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Renal anatomy, urinary tract infections, and diuretics

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 22hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement of the following best describes the relations of kidneys?

a)

Diaphragm is directly related to the superior part of both kidneys.

b)

The left kidney is related to the duodenum.

c)

The kidneys are related anteriorly to quadratus lumborum.

d)

The pancreas is related to the right kidney.

2.

In the renal hilum, which of the following structures is characterized as the most posterior?

a)

Ureter

b)

Most constricted structure

c)

Most superior structure

d)

Most lateral

3.

Which of the following statements best describes the left renal vein?

a)

Left gonadal vein is one of its tributaries.

b)

Shorter than the right renal vein.

c)

Receives the right suprarenal vein.

d)

Passes behind the aorta.

4.

Which of the following best describes the capsules of the kidney?

a)

Fibrous capsule loosely applied to its outer surface of the kidney.

b)

Pararenal fat covers the fibrous capsule.

c)

Perirenal fat encloses the kidney and suprarenal gland.

d)

Perirenal fat, renal fascia, and pararenal fat support the kidney.

5.

Which of the following best describes the right kidney?

a)

Anteriorly, related to the spleen.

b)

Posteriorly, related to the right colic flexure.

c)

Fibrous capsule encloses the kidney and suprarenal gland.

d)

Renal artery arises from the abdominal aorta.

6.

Which of the following is important for identification of the ureter?

a)

The ureter is located posterior to the internal iliac artery.

b)

The ureter is located posterior to the suprarenal artery.

c)

The ureter is located posterior to the renal vein.

d)

The ureter is located posterior to the gonadal artery.

7.

Which of the following is the most common route of transmission of urinary tract infection?

a)

Ascending

b)

Descending

c)

Direct extension

d)

Hematogenous

8.

Which of the following is the most common organism causing cystitis?

a)

E. coli

b)

Proteus

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Candida

9.

What structures allow uropathogens to attach to receptors on uroepithelial cells?

a)

Pilli

b)

Flagella

c)

Endospores

d)

Cell wall

10.

Which of the following organisms is known to be urease positive?

a)

Proteus

b)

E. coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Candida

11.

Which of the following diuretics act through inhibiting electrogenic Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts resulting in decreasing K+ excretion?

a)

Xipamide

b)

Isosorbide

c)

Triamterene

d)

Spironolactone

12.

A 48-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe flank pain and hematuria. After imaging, a 4 mm stone in the left ureter is confirmed. He has a history of three episodes of intense, colicky flank pain radiating to the groin over the past five years. Which of the following diuretic agent is most useful in treating recurrent calcium stones?

a)

Chlorthalidone

b)

Diazoxide

c)

Ethacrynic acid

d)

Mannitol

13.

Furosemide is known to exert its inhibitory effect through which renal tubular cell mechanism?

a)

Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporter

b)

Na+-Cl- symporter

c)

Na+-H+ antiporter

d)

Na+-K+ ATPase

14.

A 26-years old female was presented to the clinic with dysuria and frequency of micturition. Her urine analysis revealed pus cells. Which of the following explains why urinary tract infection is more common in females?

a)

Hormonal imbalance

b)

Short urethra

c)

Poor hygiene

d)

Pregnancy

15.

A graduate student is planning to make a high-altitude climb in the Andes while on vacation. He will not have time to acclimate slowly to altitude. Which of the following is a drug that is useful in preventing high-altitude sickness?

a)

Acetazolamide

b)

Amiloride

c)

Demeclocycline

d)

Desmopressin

16.

Which of the following is a common side effect associated with Loop Diuretics?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Decreased plasma triglycerides

17.

Which of the following is a feature of minimal change disease of the glomeruli?

a)

Light microscopy shows crescent formation in glomeruli

b)

The incidence is greatest between the ages of 20 and 40 years

c)

A non-selective proteinuria is usual

d)

Loss of the foot processes of the podocytes is seen on electron microscope

18.

Which of the following is the classic presentation in acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

a)

Oliguria and hematuria

b)

Severe proteinuria

c)

Hypercoagulability

d)

Lipiduria

19.

Which of the following is a feature of membranous glomerulonephritis?

a)

There is basement membrane thickening with hair comb spikes by light microscope

b)

The kidneys are decreased in size grossly

c)

There is often no change

d)

Many glomeruli are hyalinized by electron microscope

20.

In patients with gout, which type of stones is suspected?

a)

Calcium phosphate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Triple phosphate

d)

Uric acid

21.

Which of the following features can be observed under a light microscope in cases of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

a)

Loss of podocytes

b)

Crescent formation

c)

Thick basement membrane

d)

Double contour basement membrane

22.

Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney?

a)

Nephron

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting duct

23.

When examined under an electron microscope, which of the following microscopic features can be observed in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

a)

Thick basement membrane

b)

Double contour basement membrane

c)

Increase mesangial deposits and loss of processes of podocyte

d)

Crescent formation and deposition of fibrin

24.

What is the prognosis of membranoproliferative glomerulonephrosis?

a)

Good prognosis

b)

Bad prognosis

c)

Precancerous

d)

Immediately fatal

25.

Severe efferent arteriolar constriction causes which of the following?

a)

Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

b)

Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

c)

No effect on the kidney

d)

Renal failure

26.

In a 60-year-old male with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, imaging shows urinary tract obstruction. He presents with difficulty in urination and bladder distension. The decrease in GFR in this patient is mainly due to which of the following?

a)

Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

b)

Increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule

c)

Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

d)

Constriction of efferent arteriole

27.

Which capillaries are involved in urine concentration?

a)

Peritubular

b)

Glomerular

c)

Vasa recta

d)

Sinusoids

28.

A patient with damage to the proximal convoluted tubule is found to have glucose in their urine, despite having normal blood glucose levels. Which function is most likely impaired?

a)

Passive diffusion of water

b)

Active reabsorption of glucose

c)

Urea secretion

d)

ADH-dependent water reabsorption

29.

Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure equals which of the following?

a)

18 mmHg

b)

32 mmHg

c)

45 mmHg

d)

60 mmHg

30.

In a clinical scenario, a 30-year-old woman presents with excessive urination and dilute urine due to a deficiency of ADH. Which nephron segment is primarily responsive to ADH?

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Thin ascending limb

c)

Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

d)

Glomerulus

31.

Which of the following substances is the thick ascending limb impermeable to?

a)

Na+

b)

Cl−

c)

Water

d)

K+

32.

Which of the following is maintained by glomerulotubular balance?

a)

Constant GFR

b)

Constant urine volume

c)

Constant percentage reabsorption

d)

Constant blood pressure

33.

Which of the following secretes Renin?

a)

Podocytes

b)

Lacis cells only

c)

Macula densa

d)

Juxtaglomerular cells

34.

Autoregulation of GFR occurs between which range of arterial blood pressure (ABP)?

a)

50–100 mmHg

b)

70–150 mmHg

c)

90–200 mmHg

d)

120–250 mmHg

35.

Which substance is almost completely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?

a)

Urea

b)

Glucose

c)

Creatinine

d)

Inulin

36.

Which of the following stones is radiolucent?

a)

Calcium phosphate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Uric acid

d)

Triple phosphate

37.

Which of the following stones is radiolucent?

a)

Calcium phosphate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Uric acid

d)

Triple phosphate

38.

What is the range of urinary pH?

a)

4.5 to 8

b)

7.35 to 7.45

c)

5 to 6

d)

7 to 8

39.

What is the shape of cysteine crystals?

a)

Barrel

b)

Hexagonal

c)

Star like

d)

Needle like

40.

In which of the following locations is the filtration slit membrane found?

a)

The pedicles of podocytes

b)

The parietal and visceral layers of renal capsule

c)

The afferent arterioles and distal convoluted tubules

d)

The renal cortex

41.

Which of the following describes podocytes?

a)

Glomerular endothelial cells.

b)

Parietal epithelial cells of Bowman.

c)

Mesangial cells.

d)

Visceral epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule

42.

Which of the following are the components of the renal corpuscle?

a)

Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule and Bowman's capsule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

d)

Bowman's capsule and macula densa

43.

Which of the following describes the projection of the renal cortex into the medulla?

a)

Medulla

b)

Medullary ray

c)

Lobe

d)

Renal columns

44.

Which of the following describes the structure formed by the renal pyramid and its associated cortex?

a)

Medulla

b)

Lobe

c)

Renal columns

d)

Nephron