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Cybersecurity Quiz

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How does SIEM support forensic investigations?

a)

By automatically encrypting compromised systems

b)

By providing a centralized, immutable log trail and event correlation

c)

By physically locking down server room access

d)

By deleting suspicious files before they are opened

e)

By replacing the need for a human investigator

2.

What is the main function of PKI in secure communications?

a)

To optimize network bandwidth for encrypted traffic

b)

To manage digital certificates and establish identity trust

c)

To provide physical security tokens for data centers

d)

To act as a secondary backup for private keys

e)

To increase the speed of symmetric key generation

3.

Which IDS/IPS approach is best for detecting zero-day attacks?

a)

Signature-based detection

b)

Anomaly-based detection

c)

Rule-based filtering

d)

Blacklist-based detection

e)

Heuristic-only file scanning

4.

Which cryptographic method provides both confidentiality and integrity of data?

a)

MD5 Hashing

b)

Base64 Encoding

c)

RSA without a hashing algorithm

d)

Authenticated Encryption (e.g., AES-GCM)

e)

Simple Caesar Cipher

5.

How can automated patch management reduce risk exposure?

a)

By increasing the software's functional complexity

b)

By shortening the window of vulnerability between discovery and remediation

c)

By eliminating the need for a network firewall

d)

By automatically backing up user documents

e)

By reducing the power consumption of the servers

6.

Which policy model ensures that users cannot read or write information at unauthorized levels?

a)

Bell-LaPadula / Biba

b)

Waterfall Software Model

c)

Agile Project Management

d)

ISO 9001

e)

Spiral Model

7.

In penetration testing, what does a 'pivot' refer to?

a)

Changing the testing scope mid-project

b)

Using a compromised system to attack other internal network segments

c)

Switching between different testing tools

d)

Rotating encryption keys daily

e)

Reporting a bug directly to the developer

8.

What is the primary goal of implementing SIEM correlation rules?

a)

To reduce the total volume of logs stored

b)

To identify complex attack patterns by linking separate events

c)

To increase the CPU clock speed of the log server

d)

To bypass the need for an incident response team

e)

To encrypt data at rest in the database

9.

What is the primary function of network firewalls in modern enterprise networks?

a)

To store and cache employee emails

b)

To filter traffic based on a defined set of security rules

c)

To detect hardware failures in the server rack

d)

To automatically update workstation operating systems

e)

To manage the physical temperature of the data center

10.

Which approach ensures secure software development?

a)

Post-production testing only

b)

Rapid application prototyping

c)

Secure Development Lifecycle (SDLC)

d)

Using third-party libraries without verification

e)

Outsourcing all coding to unknown vendors

11.

How does anomaly-based IDS detect advanced persistent threats?

a)

By searching for known virus signatures

b)

By identifying deviations from established baseline behavior

c)

By blocking all traffic from specific geographic regions

d)

By requiring manual password entry for every packet

e)

By checking the physical serial numbers of devices

12.

How does multi-cloud strategy impact security governance?

a)

It simplifies governance by dividing risks

b)

It increases complexity and requires unified policy management

c)

It removes the requirement for data encryption

d)

It eliminates the possibility of data breaches

e)

It makes the cloud provider solely responsible for all data

13.

Which technique improves threat intelligence in a corporate network?

a)

Disconnecting all systems from the public internet

b)

Using external threat feeds and data sharing (ISACs)

c)

Relying solely on default OS settings

d)

Reducing the number of security analysts

e)

Disabling all logging to increase system speed

14.

Which cryptographic method supports digital signatures for authenticity verification?

a)

Symmetric key encryption

b)

Asymmetric (Public Key) encryption

c)

Hashing without a key

d)

Stream ciphers

e)

XOR-based encoding

15.

How does multifactor authentication mitigate credential theft?

a)

By making the password longer

b)

By requiring an additional factor an attacker likely doesn't have

c)

By encrypting the keyboard input

d)

By preventing the user from visiting phishing sites

e)

By changing the username every 30 days

16.

What is the main advantage of hardware-based security modules (HSM)?

a)

They are cheaper than software

b)

They provide physically isolated, tamper-resistant crypto-processing

c)

They make the internet connection faster

d)

They update all firmware automatically

e)

They allow users to share the same private key

17.

How does the principle of least privilege enhance security?

a)

It gives all users administrative rights

b)

It limits access rights to the bare minimum needed for a job

c)

It reduces the number of employees required

d)

It simplifies the login process

e)

It allows users to access any data they find

18.

Which metric is critical when evaluating risk exposure in enterprise systems?

a)

Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)

b)

Total number of lines of code

c)

Frequency of physical hardware cleanings

d)

Number of social media followers

e)

The age of the office building

19.

What is the main benefit of implementing DLP solutions?

a)

To increase storage capacity

b)

To prevent the unauthorized transfer or leakage of sensitive data

c)

To improve video conferencing quality

d)

To automate the employee payroll process

e)

To find and delete duplicate files

20.

How does blockchain technology enhance information security?

a)

By making all private data public

b)

By providing data immutability and decentralized verification

c)

By replacing the need for firewalls

d)

By speeding up encryption of large files

e)

By preventing physical theft of hardware

21.

Which network defense strategy can prevent lateral movement?

a)

Strong password policies

b)

Micro-segmentation / Zero Trust Architecture

c)

Using a single, powerful perimeter firewall

d)

Increasing the frequency of backups

e)

Disabling the guest Wi-Fi

22.

What is the main threat mitigated by network segmentation?

a)

High electricity consumption

b)

Lateral movement of attackers across the network

c)

Slow database performance

d)

Loss of physical hardware

e)

Software licensing issues

23.

In incident response, what is the first step after detecting a security breach?

a)

Formatting the affected hard drives

b)

Identification and verification of the incident

c)

Notifying the media immediately

d)

Hiring a new security team

e)

Increasing the insurance policy

24.

Which technique is used to assess the resilience of a network against DoS/DDoS attacks?

a)

Static code analysis

b)

Stress testing / Load testing

c)

Social engineering

d)

Physical cable inspection

e)

Hashing the database

25.

In cloud security, what is the key legal and technical measure to mitigate data leakage risks?

a)

Turning off the cloud service at night

b)

Encryption and Identity & Access Management (IAM)

c)

Using only one cloud provider

d)

Using only public Wi-Fi

e)

Deleting all logs

26.

Which control is essential to prevent SQL injection in web applications?

a)

Stronger passwords

b)

Parameterized queries / Input validation

c)

Increasing RAM

d)

Closing all open ports

e)

Disabling JavaScript

27.

How does virtual patching protect web applications?

a)

By rewriting the source code

b)

By blocking exploits at the WAF level before a real patch is applied

c)

By deleting the database

d)

By reinstalling the OS

e)

By physically unplugging the server

28.

What is the main legal requirement when handling personal data under GDPR?

a)

Data must be kept forever

b)

Lawful basis for processing and transparency

c)

Data must never be encrypted

d)

All data must be public

e)

No backups are allowed

29.

What is the main advantage of using TLS 1.3 over older versions?

a)

It is older and more tested

b)

Faster handshakes and improved security/privacy

c)

It works without the internet

d)

It uses weaker encryption for speed

e)

It requires more CPU power

30.

How does multi-factor authentication improve the security of a system?

a)

By making the password longer

b)

By adding layers of defense against compromised credentials

c)

By reducing the number of users

d)

By encrypting the local hard drive

e)

By increasing network speed

31.

Which control ensures compliance with multi-jurisdictional data protection laws?

a)

Data localization and GRC frameworks

b)

Standard antivirus

32.

Which control ensures compliance with multi-jurisdictional data protection laws?

a)

Data localization and GRC frameworks

b)

Standard antivirus

c)

Using local servers only

d)

Increasing the marketing budget

e)

Disabling the firewall

33.

What is the primary objective of security auditing?

a)

To find new customers

b)

To verify compliance and effectiveness of controls

c)

To develop new software

d)

To increase server speed

e)

To reduce employee salaries

34.

How does SIEM improve incident response efficiency?

a)

By reducing the number of logs

b)

By automating alerting and aggregating data for faster analysis

c)

By preventing all attacks automatically

d)

By deleting all suspicious emails

e)

By replacing the firewall

35.

What is the main function of a Certificate Authority (CA) in PKI?

a)

To store backups

b)

To issue and verify digital certificates

c)

To filter spam emails

d)

To manage office passwords

e)

To monitor network traffic

36.

Which encryption algorithm is considered quantum-resistant?

a)

RSA-2048

b)

Lattice-based cryptography (e.g., Crystals-Kyber)

c)

DES

d)

MD5

e)

SHA-1

37.

What is the primary objective of conducting a DPIA (Data Protection Impact Assessment)?

a)

To measure network speed

b)

To identify and minimize risks to personal data

c)

To calculate company profit

d)

To hire new developers

e)

To monitor employee lunch breaks

38.

Which approach is most effective for mitigating ransomware attacks?

a)

Changing the wallpaper

b)

Offline/immutable backups and EDR

c)

Increasing bandwidth

d)

Disabling the antivirus

e)

Paying the ransom immediately

39.

Which network control is crucial for protecting virtualized environments?

a)

Physical locks

b)

Micro-segmentation and Hypervisor-based firewalls

c)

USB blocking

d)

Increasing RAM

e)

Using CRT monitors

40.

Which metric is used to quantify and prioritize security risks?

a)

Risk Rating (Likelihood x Impact)

b)

Number of installed apps

c)

Age of the hardware

d)

Number of employees

e)

Office square footage

41.

What is the primary goal of a SIEM system in an enterprise environment?

a)

Centralized visibility and real-time security monitoring

b)

To replace the IT department

c)

To host the company website

d)

To increase download speeds

e)

To manage payroll

42.

How does the Clark-Wilson model ensure data integrity?

a)

By encrypting all data

b)

Through well-formed transactions and separation of duties

c)

By hiding data from users

d)

By deleting data after 30 days

e)

By using only biometric access

43.

What is the main purpose of cybersecurity hygiene practices?

a)

To keep the office clean

b)

To reduce risk through basic, repetitive practices (patching, passwords)

c)

To increase software prices

d)

To speed up the internet

e)

To track employee hours

44.

Which approach ensures data integrity in transit over untrusted networks?

a)

Base64

b)

Hashing and Digital Signatures (HMAC) / TLS

c)

Compression

d)

Deleting the data

e)

Using a proxy

45.

Which method best evaluates the effectiveness of a company's DLP solution?

a)

Reading the manual

b)

Attempting to exfiltrate dummy sensitive data

c)

Checking the server temperature

d)

Asking employees if they like the software

e)

Increasing the cloud storage size

46.

Which principle is fundamental for minimizing insider threats?

a)

Separation of Duties / Least Privilege

b)

Unlimited access for senior staff

c)

Remote work for everyone

d)

Sharing passwords for efficiency

e)

Eliminating all background checks

47.

In cloud security, what is the key advantage of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

a)

It makes the cloud faster

b)

Centralized control over access to specific resources

c)

It lowers the cost of storage

d)

It replaces the need for a firewall

e)

It manages the physical keys to the data center

48.

Which type of attack can bypass standard signature-based antivirus?

a)

Old viruses

b)

Fileless malware and Zero-days

c)

Plain text files

d)

Corrupted images

e)

Encrypted zip files (without a payload)

49.

What is the primary benefit of using AES over DES encryption?

a)

It is older

b)

Significantly stronger security due to larger key sizes

c)

It is easier to crack

d)

It uses more power

e)

It requires a physical key

50.

What is the main purpose of implementing honeypots in a network?

a)

To store actual company secrets

b)

To distract attackers and gather threat intelligence

c)

To improve network speed

d)

To serve as a main database

e)

To block all traffic

51.

How does SIEM dashboards help in monitoring security events?

a)

By playing music during alerts

b)

By visualizing security events for quick monitoring

c)

By acting as a screensaver

d)

By managing employee calendars

e)

By reducing power consumption

52.

Which control is crucial for mitigating insider threats?

a)

User Behavior Analytics (UBA)

b)

Faster hard drives

c)

More monitors for staff

d)

Using only laptops

e)

Disabling the intranet

53.

What is the main function of stress testing for DoS/DDoS attacks?

a)

To see if the staff is stressed

b)

To determine system limits and resilience under load

c)

To check the internet bill

d)

To update the antivirus

e)

To test the fire alarm

54.

Which network measure can prevent lateral movement by attackers inside a corporate LAN?

a)

Micro-segmentation

b)

Changing the Wi-Fi name

c)

Using a single firewall at the edge

d)

Increasing the number of switches

e)

Disabling the printer

55.

How does role-based access control enhance enterprise security?

a)

By giving everyone the same permissions

b)

By mapping permissions to job roles rather than individuals

c)

By requiring daily password changes

d)

By allowing users to pick their own roles

e)

By encrypting all email traffic

56.

Which policy ensures proper separation of duties within an IT security team?

a)

Dual control / Split knowledge

b)

Bringing your own device (BYOD)

c)

Open door policy

d)

Shared admin accounts

e)

Remote access for everyone

57.

What is the primary objective of penetration testing?

a)

To repair broken hardware

b)

To proactively find and exploit vulnerabilities

c)

To train employees on Excel

d)

To increase server speed

e)

To replace the security team

58.

Which approach improves threat intelligence in a corporate network?

a)

Ignoring external reports

b)

Participating in Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs)

c)

Reinstalling Windows daily

d)

Decreasing the number of logs

e)

Blocking the IT team's access

59.

Which cryptographic algorithm supports digital signatures?

a)

AES

b)

ECDSA / RSA

c)

SHA-256 (alone)

d)

ROT13

e)

Base64

60.

What is the main benefit of implementing Secure Development Lifecycle (SDLC)?

a)

It makes software development faster

b)

It integrates security into every phase of development

c)

It removes the need for testing

d)

It lowers the cost of hardware

e)

It makes the UI better

61.

How does anomaly-based detection identify advanced persistent threats?

a)

By looking for a specific file name

b)

By identifying long-term deviations from normal user/network behavior

c)

By blocking all overseas traffic

d)

By using a dictionary attack

e)

By checking the server's CPU temperature

62.

How can multi-cloud environments affect security governance?

a)

They make it easier to follow one law

b)

They create visibility gaps and inconsistent policy application

c)

They eliminate the risk of downtime

d)

They remove the need for IAM

e)

They simplify the audit process

63.

How does multifactor authentication mitigate credential theft?

a)

It deletes the stolen password

b)

It renders stolen passwords useless without the second factor

c)

It alerts the police immediately

d)

It prevents the user from typing

e)

It encrypts the user's brain

64.

Which control is essential for securing virtualized environments?

a)

Hypervisor-based security / Micro-segmentation

b)

Desktop wallpapers

c)

Mechanical keyboards

d)

Physical tokens for every VM

e)

Disabling the internet

65.

Which practice mitigates ransomware attacks most effectively?

a)

Increasing storage size

b)

Regular, isolated (air-gapped/immutable) backups

c)

Paying the ransom quickly

d)

Disabling the firewall

e)

Using only one laptop

66.

Which legal and technical measures are key in cloud security to prevent data leakage?

a)

Strong encryption and Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASB)

b)

Using a private browser

c)

Deleting the cloud account

d)

Limiting the cloud to one country

e)

Using public clouds only