wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Content Section Worksheet Questions Extraction

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Enzymes that break down proteins:

a)

pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin

b)

pepsin, gastrixin, lipase

c)

amylase, trypsin, pepsin

d)

trypsin, sucrase, enterokinase

e)

chymotrypsin, lactase, lipase

2.

Enzymes that break down carbohydrates:

a)

amylase, maltase, lactase, sucrase

b)

lipase, maltase, pepsin, trypsinogen

c)

maltase, trypsin, galactase, enterokinase

d)

amylase, ribonuclease, lipase, pepsin

e)

chymotrypsin, lactase, sucrase, lipase

3.

The fovea centralis of the retina is the site of best vision, where the following accumulate:

a)

cones

b)

rods

c)

rods and cones

d)

ganglion cells

e)

bipolar cells

4.

Accommodation of the eye is defined as:

a)

the ability to clearly see objects at any distance

b)

the absence of a clear image of a point on the retina

c)

the different degrees of refraction of the central and peripheral rays by the lens

d)

changes in the sensitivity of retinal elements under the influence of light

e)

the ability to see in the dark

5.

Peripheral vision is provided by:

a)

rods

b)

cones

c)

maculota

d)

ganglion cells

e)

bipolar cells

6.

The sensation of pain arises at the level of:

a)

thalamus

b)

striatum

c)

globus pallidus

d)

medulla oblongata nuclei

e)

red nucleus

7.

The indirect calorimetry method is based on determining the amounts of:

a)

absorbed oxygen and released carbon dioxide

b)

released carbon dioxide and nitrogen

c)

released heat and absorbed oxygen

d)

absorbed oxygen and released nitrogen

e)

released water vapor and carbon dioxide

8.

Heat production in homeothermic animals under cold conditions:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

does not change

d)

decreases sharply

e)

changes phasically

9.

Chemical thermoregulation includes the process of:

a)

changes in metabolic rate

b)

thermal conduction

c)

thermal radiation

d)

convection

e)

evaporation

10.

Organ system that directly communicates with the external environment:

a)

sensory organs

b)

spinal cord

c)

endocrine system

d)

brain

e)

cerebral cortex

11.

Method for studying the functions of the cerebral cortex:

a)

conditioned reflex method

b)

Rine's experiment

c)

Galvani's first experiment

d)

oxyspiography

e)

esthesiometry

12.

The analyzer is a unified system comprising:

a)

peripheral receptor apparatus, conduction region, and central cortex

b)

peripheral receptor apparatus and conduction region

c)

conduction region and central cortex

d)

receptive field and central cortex

e)

sensory organs

13.

Unconditioned reflexes include:

a)

food, sexual, defensive

b)

summated, complex

c)

generalized, differentiating

d)

dynamic stereotype

e)

first-, second-, and third-order reflexes

14.

The enzyme that hydrolyzes starch is:

a)

amylase

b)

chymotrypsin

c)

trypsin

d)

gastrixin

e)

pepsin

15.

Performs functions of perceiving the body's position in space and maintaining balance:

a)

vestibular apparatus

b)

cutaneous reception

c)

hearing organ

d)

somatosensory system

e)

visceral system

16.

The field of view is:

a)

the space visible to the human eye when fixating on a single point

b)

the eye's ability to clearly see objects at different distances

c)

the eye's ability to change the refractive power of the optical system by changing the curvature of the lens

d)

the eye's ability to perceive color

e)

the eye's ability to distinguish two points of light separately

17.

Which proteins are deficient:

a)

proteins deficient in one or more essential amino acids

b)

proteins containing a complex of fat-soluble vitamins

c)

proteins containing all essential amino acids

d)

proteins that do not contain vitamins A, D, E, or K

e)

uncooked proteins

18.

What is the function of the peripheral part of the analyzer:

a)

perception and encoding of information without distorting its essence

b)

conducting and analyzing information

c)

information processing and coding

d)

information analysis and synthesis

e)

all answers are correct

19.

What is a positive nitrogen balance?

a)

nitrogen intake is greater than output

b)

nitrogen intake equals output

c)

nitrogen intake is less than output

d)

nitrogen intake is unrelated to output

20.

What is the specific dynamic effect of food?

a)

increased basal metabolic rate after eating

b)

decreased basal metabolic rate after eating

c)

dilation of intestinal vessels after eating

d)

increased body temperature after eating

e)

relaxation of the stomach immediately after eating

21.

Which protein, fat, and carbohydrate transformations in the body are exothermic?

a)

oxidation in tissues to end products

b)

synthesis of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates in tissues

c)

reactions associated with the absorption of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates

d)

enzymatic breakdown in the digestive tract

e)

reaction of formation of intermediate products

22.

What is the basis of direct physiological calorimetry?

a)

direct measurement of the amount of heat released by the body

b)

accounting for the amount of CO2 released

c)

accounting for the amount of CO2 released by the body and O2 absorbed

d)

accounting for the amount of O2 absorbed

e)

the nature of blood oxygenation

23.

During the oxidation of which nutrient is the caloric coefficient of oxygen the highest?

a)

during the oxidation of carbohydrates

b)

during the oxidation of proteins

c)

during the oxidation of fats

d)

during the oxidation of a mixture of equal amounts of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates

e)

during the oxidation of a mixture of carbohydrates and proteins

24.

Visual acuity for healthy young people:

a)

0.95 – 1.0

b)

0.7 – 0.8

c)

1.5 – 2.0

d)

0.2 – 0.4

e)

3 – 4

25.

Which protein element can be used to determine protein consumption in the body?

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon

c)

hydrogen

d)

sulfur

e)

phosphorus

26.

Where is the image focused during myopia?

a)

in front of the retina

b)

in the macula

c)

behind the retina

d)

in the blind spot

e)

in the fovea

27.

The sound-conducting system of the auditory organ is represented by:

a)

outer ear, eardrum, middle ear

b)

vestibular region

c)

organ of Corti

d)

semicircular canals

e)

vestibular staircase

28.

What are the end products formed during protein breakdown?

a)

urea, uric acid, creatine, indican

b)

carbon dioxide, water

c)

amino acids

d)

amino acids, urea

e)

carbon dioxide, creatine

29.

Specify the formula for calculating total energy metabolism:

a)

BMR + work gain + specific-dynamic effect of food

b)

basal metabolic rate (BM) + work gain

c)

BM + work gain – specific-dynamic effect of food

d)

energy expenditure for thermoregulation + work gain

e)

energy expenditure for physical activity + specific-dynamic effect of food

30.

Indicate the receptor cells located in the retina:

a)

rods, cones

b)

rhodopsin and iodopsin

c)

pigment cells

d)

iodopsin

e)

bipolar cells

31.

Define incomplete proteins:

a)

proteins deficient in one or more amino acids

b)

proteins containing a complex of fat-soluble vitamins

c)

proteins containing all essential amino acids

d)

proteins lacking vitamins A, D, E, and K

e)

uncooked proteins

32.

What is the function of the peripheral part of the analyzer?

a)

perception and encoding of information without distorting its essence

b)

information transmission and analysis

c)

information processing and encoding

d)

information analysis and synthesis

e)

all answers are correct

33.

What characterizes a positive nitrogen balance?

a)

nitrogen intake is greater than its output

b)

synthesized protein is equal to the amount of protein broken down

c)

nitrogen intake is less than its output

d)

nitrogen intake is equal to its output

e)

increased protein synthesis in the body

34.

Body surface area affects the basal metabolic rate because it depends on:

a)

weight, height, gender

b)

height

c)

age

d)

nature of endocrine regulation

e)

heat loss occurs primarily through the skin

35.

Which specific skin receptors perceive pain stimuli?

a)

free nerve endings

b)

Ruffini corpuscles

c)

Krause flasks

d)

Meissner corpuscles

e)

Merkel disks

36.

What is called accommodation of the eye?

a)

change in the refractive power of the lens, providing a clear image of objects at different distances on the retina

b)

distance at which clear vision of an object is maintained

c)

flattening of the lens due to contraction of the ciliary muscle

d)

dilation of the pupil

e)

spasm of the ciliary muscle

37.

What is the primary physiological role of carbohydrates in metabolism:

a)

energetic

b)

antitoxic

c)

protective

d)

plastic

e)

homeostatic

38.

Where are the cones located on the retina:

a)

in the fovea

b)

in the blind spot

c)

on the peripheral part of the retina

d)

uniformly distributed across the retina

e)

closer to the exit of the optic nerve

39.

How does nitrogen balance change during fasting:

a)

decrease

b)

remain unchanged

c)

increase

d)

sometimes increase, sometimes decrease

e)

no correct answer

40.

Which protein, fat, and carbohydrate transformations in the body are exothermic:

a)

oxidation in tissues to end products

b)

synthesis of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates in tissues

c)

reactions associated with the absorption of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates

d)

enzymatic breakdown in the digestive tract

e)

reaction of formation of intermediate products

41.

What is the basis of direct physiological calorimetry:

a)

direct measurement of the amount of heat released by the body

b)

accounting for the amount of CO2 released

c)

accounting for the amount of CO2 released by the body and O2 absorbed

d)

accounting for the amount of O2 absorbed

e)

the nature of blood oxygenation

42.

During the oxidation of which nutrient is the caloric coefficient of oxygen the highest?

a)

during the oxidation of carbohydrates

b)

during the oxidation of proteins

c)

during the oxidation of fats

d)

during the oxidation of a mixture of equal amounts of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates

e)

during the oxidation of a mixture of carbohydrates and proteins

43.

In what case will a person experience a negative nitrogen balance?

a)

with a significant decrease in protein content in food

b)

during pregnancy

c)

during growth

d)

with a significant increase in protein content in food

e)

with a significant decrease in carbohydrate content

44.

When is a positive nitrogen balance observed in the human body:

a)

during growth

b)

in old age

c)

during fasting

d)

during prolonged and intense physical activity

45.

How do heat production and heat loss change as the ambient temperature decreases:

a)

heat production increases, heat loss decreases

b)

heat production decreases, heat loss increases

c)

heat production decreases, heat loss decreases

d)

heat production increases, heat loss increases

e)

heat production and heat loss remain the same

46.

How does heat production change in homeothermic animals in cold conditions:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

does not change

d)

decreases sharply

e)

changes in phases

47.

What processes does chemical thermoregulation include:

a)

changes in metabolic rate

b)

thermal conduction

c)

thermal radiation

d)

convection

e)

evaporation

48.

The main sections of the analyzer according to I.P. Pavlov:

a)

receptor, conductive, cortical

b)

receptor, conductive, sensory

c)

bulbar, thalamic, cortical

d)

specific, nonspecific, associative

e)

receptor, thalamic, central

49.

The receptor section of the auditory analyzer is:

a)

organ of Corti

b)

otolith apparatus

c)

tectorial membrane

d)

spiral ganglion

e)

tympanic membrane

50.

The cortical visual center is localized in the region of:

a)

occipital

b)

parietal

c)

temporal

d)

frontal

e)

hippocampus

51.

The receptor section of the vestibular analyzer is:

a)

otolith apparatus

b)

organ of Corti

c)

tectorial membrane

d)

spiral ganglion

e)

basal membrane

52.

Olfactory receptors are characterized as:

a)

primary, chemical, distant

b)

secondary, contact, mechanical

c)

mechanical, interoceptive, distant

d)

contact, secondary, chemical

e)

primary, physical, distant

53.

Ocular accommodation is defined as:

a)

the ability to clearly see objects at any distance

b)

the absence of a clear image of a point on the retina

c)

the different degrees of refraction of the central and peripheral rays by the lens

d)

changes in the sensitivity of retinal elements under the influence of light

e)

the ability to see in the dark

54.

Peripheral vision is provided by:

a)

rods

b)

cones

c)

maculota

d)

ganglion cells

e)

bipolar cells

55.

Visual acuity is the eye's ability to see:

a)

two adjacent points separately

b)

at a close distance

c)

at a distance

d)

while staring fixedly

e)

in the dark

56.

In myopia, the rays are focused:

a)

in front of the retina

b)

in the macula

c)

behind the retina

d)

in the blind spot

e)

in the fovea

57.

The central part of the analyzer is represented by:

a)

cortical centers

b)

thalamic nuclei

c)

midbrain

d)

cerebellum

e)

limbic structures

58.

When exposed to light, photochemical processes occur in the retina, and rod rhodopsin is broken down into:

a)

retinal and opsin

b)

iodopsin and retinal

c)

erythrolab and vitamin A

d)

chlorolab and opsin

e)

vitamin A and iodopsin

59.

What is considered unconditional inhibition:

a)

transcendental, external

b)

external, delayed

c)

differentiating, extinction

d)

internal, protective

e)

delayed, transcendental

60.

What type of nervous system is this according to the Hippocratic classification: Strong, mobile, unbalanced:

a)

choleric

b)

sanguine

c)

melancholic

d)

phlegmatic

e)

introvert

61.

What is considered conditioned inhibition:

a)

delayed, differentiating, extinction, conditioned inhibitor

b)

delayed, transboundary, differentiating, synaptic

c)

transboundary, external, differentiating, presynaptic

d)

differentiating, transboundary, extinction, external

e)

extinction, protective, delayed, internal

62.

People with the following temperaments are more prone to neurotic breakdowns of higher nervous activity:

a)

choleric, melancholic

b)

melancholic, sanguine

c)

phlegmatic, melancholic

d)

sanguine, choleric

e)

phlegmatic, sanguine

63.

What are the characteristics of unconditioned reflexes:

a)

heritability, constant reflex arc, stereotypy

b)

signaling nature, heritability, temporary reflex arc

c)

constant reflex arc, individuality, variability

d)

individuality, signaling nature, heritability

e)

variability, constant reflex arc, stereotypy

64.

What type of nervous system is this according to the Hippocratic classification: strong, balanced, inert:

a)

phlegmatic

b)

choleric

c)

sanguine

d)

melancholic

e)

extrovert

65.

What type of nervous system is this according to the Hippocratic classification: strong, balanced, mobile:

a)

sanguine

b)

choleric

c)

melancholic

d)

phlegmatic

e)

introvert

66.

What are instincts:

a)

complex unconditioned reflexes

b)

simple unconditioned reflexes

c)

first-order conditioned reflexes

d)

well-established conditioned reflexes

e)

trace conditioned reflexes

67.

What types of higher nervous activity are unique to humans:

a)

mental, artistic, mixed

b)

unrestrained, calm, weak

c)

artistic, weak, calm

d)

calm, sanguine, choleric

e)

mental, strong, mixed

68.

What is the mechanism of long-term memory:

a)

RNA, DNA, and protein synthesis

b)

reverberation

c)

feedback principle

d)

irradiation principle

e)

divergence principle

69.

The processes that most fully characterize memory:

a)

information fixation, storage, and reproduction

b)

information storage

c)

information storage in DNA and RNA

d)

circulation of excitation

e)

information storage in DNA, RNA, and circulation of excitation

70.

What important functions does speech perform as a subjective form of reflection of the surrounding world:

a)

communicative, conceptual, regulatory

b)

communicative, signaling, trophic

c)

conceptual, integrative, adaptive

d)

regulatory, analytical, trophic

e)

conceptual, analytical, trophic

71.

To determine the types of higher nervous activity, I.P. Pavlov used the basic properties of excitatory and inhibitory processes:

a)

strength, mobility, balance

b)

strength, lability, occlusion

c)

mobility, refractoriness, dominance

d)

balance, chronaxie, accommodation

e)

mobility, refractoriness, adaptation

72.

What are the names of reflexes that arise, become established, and fade throughout life:

a)

conditioned

b)

unconditioned

c)

orientational

d)

respiratory

73.

Which amino acids are considered essential:

a)

amino acids that are not synthesized in the human body and must be obtained from food

b)

amino acids that can be synthesized in the body

c)

amino acids not involved in protein synthesis

d)

amino acids of incomplete proteins

e)

all 20 amino acids that make up proteins are essential

74.

What is the minimum metabolic rate and energy expenditure for the body called:

a)

basal metabolic rate

b)

general metabolic rate

c)

gross metabolic rate

d)

energy metabolism during work and rest

e)

thermal metabolism

75.

When will a person have a negative nitrogen balance:

a)

with a significant decrease in protein content in food

b)

with a significant increase in protein content in food

c)

during normal physical activity

d)

during pregnancy

e)

during growth child

76.

What is the name for relative constancy of internal body temperature:

a)

isothermia

b)

hyperthermia

c)

chemical thermoregulation

d)

physical thermoregulation

e)

hypothermia

77.

In homeothermic animals, when the external temperature decreases:

a)

heat production increases, heat loss decreases

b)

heat production and heat loss decrease

c)

heat production and heat loss increase

d)

heat production and heat loss remain unchanged

e)

heat production and heat loss cease

78.

Where are the main thermoregulatory centers located:

a)

hypothalamus

b)

pituitary gland

c)

pons

d)

medulla oblongata

e)

cerebellum

79.

What determines the biological value of dietary lipids:

a)

the presence of essential fatty acids, their ability to be absorbed

b)

the relative amount of fat in food

c)

high caloric content

d)

high taste qualities

e)

high energy content

80.

What is the biological value of food proteins:

a)

the content of all amino acids in proteins, including essential ones

b)

the importance of food proteins for life

c)

the relative amount of protein in food

d)

high caloric content

e)

high energy intensity

81.

When does heat loss prevail over heat production:

a)

during hypothermia

b)

during hyperthermia

c)

during heatstroke

d)

during heterothermia

e)

during homeothermia

82.

Which receptors are more numerous per unit of body surface area:

a)

cold

b)

thermal

c)

olfactory

d)

taste

e)

photoreceptors

83.

What parts does the sensory system consist of:

a)

sensory receptors, sensory pathways transmitting information to the central nervous system, sensory conduction networks and neural networks of the central nervous system, the cortex

b)

sensory organs

c)

peripheral receptor apparatus and transmitting neural pathways

d)

conduction area and sensory association areas of the cerebral cortex

e)

receptive field and central cortex

84.

Perceives changes in the body's internal environment and provides the central and autonomic nervous systems with the information necessary for reflexive regulation of internal organs:

a)

visceral sensory system

b)

somatosensory system

c)

vestibular sensory system

d)

cutaneous reception

e)

temperature reception

85.

Perceives irritation:

a)

receptor

b)

reflexogenic zone

c)

receptive zone

d)

sensory nerve

e)

cortical zone of the analyzer

86.

What is the name for the loss of sensitivity resulting from the cessation of impulse conduction along the centripetal nerves:

a)

anesthesia

b)

adaptation

c)

accommodation

d)

irradiation

e)

parabiosis

87.

What are the auditory ossicles for:

a)

sound conduction and amplification

b)

assessing the distance of a sound source

c)

providing binaural hearing

d)

sound perception

e)

sound sensation

88.

Indicate the sensory element of the cochlea:

a)

organ of Corti

b)

auditory ossicles

c)

eustachian tube

d)

semicircular canals

e)

vestibule

89.

Provides balance and orientation in space:

a)

vestibular sensory system

b)

auditory sensory system

c)

temperature receptor structures

d)

tactile receptor structures

e)

cochlea of the inner ear

90.

What do the neurons of the vestibular nuclei provide:

a)

control and management of various motor reactions

b)

cutaneous sensitivity

c)

auditory sensations

d)

tactile perception

e)

taste and olfactory sensations

91.

What is the name of the light-sensitive membrane of the eye:

a)

retina

b)

cornea

c)

iris

d)

choroid

e)

vitreous body

92.

What causes refractive errors in the eye – myopia and hyperopia:

a)

change in the length of the eyeball

b)

insufficiency of the refractive media of the eye

c)

unequal refraction of rays in different directions

d)

unequal pupil sizes (anisocoria)

e)

impaired rod function

93.

What is the name of the impairment of vision in dim light caused by a lack of vitamin A in the body:

a)

night blindness

b)

myopia

c)

hyperopia

d)

anisocoria

e)

color blindness

94.

What is the name of the main lens of the eye:

a)

crystalline lens

b)

pupil

c)

retina

d)

iris

e)

vitreous body

95.

What regulates the amount of light reaching the retina:

a)

pupil

b)

rod and cone layer

c)

pigment layer

d)

cornea

e)

crystalline lens

96.

What is not part of the visual analyzer:

a)

cochlea

b)

cornea

c)

retina

d)

crystalline lens

e)

choroid

97.

Through which parts of the eye does a light beam pass sequentially from an object to the optic nerve:

a)

cornea-pupil-crystalline lens-vitreous body-receptor in the retina

b)

pupil-receptor in the retina

c)

iris-receptor in the retina

d)

sclera-choroid-retina

e)

sclera-choroid-iris-retina

98.

Name the protective layers of the eye:

a)

albuginea, cornea

b)

vitreous body

c)

retina

d)

choroid

e)

iris

99.

A person getting up when the alarm clock rings is an example of which reflex:

a)

conditioned reflex

b)

unconditioned reflex

c)

unconditioned stimulus

d)

conditioned stimulus

e)

arousal

100.

Which reflexes are characterized by properties such as variability and individuality:

a)

conditioned

b)

unconditioned

c)

innate

d)

species-specific

e)

orientational

101.

Which reflexes have the following qualities: constant, species-specific, and determining the existence of an organism early in life:

a)

unconditioned

b)

acquired

c)

conditioned

d)

somatic

e)

rhythmic

102.

What properties of the cerebral cortex underlie higher nervous activity:

a)

analysis, synthesis

b)

irradiation

c)

occlusion

d)

induction

e)

irradiation, convergence

103.

Indicate the optimal conditions for the formation of a conditioned reflex:

a)

coincidence in time of two stimuli, preceded by the conditioned stimulus. The conditioned stimulus is weaker than the unconditioned stimulus

b)

mismatch in time of two stimuli. The conditioned stimulus is stronger than the unconditioned stimulus

c)

complete coincidence in time of two stimuli. The conditioned stimulus is stronger than the unconditioned stimulus

d)

coincidence in time of two stimuli, preceded by the unconditioned stimulus

e)

the conditioned stimulus is equal in strength to the unconditioned stimulus

104.

What is the name for inhibition based on the discrimination of similar conditioned stimuli:

a)

differentiative

b)

extinction

c)

transcending

d)

conditioned inhibitor

e)

delayed

105.

What kind of inhibition results from lengthening the time between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli:

a)

delayed

b)

extinction

c)

inductive

d)

differentiative

e)

conditioned inhibitor

106.

What underlies the development of habits in humans, automatic actions in the work process, and a specific system of behavior related to an established daily routine:

a)

dynamic stereotype

b)

unconditioned reflex

c)

system of unconditioned reflexes

d)

first signaling system

e)

second signaling system

107.

What is the name of the type of higher nervous activity in which the first and second signal systems are balanced:

a)

mixed

b)

artistic

c)

mental

d)

melancholic

e)

phlegmatic

108.

Which temperament (according to the Hippocratic classification) corresponds to a strong, unbalanced type of nervous system:

a)

choleric

b)

phlegmatic

c)

melancholic

d)

sanguine

e)

mental

109.

What is the name of a strong, balanced, and mobile type of higher nervous activity:

a)

sanguine

b)

melancholic

c)

phlegmatic

d)

choleric

e)

mental

110.

What type of higher nervous activity is characterized by low cortical cell performance and weak neural processes:

a)

weak

b)

strong unbalanced

c)

average

d)

artistic

e)

mental

111.

What type of higher nervous activity is characterized by a predominance of excitation over inhibition:

a)

strong unbalanced

b)

strong balanced mobile

c)

strong balanced inert

d)

weak

e)

mental

112.

Complex forms of behavior and higher mental functions are associated primarily with the activity of:

a)

frontal lobes

b)

parietal lobe

c)

temporal lobes

d)

parieto-occipital

e)

occipital lobe

113.

Define the concept of "attention":

a)

focus of mental activity on a specific object

b)

the process of reflecting in the central nervous system the individual properties of objects and phenomena that directly affect the senses

c)

the process of receiving and transforming information

d)

the ability to store and reproduce information

e)

motivation to act, associated with the satisfaction of specific needs

114.

What is the name of the physiological state characterized by the loss of a subject's active mental connections with the world around them:

a)

sleep

b)

clinical death

c)

consciousness

d)

fainting

e)

coma

115.

Define the concept of "memory":

a)

recording, storing, and reproducing information

b)

replenishing and modifying knowledge

c)

acquiring new skills

d)

the system of perceiving the immediate signs of external stimuli

e)

the brain's reflection of a need and the possibility of satisfying it

116.

What are the names of individual reflexes that arise, become entrenched, and fade throughout life:

a)

conditioned

b)

orientational

c)

respiratory

d)

unconditioned

e)

food

117.

Increased basal metabolic rate is caused by:

a)

thyroxine

b)

oxytocin

c)

acetylcholine

d)

trypsin

e)

melatonin

118.

The auditory center of the cerebral cortex is located in:

a)

temporal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

frontal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

e)

base of the brain

Similar Resources on Wayground

Water and Cell

123 questions

Water and Cell

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biology First Semester Final Exam Review

119 questions

Biology First Semester Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

Unit 4- Evolution and diversity of life

120 questions

Unit 4- Evolution and diversity of life

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Biology Exam 1 (Chapter 1,43-45)

113 questions

Biology Exam 1 (Chapter 1,43-45)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

EDN MIDTERMS

113 questions

EDN MIDTERMS

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Final Exam (DNA)

118 questions

Final Exam (DNA)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

integumentary

115 questions

integumentary

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biochem Final Test part 2

123 questions

Biochem Final Test part 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University