinase, interfering with normal cell cycle controls, the result is usually what?

a)

cancer

b)

cell differentiation

c)

meiosis

d)

programmed cell death

146.

Which stage of the cell cycle involves the separation of the sister chromatids by the spindle?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

147.

Which stage of the cell cycle involves the condensing of the chromosomes and breakdown of the nuclear envelope?

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

148.

Which stage of the cell cycle involves the chromosomes lining up across the equatorial plane?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

149.

Which stage of the cell cycle involves the uncoiling of the chromosomes into diffuse chromatin and reformation of the nuclear envelope?

a)

telophase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

150.

Fill in the chart regarding RNA types: Which statement correctly describes messenger RNA (mRNA)?

a)

Located in nucleus and cytoplasm; takes message from DNA to ribosome

b)

Located only in cytoplasm; makes up part of the ribosome

c)

Located in cytoplasm; brings amino acids from cytoplasm to ribosome

d)

Located in nucleus only; copies the entire genome