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Anatomy Worksheet MCQs

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

There are weak areas on the lateral part of the lumbar region—two zones where lumbar hernias may occur or pus may flow from the retroperitoneal space. Identify these weak areas.

a)

Petit triangle and Volynsky triangle.

b)

Lumbar triangle (Petit) and Volynsky lumbar quadrilateral.

c)

Lumbar (Petit) triangle and Grunfeld-Lesgaft lumbar quadrilateral.

d)

Scarpovsky lumbar triangle and Grunfeld-Lesgaft lumbar quadrilateral.

e)

Liete lumbar triangle and Grunfeld-Lesgaft lumbar quadrilateral.

2.

During surgery for an oblique inguinal hernia, the surgeon accidentally damaged a ligament passing through the inguinal canal in a woman. Identify the damaged ligament.

a)

Broad ligament of the uterus (lig. latum uteri).

b)

Cardinal ligament (lig. cardinalia).

c)

Round ligament of the uterus (lig. teres uteri).

d)

Broad ligament of the uterus (lig. latum uteri) and cardinal ligament (lig. cardinalia).

e)

Ovarian proper ligament.

3.

Ligation of the artery passing through Pirogov's triangle is performed in which condition?

a)

Wound of the soft tissues of the chin.

b)

Injury of the larynx and thyroid gland.

c)

Injury of the tongue.

d)

Injury of the pharynx.

e)

Injury of the soft palate.

4.

The patient’s head is drooping forward due to muscle dysfunction. Which muscle is damaged?

a)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle.

b)

Thyrohyoid and sternothyroid muscles.

c)

Mylohyoid muscles.

d)

Omohyoid muscles.

e)

Longus colli muscle.

5.

The patient’s face is turned to the right and upward. Contraction of which muscle caused this?

a)

Left sternocleidomastoid muscle.

b)

Right sternocleidomastoid muscle.

c)

Longus capitis muscle.

d)

Right scalene muscle.

e)

Left scalene muscle.

6.

A patient has a unilateral fracture of the coronoid process. The process is displaced upward due to the action of which muscle?

a)

Masseter muscle.

b)

Temporalis muscle.

c)

Medial pterygoid muscle.

d)

Lateral pterygoid muscle.

e)

Thyrohyoid and sternothyroid muscles.

7.

A pediatric neurologist identified weak development of truncopetal muscles in a child. Select the truncopetal muscles.

a)

Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, latissimus dorsi, psoas major.

b)

Serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi, levator scapulae.

c)

Rhomboid, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi.

d)

Pectoralis major, rhomboid, serratus anterior.

e)

Psoas major, psoas minor, levator scapulae, rhomboid.

8.

A pediatric neurologist identified weak development of truncofugal muscles in a child. Select the truncofugal muscles.

a)

Pectoralis minor, rhomboid, latissimus dorsi.

b)

Levator scapulae, rhomboid, serratus anterior, subclavius.

c)

Latissimus dorsi, rhomboid, pectoralis minor.

d)

Pectoralis major and minor, subclavius.

e)

Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, psoas major.

9.

A pediatric neurologist identified weak development of autochthonous muscles in a child. Select the autochthonous muscles.

a)

Erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, rhomboid.

b)

Latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior, lateral tract of the back.

c)

Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, subclavius.

d)

Erector spinae, splenius capitis and cervicis muscles.

e)

Latissimus dorsi, rhomboid.

10.

Identify the boundaries of the carotid triangle.

a)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle.

b)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, lower jaw, anterior belly of the digastric muscle, hyoglossus muscle.

c)

Anterior belly of the digastric muscle, inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle.

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, anterior belly of the digastric muscle.

e)

Inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, anterior belly of the digastric muscle.

11.

Identify the boundaries of the lingual (Pirogov) triangle.

a)

Mylohyoid muscle, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, hypoglossal nerve.

b)

Posterior belly of the digastric muscle, anterior belly of the digastric muscle, glossopharyngeal nerve.

c)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, vagus nerve, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle.

d)

Mylohyoid muscle, anterior belly of the digastric muscle, hypoglossal nerve.

e)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, mylohyoid muscle, lingual artery.

12.

During forward movement of the mandible, the capsule of the temporomandibular joint is not compressed. How can this be explained?

a)

The joint capsule is attached far from the articular tubercle, so it is not compressed.

b)

Fibers of the lateral pterygoid muscle attach to the joint capsule and articular disc, and their contraction moves the disc and capsule forward, preventing compression.

c)

Fibers of the medial pterygoid muscle attach to the joint capsule and articular disc, and their contraction moves the disc and capsule forward, preventing compression.

d)

The joint capsule is attached far from the coronoid process, so it is not compressed.

e)

Fibers of the temporalis muscle attach to the joint capsule and articular disc, and their contraction moves the disc and capsule forward, preventing compression.

13.

Identify the extensor tendons located in the second osteo-fibrous canal of the wrist (counting from the lateral side of the hand).

a)

Extensor tendon of the index finger.

b)

Extensor tendon of the little finger.

c)

Extensor tendon of the long radial extensor of the thumb and extensor tendon of the short radial extensor of the thumb.

d)

Extensor tendon of the long radial extensor of the thumb and extensor tendon of the index finger.

e)

Extensor tendon of the fingers and extensor tendon of the short radial extensor of the thumb.

14.

Identify the extensor tendons located in the fourth osteo-fibrous canal of the wrist (counting from the lateral side of the hand).

a)

Extensor tendon of the long radial extensor of the thumb.

b)

Extensor tendon of the little finger.

c)

Extensor tendons of the fingers and extensor tendon of the short radial extensor of the thumb.

d)

Extensor tendons of the fingers and extensor tendon of the index finger.

e)

Extensor tendon of the long radial extensor of the thumb and extensor tendon of the short radial extensor of the thumb.

15.

Identify the extensor tendons located in the first osteo-fibrous canal of the wrist (counting from the lateral side of the hand).

a)

Extensor tendon of the long extensor of the thumb.

b)

Long radial extensor of the wrist.

c)

Long abductor of the thumb and short extensor of the thumb.

d)

Ulnar extensor of the wrist.

e)

Extensor tendon of the long extensor of the thumb and long radial extensor of the wrist.

16.

Identify the extensor tendons located in the third osteo-fibrous canal of the wrist.

a)

Long extensor of the thumb.

b)

Extensor of the fingers.

c)

Extensor of the index finger.

d)

Ulnar extensor of the wrist.

e)

Short extensor of the thumb.

17.

A patient was admitted to the maxillofacial surgery department with trauma to the temporomandibular joint and the lateral triangle of the neck. Identify the boundaries of the lateral triangle of the neck.

a)

Trapezius muscle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle.

b)

Omohyoid muscle, sternohyoid muscle, sternothyroid muscle.

c)

Trapezius muscle, clavicle, sternocleidomastoid muscle.

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle.

e)

Clavicle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle.

18.

How many vertebrae do the semi-spinous (transversospinal) muscles cross?

a)

2-4

b)

4-6

c)

5-7

d)

8-9

19.

How many vertebrae do the multi-segmental (transversospinal) muscles cross?

a)

2-4

b)

4-6

c)

5-7

d)

8-9

20.

How many vertebrae do the rotator (transversospinal) muscles cross?

a)

2-4

b)

4-6

c)

1-2

d)

5-7

e)

8-9

21.

In which region is the quadriceps femoris muscle located?

a)

Thigh

b)

Shoulder

c)

Leg (calf)

d)

Forearm

e)

Hip

22.

Which muscles are initially formed in the trunk and later extend to the limbs?

a)

Trunkofugal

b)

Trunkopetal

c)

Autochthonous

d)

Proper

e)

Branchial arch

23.

Which muscles are initially formed in the limbs and later extend to the trunk?

a)

Trunkofugal

b)

Trunkopetal

c)

Autochthonous

d)

Proper

e)

Branchial arch

24.

Which muscles develop in situ (at their location of origin)?

a)

Trunkofugal

b)

Trunkopetal

c)

Autochthonous

d)

Proper

e)

Branchial arch

25.

Which physician first described the fascial compartments?

a)

Sklifosovsky

b)

Mukhin

c)

Pirogov

d)

Vishnevsky

e)

Rakhyshev

26.

Based on the features of fascial compartment structures, which doctor first suggested local anesthesia?

a)

Sklifosovsky

b)

Mukhin

c)

Pirogov

d)

Vishnevsky

e)

Rakhyshev

27.

Identify the antagonist muscles of the biceps brachii muscle.

a)

Triceps brachii muscle

b)

Coracobrachialis muscle

c)

Brachialis muscle

d)

Deltoid muscle

e)

Pectoralis major muscle

28.

Which muscle forms the medial wall of the axillary cavity?

a)

Serratus anterior muscle

b)

Short head of the biceps brachii muscle

c)

Latissimus dorsi muscle

d)

Teres major muscle

e)

Pectoralis major muscle

29.

Anatomical cross-section defines:

a)

Muscle thickness

b)

Muscle contraction

c)

Muscle strength

d)

Muscle work

e)

Muscle rest

30.

Physiological cross-section defines:

a)

Muscle thickness

b)

Muscle contraction

31.

Anatomical cross-section refers to

a)

The widest area of a muscle's transverse section

b)

The sum of the tendon cross-sections

c)

The transverse section of all muscle fibers at their origin

d)

The transverse section of the narrowest area of the muscle

e)

The sum of transverse sections of all muscle fibers

32.

Physiological cross-section refers to

a)

The widest area of a muscle's transverse section

b)

The sum of tendon cross-sections

c)

The area of all muscle fibers' transverse sections

d)

The narrowest area of a muscle's transverse section

e)

The sum of the transverse sections of all muscle fibers

33.

A synovial cavity lined with synovial membrane and filled with synovial fluid is called

a)

Fibrous capsule

b)

Joint cavity

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Synovial bursa

e)

Bone-fibrous canals

34.

An example of a joint acting as a speed lever is

a)

Atlanto-occipital joint

b)

Atlanto-axial joint

c)

Elbow joint

d)

Talocrural joint

e)

Sacroiliac joint

35.

An example of a joint acting as a balance lever is

a)

Atlanto-occipital joint

b)

Middle atlanto-axial joint

c)

Elbow joint

d)

Talocrural joint

e)

Sternoclavicular joint

36.

The endomysium covers

a)

A bundle of muscle fibers

b)

A single muscle fiber

c)

The entire muscle

d)

Only tendons

e)

The aponeurosis

37.

The perimysium covers

a)

A bundle of muscle fibers

b)

A single muscle fiber

c)

The entire muscle

d)

Only tendons

e)

The aponeurosis

38.

The epimysium covers

a)

A bundle of muscle fibers

b)

A single muscle fiber

c)

The entire muscle

d)

Only tendons

e)

The aponeurosis

39.

A patient cannot lower their mandible. Which muscle group is not functioning?

a)

Suprahyoid muscles

b)

Infrahyoid muscles

c)

Superficial neck muscles

d)

Deep neck muscles

e)

Mastication muscles

40.

According to Shevkunenko, the fascia covering the sternocleidomastoid muscle is

a)

Superficial neck fascia

b)

Superficial leaf of the deep cervical fascia

c)

Deep leaf of the deep cervical fascia

d)

Endocervical fascia

e)

Prevertebral fascia

41.

Which fascia covers the muscles located below the hyoid bone?

a)

Superficial neck fascia

b)

Superficial leaf of the deep cervical fascia

c)

Deep leaf of the deep cervical fascia

d)

Endocervical fascia

e)

Prevertebral fascia

42.

Mastication muscles develop from which structures?

a)

Mesenchyme of the upper cervical somites' myotomes

b)

Mesenchyme of the 1st branchial arch

c)

Mesenchyme of the 2nd branchial arch

d)

Mesenchyme of the 3rd branchial arch

e)

Mesenchyme of the lower cervical somites' myotomes

43.

The deep portion of the masseter muscle originates from

a)

Zygomatic arch and inner surface of the zygomatic bone

b)

Inner surface of the zygomatic bone and articular eminence

c)

Ramus of the mandible

d)

Pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone

e)

Maxillary tuberosity

44.

Functions of the temporal muscle include

a)

Its anterior fibers move the mandible backward

b)

Its posterior fibers move the mandible forward

c)

Anterior and middle fibers elevate the mandible, posterior fibers pull it backward

d)

All fibers elevate the mandible

e)

All fibers depress the mandible

45.

Where does the superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle attach?

a)

Pterygoid fovea

b)

Articular capsule and disc of the temporomandibular joint

c)

Pterygoid fossa on the neck of the mandible

d)

Coronoid process of the mandible

e)

Medial surface of the mandible's angle

46.

Where does the inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle attach?

a)

Pterygoid fossa on the neck of the mandible

b)

Pterygoid fovea

c)

Articular capsule

d)

Coronoid process of the mandible

e)

Medial surface of the mandible's angle

47.

The interosseous palmar muscles of the hand perform which function?

a)

Adduct the 2nd, 4th, and 5th fingers toward the midline

b)

Abduct the 1st, 2nd, and 4th fingers from the midline

c)

Flex the 2nd, 3rd, and 5th fingers

d)

Extend the 2nd to 5th fingers

e)

Adduct the 4th and 5th fingers to the midline

48.

Which muscles simultaneously flex the proximal phalanges of the 2nd–5th fingers and extend the middle and distal phalanges?

a)

Palmar interosseous muscles

b)

Dorsal interosseous muscles

c)

Brachioradialis muscle

d)

Lumbrical muscles

e)

Palmaris longus muscle

49.

Functions of skeletal muscles include

a)

Maintaining body balance

b)

Forming facial expressions

c)

Performing respiratory movements

d)

Facilitating swallowing movements

e)

All of the above

50.

The popliteal fossa communicates with which canal?

a)

Inferior muscle-peroneal canal

b)

Adductor canal

c)

Superior muscle-peroneal canal

d)

Femoral canal

e)

Hunter's canal

51.

The muscular lacuna is located

a)

In the greater sciatic foramen

b)

In the lesser sciatic foramen

c)

Below the medial part of the inguinal ligament

d)

Below the lateral part of the inguinal ligament

e)

In the femoral ring

52.

Which muscle passes through the lesser sciatic foramen?

a)

Gluteus minimus muscle

b)

Obturator internus muscle

c)

Piriformis muscle

d)

Obturator externus muscle

e)

Gemelli muscles

53.

Which muscle passes through the greater sciatic foramen?

a)

Quadratus femoris muscle

b)

Obturator internus muscle

c)

Obturator externus muscle

d)

Piriformis muscle

e)

Gemelli muscles

54.

The lumbrical muscles of the hand originate from

a)

Retinaculum of the flexor muscles

b)

Tendons of the superficial flexor muscles

c)

Tendons of the deep flexor muscles

d)

Palmar bones

e)

Carpal bones

55.

To which bone do the tendons of the deep flexor muscles of the fingers attach?

a)

Proximal phalanges of the 2nd–5th fingers

b)

Distal phalanges of the 2nd–5th fingers

c)

Middle phalanges of the 2nd–5th fingers

d)

Heads of the metacarpal bones of the 2nd–5th fingers

e)

Bodies of the metacarpal bones of the 2nd–5th fingers

56.

To which bones does the short extensor muscle of the thumb attach?

a)

1st metacarpal bone

b)

Base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb

c)

Distal phalanx of the thumb

d)

Head of the proximal phalanx of the thumb

e)

Body of the proximal phalanx of the thumb

57.

To which bones does the temporal muscle attach?

a)

External surface of the mandibular angle

b)

Internal surface of the mandibular angle

c)

Neck of the condylar process

d)

Coronoid process of the mandible

e)

Head of the condylar process

58.

From which structures do the mastication muscles develop?

a)

Myotomes of the upper cervical somites

b)

Mesenchyme of the 1st visceral arch

c)

Mesenchyme of the 2nd visceral arch

d)

Mesenchyme of the 3rd and 4th branchial arches

e)

Myotomes of the lower cervical somites

59.

To which bone does the teres major muscle attach?

a)

Acromion

b)

Greater tubercle of the humerus

c)

Crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus

d)

Crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus

e)

Intertubercular groove

60.

Which muscle produces horizontal wrinkles on the forehead during contraction, giving an expression of surprise?

a)

Arrogance muscle

b)

Orbicularis oculi muscle

c)

Corrugator supercilii muscle

d)

Frontal belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle

e)

Occipital belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle

61.

What limits the scalene gap?

a)

Middle and posterior scalene muscles

b)

Middle and anterior scalene muscles

c)

Anterior to the anterior scalene muscle

d)

Posterior to the posterior scalene muscle

e)

Behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle

62.

From which bones does the external oblique muscle of the abdomen originate?

a)

3rd–4th ribs

b)

5th–8th ribs

c)

9th–12th ribs

d)

Spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae

e)

Spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae and sacrum

63.

Which muscles contribute to the expansion of the thoracic cage?

a)

Pectoralis major muscle

b)

Muscles elevating the ribs

c)

Pectoralis minor muscle

64.

To which bone does the pectoralis minor muscle attach?

a)

Crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus

b)

Crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus

c)

Acromial end of the clavicle

d)

Coracoid process of the scapula

e)

Sternal end of the clavicle

65.

To which bones does the serratus posterior inferior muscle attach?

a)

6th–8th ribs

b)

9th–12th ribs

c)

Iliac crest

d)

Inferior angle of the scapula

e)

Posterior superior iliac spine

66.

To which structure does the latissimus dorsi muscle attach?

a)

Medial border of the scapula

b)

Crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus

c)

Anatomical neck of the humerus

d)

Crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus

e)

Surgical neck of the humerus

67.

To which bones does the rhomboid major muscle attach?

a)

Angles of the 2nd–5th ribs

b)

Body of the humerus

c)

Medial border of the scapula

d)

Lateral border of the scapula

68.

Muscles of the posterior thigh group

a)

m. biceps femoris, m. gracilis, m. adductor magnus

b)

m. gracilis, m. pectineus, m. sartorius

c)

m. quadriceps femoris, m. biceps femoris

d)

m. biceps femoris, m. semitendinosus, m. semimembranosus

e)

m. quadriceps femoris, m. semitendinosus, m. semimembranosus

69.

Where does the biceps femoris muscle attach?

a)

To the head of the fibula and the upper third of the lateral surface of the tibial diaphysis

b)

To the upper third of the fibular diaphysis and the upper third of the lateral surface of the tibial diaphysis

c)

To the head of the fibula and the anterior crest of the tibial diaphysis

d)

To the head of the fibula and the upper third of the lateral surface of the tibial diaphysis

e)

To the head of the fibula and the lateral condyle of the tibia

70.

Superficial muscles of the back

a)

m. trapezius, m. latissimus dorsi, m. levator scapulae, m. transversospinalis

b)

m. trapezius, m. latissimus dorsi, m. levator scapulae, m. erector spinae

c)

m. trapezius, m. latissimus dorsi, m. levator scapulae, mm. rhomboidei minor et major, m. serratus posterior superior, m. serratus posterior inferior

d)

m. trapezius, m. erector spinae, m. transversospinalis, m. serratus posterior inferior

e)

m. latissimus dorsi, m. levator scapulae, m. erector spinae, m. transversospinalis

71.

Muscles responsible for external rotation (supination) of the thigh

a)

Gluteus minimus, external and internal obturator muscles

b)

Iliopsoas, long adductor muscles, short adductor muscle

c)

Rectus femoris, external obturator muscle

d)

Sartorius muscle, internal obturator muscle, short adductor muscle

e)

Rectus femoris, long adductor muscle

72.

Muscles of the anterior thigh group

a)

m. rectus femoris, m. biceps femoris, m. gracilis, m. adductor magnus

b)

m. gracilis, m. pectineus, m. sartorius, m. vastus intermedius

c)

m. rectus femoris, m. vastus lateralis, m. vastus medialis, m. vastus intermedius

d)

m. biceps femoris, m. semitendinosus, m. semimembranosus, m. vastus intermedius

e)

m. quadriceps femoris, m. vastus intermedius, m. sartorius, m. pectineus

73.

Borders of the femoral (Scarpa's) triangle

a)

Inguinal ligament, sartorius muscle, long adductor muscle

b)

Sartorius muscle, external obturator muscle, long adductor muscle

c)

Rectus femoris, external obturator, long adductor muscles

d)

Long adductor muscle, femoral vein, femoral nerve

e)

Inguinal ligament, long adductor muscle, external obturator muscle

74.

Structures of the muscular lacuna

a)

Obturator muscle, inguinal nerve

b)

Femoral vein, femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

c)

Iliopsoas muscle, femoral vein

d)

External obturator muscle, femoral artery

e)

Iliopsoas muscle, femoral nerve

75.

Structures of the vascular lacuna

a)

Inguinal nerve, femoral vein, iliopsoas muscle

b)

Femoral nerve, femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

c)

Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

d)

Femoral artery, obturator nerve, femoral nerve

e)

Iliopsoas muscle

76.

Two structures forming the walls of the adductor canal

a)

Adductor magnus muscle, long adductor muscle

b)

Lateral broad muscle of the thigh, medial broad muscle of the thigh

c)

Medial broad muscle of the thigh, adductor magnus muscle

d)

Long adductor muscle, lateral broad muscle of the thigh

e)

Long and short adductor muscles

77.

Two canals opening into the popliteal fossa

a)

Femoral canal, superior muscular-peroneal canal

b)

Adductor canal, tibio-popliteal canal

c)

Tibio-foot canal, superior muscular-peroneal canal

d)

Adductor canal, superior muscular-peroneal canal

e)

Tibio-popliteal canal, inferior muscular-peroneal canal

78.

Muscles forming the walls of the popliteal fossa

a)

Quadriceps femoris, soleus muscle, semitendinosus muscle, short adductor, long adductor muscles

b)

Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, soleus muscle, plantar muscle, short and long adductor muscles

c)

Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, medial head of the gastrocnemius, lateral head of the gastrocnemius

d)

Lateral head of the gastrocnemius, intermediate head of the gastrocnemius, long adductor muscle

e)

Adductor magnus, short adductor muscle, long adductor, medial head of the gastrocnemius

79.

Muscles simultaneously extending the thigh, flexing the leg, and medially rotating it

a)

Biceps femoris, sartorius muscle

b)

Semitendinosus, semimembranosus

c)

Quadriceps femoris

d)

Sartorius muscle, long adductor muscle

e)

Adductor magnus, biceps femoris

80.

Muscles of the lateral group of the lower leg

a)

m. peroneus longus, m. extensor digitorum longus

b)

m. peroneus brevis, m. extensor digitorum longus

c)

m. tibialis posterior, m. extensor hallucis longus

d)

m. triceps surae, m. extensor hallucis longus

e)

m. peroneus longus, m. peroneus brevis

81.

Muscles forming the deep layer of the posterior group of the lower leg

a)

m. popliteus, m. peroneus longus, m. peroneus brevis, m. extensor hallucis brevis

b)

m. popliteus, m. flexor digitorum longus, m. flexor hallucis longus, m. tibialis posterior

c)

m. popliteus, m. peroneus longus, m. extensor digitorum longus

d)

m. popliteus, m. peroneus longus, m. extensor hallucis longus

e)

m. popliteus, m. extensor digitorum longus, m. extensor hallucis longus

82.

Muscles involved in foot pronation

a)

m. tibialis anterior, m. extensor digitorum longus

b)

m. tibialis posterior, m. extensor digitorum longus

c)

m. peroneus longus, m. peroneus brevis

d)

m. flexor hallucis longus, m. extensor digitorum longus

e)

m. triceps surae

83.

Muscles involved in dorsiflexion (extension) of the foot at the ankle joint

a)

m. flexor hallucis longus, m. peroneus brevis, m. tibialis anterior

b)

m. tibialis posterior, m. popliteus

c)

m. peroneus brevis, m. flexor digitorum longus

d)

m. peroneus longus, m. extensor digitorum longus, m. peroneus brevis

e)

m. tibialis anterior, m. extensor digitorum longus, m. extensor hallucis longus

84.

Muscles involved in plantar flexion of the foot

a)

Long flexors of the toes, long flexor of the big toe, posterior tibialis, long peroneus muscle

b)

Long flexors of the toes, long flexor of the big toe, short peroneus muscle, anterior tibialis

c)

Long flexors of the toes, long peroneus and anterior tibialis

d)

Short flexors of the toes, long peroneus muscle, short peroneus muscle, anterior tibialis

e)

Long flexors of the toes, short flexors of the toes, anterior tibialis

85.

Muscles forming the walls of the tibio-popliteal canal

a)

m. soleus, m. popliteus

b)

m. gastrocnemius, m. soleus

c)

m. tibialis posterior, m. soleus

d)

m. tibialis posterior, m. gastrocnemius

e)

m. triceps surae, m. flexor hallucis longus

86.

Structures forming the walls of the superior muscular-peroneal canal

a)

Anterior tibialis, fibula

b)

Fibula, long peroneus muscle

c)

Long flexor of the toes, fibula

d)

Long peroneus muscle, tibia, fibula

e)

Posterior tibialis, fibula

87.

Structures forming the walls of the inferior muscular-peroneal canal

a)

Long peroneus muscle, tibia

b)

Long flexor of the toes, tibia

c)

Fibula, long flexor of the big toe

d)

Short peroneus muscle, tibia

e)

Long extensor of the toes, fibula

88.

Functions of the latissimus dorsi muscle

a)

Abduction of the arm

b)

External rotation of the shoulder

c)

Shoulder abduction

d)

External rotation of the forearm

e)

Adduction of the shoulder, internal rotation of the shoulder

89.

Muscles contributing to increased intra-abdominal pressure

a)

Diaphragm, quadratus lumborum, rectus abdominis

b)

Iliacus, quadratus lumborum

c)

Psoas major

d)

Transverse abdominal muscle

e)

Oblique abdominal muscle

90.

Functions of the platysma (subcutaneous neck muscle)

a)

Protects deep lymphatic vessels from compression

b)

Lowers the mandible

c)

Protects subcutaneous vessels from compression, pulls the corners of the mouth downward

d)

Elevates the thoracic cage

e)

Protects deep neck vessels from compression

91.

Functions of the scalene muscles

a)

Pulls the hyoid bone downward

b)

Lowers the larynx

c)

Lowers the larynx and pharynx

d)

When bilaterally contracted, flexes the cervical spine forward; when unilaterally contracted, flexes the cervical spine to the same side and elevates the 1st and 2nd ribs

e)

Elevates the 3rd and 4th ribs

92.

Structural features and functions of the masticatory muscles

a)

Attach to the mandible, concentrated around the foramina of the skull

b)

Attach to the mandible, affect the temporomandibular joint

c)

Express external emotions

d)

Express internal emotions

e)

Concentrated around the foramina of the skull

93.

Muscles adjacent to the deltoid muscle

a)

Subscapularis muscle, infraspinatus muscle

b)

Supraspinatus muscle, pectoralis major muscle

c)

Pectoralis major and minor muscles

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, pectoralis minor muscle

e)

Subclavius muscle, pectoralis minor muscle

94.

What parts make up the short flexor of the thumb

a)

Oblique and transverse heads

b)

Superficial and deep heads

c)

Transverse head

d)

Longitudinal head

e)

Oblique and longitudinal heads

95.

Muscles responsible for elevating the mandible

a)

Biceps muscle, masseter muscle, anterior pterygoid muscle

b)

Lateral pterygoid muscle, masseter muscle

c)

Anterior pterygoid muscle

d)

Lateral pterygoid muscle

e)

Temporalis muscle, masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle

96.

Muscles responsible for lateral chewing movements

a)

Lateral and medial pterygoid muscles

b)

Medial pterygoid muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

c)

Temporalis muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

d)

Masseter muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

e)

Zygomaticus major muscle

97.

Muscles that push the mandible forward

a)

Medial pterygoid muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

b)

Masseter muscle

c)

Masseter muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

d)

Temporalis muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

e)

Medial pterygoid muscle

98.

Chewing muscles

a)

Temporalis muscle, masseter muscle, medial and lateral pterygoid muscles

b)

Temporalis muscle, masseter muscle, zygomaticus major muscle, pterygoid muscle

c)

Buccinator muscle, masseter muscle, zygomaticus major muscle, pterygoid muscle

d)

Medial and lateral pterygoid muscles, buccinator muscle

e)

Temporalis muscle, masseter muscle, zygomaticus minor muscle, pterygoid muscle

99.

Parts of the orbicularis oculi muscle

a)

Nasal part, palpebral part, maxillary part

b)

Orbital part, frontal part, lattice part

c)

Nasal part, orbital part, zygomatic part

d)

Palpebral part, orbital part, lacrimal part

e)

Palpebral part, nasal part, frontal part

100.

Mimic muscles

a)

Orbicularis oris muscle, buccinator muscle, zygomaticus major muscle

b)

Masseter muscle, zygomaticus minor muscle, pterygoid muscles

c)

Buccinator muscle, temporalis muscle, pterygoid muscles

d)

Zygomaticus major muscle, temporalis muscle, pterygoid muscles

e)

Lateral and medial pterygoid muscles, risorius muscle

101.

Features of mimic muscles

a)

Originate from the fascia of head muscles and blend into the skin, grouped around natural openings

b)

Originate from the bones of the skull, blend into the skin, grouped around natural openings, lack fascia

c)

Have fascia, expand and constrict natural openings

d)

Rich in fascia and intermuscular spaces

e)

Have fascia and synovial sheaths

102.

Muscles located above the hyoid bone

a)

Anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle, thyrohyoid muscle, geniohyoid muscle

b)

Sternothyroid muscle, thyrohyoid muscle, mylohyoid muscle

c)

Thyrohyoid muscle, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle

d)

Digastric muscle, mylohyoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, geniohyoid muscle

e)

Digastric muscle, sternothyroid muscle, thyrohyoid muscle, mylohyoid muscle

103.

Muscles located below the hyoid bone

a)

Anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle, sternothyroid muscle, omohyoid muscle

b)

Sternohyoid muscle, sternothyroid muscle, thyrohyoid muscle, omohyoid muscle

c)

Sternothyroid muscle, inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle

d)

Omohyoid muscle, inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle

e)

Sternohyoid muscle, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle

104.

Boundaries of the lateral triangle of the neck

a)

Trapezius muscle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle

b)

Omohyoid muscle, sternohyoid muscle, sternothyroid muscle

c)

Trapezius muscle, clavicle, sternocleidomastoid muscle

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle

e)

Clavicle, anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle

105.

Boundaries of the submandibular triangle

a)

Stylohyoid muscle, mylohyoid muscle, hypoglossal nerve

b)

Posterior belly of the digastric muscle, anterior belly of the digastric muscle, mandible

c)

Mylohyoid muscle, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, hypoglossal nerve

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, mandible, anterior belly of the digastric muscle

e)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle, vagus nerve, superior belly of the omohyoid muscle

106.

Structures of the submandibular triangle

a)

Vagus nerve

b)

Carotid artery

c)

Submandibular salivary gland

d)

Internal jugular vein

e)

Sublingual salivary gland

107.

Contents of the lingual (Pirogov) triangle

a)

Lingual artery

b)

Facial artery

c)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

d)

Vagus nerve

e)

Maxillary artery

108.

Structures of the carotid triangle

a)

Common carotid artery, external carotid artery, vagus nerve

b)

Vagus nerve, internal jugular vein, internal carotid artery

c)

Common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve

d)

Hypoglossal nerve, internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein

e)

Common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, phrenic nerve

109.

Fascial spaces of the neck

a)

Retrosternal space, previsceral space, retrovisceral space

b)

Blind pocket, previsceral space, synovial sheath

c)

Retrovisceral space, synovial sheath, prevertebral space

d)

Paratracheal space, prevertebral space

e)

Staircase space, paratracheal space, transvertebral space

110.

Auxiliary structures of muscles

a)

Ligaments, fibrous fibers, synovial fibers

b)

Synovial bursae, sesamoid bones, fasciae

c)

Sesamoid bones, ligaments, membranes

d)

Ventricles, fasciae, membranes

e)

Ventricles, tendons, fibrous fibers

111.

Structures entering the muscle gate

a)

Nerve, artery

b)

Vein

c)

Artery, vein

d)

Lymphatic vessels

e)

Tendon

112.

Structures exiting the muscle gate

a)

Nerve

b)

Vein, lymphatic vessels

c)

Artery, lymphatic vessels

d)

Synovial fibers

113.

Types of levers in muscle work

a)

Speed, resistance, protection

b)

Distance, forces, balance

c)

Speed, force, balance

d)

Resistance, balance, distance

e)

Resistance, protection, balance

114.

Anterior wall of the axillary cavity

a)

Serratus anterior muscle, pectoralis minor muscle

b)

Pectoralis major muscle, pectoralis minor muscle

c)

Pectoralis major muscle, biceps brachii muscle

d)

Deltoid muscle, pectoralis major muscle

e)

Biceps brachii muscle, serratus anterior muscle

115.

The paired bones of the facial skeleton include

a)

Nasal, lacrimal, temporal

b)

Maxilla, palatine, inferior nasal concha

c)

Nasal, parietal, zygomatic

d)

Palatine, ethmoid, lacrimal

e)

Sphenoid, maxilla, nasal

116.

The shoulder girdle is formed by

a)

Scapula, sternum, and clavicle

b)

Scapula and humerus

c)

Clavicle and humerus

d)

Scapula and clavicle

e)

Humerus

117.

The bones of the free part of the leg are

a)

Femur (thigh), ilium, sesamoid

b)

Femur (thigh), tibia, and fibula

c)

Pelvis, thigh, trapezoid

d)

Ischium, trapezoid, calcaneus

e)

Pelvis, sesamoid, tibia, and fibula

118.

The body of a long tubular bone is called

a)

Metaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Apophysis

e)

Supracondylar

119.

Plates of the palatine bone are

a)

Lateral and medial

b)

Transverse and frontal

c)

Sagittal and perpendicular

d)

Horizontal and medial

e)

Horizontal and perpendicular

120.

Consists of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

a)

Vertebral column

b)

Sternum

c)

Sacrum

d)

12th rib

e)

Clavicle

121.

The intertubercular sulcus is located on

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

122.

The coracoid process is located on

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

123.

The conoid tubercle is located on

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

124.

The trapezoid line is located on the bone

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

125.

The trochlear notch is located on

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

126.

The acromion is a structural part of

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

127.

The groove for the ulnar nerve is located on

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

128.

The ulnar notch is located on

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

129.

The ethmoid bone consists of

a)

Orbital plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinths

b)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinth

c)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinths

d)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, inferior nasal concha

e)

Perpendicular process, ethmoidal plate, inferior nasal concha

130.

The anatomical structure separating the ischial notches is called

a)

Ischial tuberosity

b)

Gluteal ridge

c)

Superior anterior iliac spine

d)

Ischial spine

e)

Ischial ridge

131.

As a tubular bone, the humerus consists of

a)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, body

b)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

c)

Proximal and distal metaphyses, body, diaphysis

d)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses

e)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

132.

The pterygo-palatine fossa continues downward into which canal

a)

Infraorbital canal

b)

Greater palatine canal

c)

Foramen ovale

d)

Mastoid canal

e)

Carotid canal

133.

The orbit connects to the pterygo-palatine fossa via

a)

Inferior orbital fissure

b)

Foramen rotundum

c)

Sphenopalatine foramen

d)

Superior orbital fissure

e)

Greater palatine canal

134.

The infratemporal fossa connects to the orbit via:

a)

Superior orbital fissure

b)

Inferior orbital fissure

c)

Optic canal

d)

Pterygo-maxillary fissure

e)

Tympanic-squamous fissure

135.

The paired bones of the facial skeleton include:

a)

Nasal, lacrimal, temporal

b)

Maxilla, palatine, inferior nasal concha

c)

Nasal, parietal, zygomatic

d)

Palatine, ethmoid, lacrimal

e)

Sphenoid, maxilla, nasal

136.

The shoulder girdle is formed by:

a)

Scapula, sternum, and clavicle

b)

Scapula and humerus

c)

Clavicle and humerus

d)

Scapula and clavicle

e)

Humerus

137.

The bones of the free part of the leg are:

a)

Femur (thigh), ilium, sesamoid

b)

Femur (thigh), tibia, and fibula

c)

Pelvis, thigh, trapezoid

d)

Ischium, trapezoid, calcaneus

e)

Pelvis, sesamoid, tibia, and fibula

138.

The body of a long tubular bone is called:

a)

Metaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Apophysis

e)

Supracondylar

139.

Plates of the palatine bone are:

a)

Lateral and medial

b)

Transverse and frontal

c)

Sagittal and perpendicular

d)

Horizontal and medial

e)

Horizontal and perpendicular

140.

Consists of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process:

a)

Vertebral column

b)

Sternum

c)

Sacrum

d)

12th rib

e)

Clavicle

141.

The intertubercular sulcus is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

142.

The coracoid process is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

143.

The conoid tubercle is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

144.

The trapezoid line is located on the bone:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

145.

The trochlear notch is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

146.

The acromion is a structural part of:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

147.

The groove for the ulnar nerve is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

148.

The ulnar notch is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

149.

The ethmoid bone consists of:

a)

Orbital plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinths

b)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinths

c)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, inferior nasal concha

d)

Perpendicular process, ethmoidal plate, inferior nasal concha

150.

The anatomical structure separating the ischial notches is called:

a)

Ischial tuberosity

b)

Gluteal ridge

c)

Superior anterior iliac spine

d)

Ischial spine

e)

Ischial ridge