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Cardiovascular System Questions I

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 75hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An extrasystole is:

a)

An increase in ventricular work

b)

A decrease in the AV node rhythm

c)

An increase in the AV node rhythm

d)

An increase in the SA node rhythm

e)

An unscheduled contraction of the ventricles from an ectopic excitation focus

2.

Automatism is the heart's ability to:

a)

Contract by the blood filling of the atria

b)

Contract by the blood filling of the ventricles

c)

Not be excited by external stimuli

d)

Be excited by impulses arising within the organ itself without external influences

e)

Be excited by the action of extracardiac nerves

3.

The sinoatrial node sets the heart rate (impacts per minute) equal to:

a)

40-50

b)

30-40

c)

60-80

d)

15-20

e)

90-120

4.

Which vessels create the greatest resistance to blood flow:

a)

Veins

b)

Venules

c)

Arterioles

d)

Capillaries

e)

Aorta and large arteries

5.

Irritation of the vagus nerve causes:

a)

A decrease in heart rate and a weakening of its force

b)

A decrease in heart rate and an increase in its force

c)

The rate and force of heart contractions remain unchanged

d)

An increase in the force and strength of heart contractions

e)

All answers are correct

6.

The T wave of the ECG reflects:

a)

Conduction of excitation through the bases of the ventricles

b)

Conduction of excitation through the interventricular septum

c)

Conduction of excitation through the atria

d)

Complete coverage of the ventricles by excitation

e)

Restoration (repolarization) of myocardial MP cells

7.

A characteristic feature of the pacemaker's action potential is the presence of:

a)

Slow diastolic depolarization

b)

Steep depolarization

c)

Latent (hidden)

d)

Refractory

e)

Hyperpolarization

8.

The R-R intervals on the ECG reflect:

a)

The time of one cardiac cycle

b)

The velocity of excitation conduction through the atria

c)

Myocardial cell repolarization

d)

The velocity of excitation conduction from the atria to the ventricles

e)

Ventricular electrical systole

9.

Blood enters the left atrium:

a)

Through the aorta

b)

Through the portal vein

c)

Through the pulmonary trunk

d)

Through the pulmonary veins

e)

Through the vena cava

10.

Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves causes:

a)

Unchanged heart rate and force

b)

Increased heart rate and force

c)

Decreased heart rate and force

d)

Unchanged heart rate and force remain unchanged

e)

All answers are correct

11.

The P-Q interval on an ECG reflects:

a)

Ventricular electrical systole

b)

The velocity of excitation conduction from the atria to the ventricles

c)

Myocardial cell repolarization

d)

The velocity of excitation conduction through the atria

e)

The time of one cardiac cycle

12.

Normal systolic pressure values according to the WHO (mmHg):

a)

100 - 139

b)

160 - 190

c)

60 - 89

d)

180 - 200

e)

90 - 100

13.

Under normal conditions, the leading automatic unit (pacemaker) is:

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

Sinoatrial node

c)

Branch of His

d)

Atrioventricular node

e)

Bundle of His

14.

An electrocardiogram characterizes:

a)

Excitability and conductivity

b)

Valve closure

c)

Contractility and conductivity

d)

Contractility and tonicity

e)

Tonicity and cardiac impulse

15.

The second-order automaticity center is located in:

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

Sinoatrial node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Atrioventricular node

e)

Bachmann bundle

16.

The pacemaker of the heart is:

a)

Sinoatrial node

b)

Bundle of His

c)

Atrioventricular node

d)

Purkinje fibers

e)

Right atrium

17.

The heart muscle obeys the law:

a)

All or nothing

b)

Accommodation

c)

Forces

d)

Isolated conduction

e)

Convergence

18.

Heart contractions when the vagus nerves are stimulated:

a)

Slow down

b)

Do not change

c)

The heart stops

d)

Speed up

e)

Change phasically

19.

A phonocardiogram characterizes:

a)

Sound phenomena occurring during the work of the heart

b)

Mechanical phenomena

c)

Size of the heart during the administration of a contrast agent

d)

Shift of the center of gravity of the chest

e)

Electrical phenomena

20.

The function of the valve apparatus is to:

a)

Cardiac contraction

b)

Blood movement

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Cardiac impulse

e)

Prevent backflow of blood

21.

The administration of adrenaline to the heart rate:

a)

Stops the heart

b)

Has a phasic effect

c)

Does not change

d)

Decreases

e)

Increases

22.

Pulse pressure is the difference between:

a)

Mean and diastolic pressure

b)

Systolic and capillary pressure

c)

Systolic and diastolic pressure

d)

Diastolic and tissue pressure

e)

Systolic and mean pressure

23.

What is the lowest blood pressure in:

a)

Vena cava

b)

Venules

c)

Arterioles

d)

Capillaries

e)

Arteries

24.

The lowest linear blood flow velocity in:

a)

Veins

b)

Venules

c)

Aorta

d)

Capillaries

e)

Arteries

25.

Systolic pressure is:

a)

the difference in pressure between the aorta and veins

b)

the maximum pressure during ventricular systole in the arteries

c)

the difference in pressure in the aorta and capillaries

d)

the pressure at the moment of closure semilunar valves

e)

the minimum pressure in the vessels during diastole

26.

The highest blood pressure is in:

a)

aorta

b)

veins

c)

vena cava

d)

arteries

e)

capillaries

27.

The vasomotor center includes the following sections:

a)

pressor and depressor

b)

pneumotactic and pressor

c)

tissue and depressor

d)

metabolic and pressor

e)

reflex and depressor

28.

Blood movement in the vascular system is ensured by:

a)

vascular resistance, the energy of cardiac contraction

b)

the compliance and elasticity of the vascular wall

c)

the difference in blood pressure between the atria and ventricles

d)

the arteriovenous difference in partial pressure of oxygen

e)

the energy of ventricular contraction, the pressure gradient between the proximal and distal sections of the vascular system

29.

When the tone of the depressor part of the vasomotor center decreases, blood pressure...

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

does not change

d)

becomes unstable

e)

causes persistent hypertension

30.

What is the main cause of the second heart sound...:

a)

all answers are correct

b)

ventricular contraction

c)

atrial contraction

d)

closure of the cusp valves

e)

closure of the semilunar valves

31.

The inotropic effect on cardiac activity is a change in...:

a)

contraction force

b)

heart rate

c)

myocardial conductivity

d)

all answers are correct

e)

myocardial excitability

32.

The bathmotropic effect on cardiac activity is a change in:

a)

myocardial excitability

b)

heart rate

c)

all answers are correct

d)

myocardial conductivity

e)

contraction force

33.

The dromotropic effect on Cardiac activity is a change in:

a)

myocardial conductivity

b)

heart contraction force

c)

heart excitability

d)

heart rate

e)

all answers are correct

34.

What changes in heart rate are most often observed when pressing on the eyeballs (Danini-Aschner reflex):

a)

slowing down

b)

acceleration

c)

rate does not change

d)

arrhythmia

e)

at first does not change, then increases in speed

35.

Which reflex can temporarily reduce heart rate:

a)

Danini-Aschner

b)

Bouditch

c)

Parin

d)

Anrep

e)

Starling

36.

Which of the following humoral factors stimulate the heart:

a)

adrenaline

b)

acetylcholine

c)

endothelin

d)

all answers are correct

e)

potassium ions

37.

The main arteries of the elastic type (aorta, pulmonary trunk, and large arteries branching off them) are functionally classified as:

a)

exchange vessels

b)

shunting vessels

c)

shock-absorbing vessels

d)

capacitance vessels

e)

resistance vessels

38.

The muscular arterial vessels (small arteries, arterioles, and precapillary sphincters) are functionally classified as:

a)

resistance vessels

b)

capacitive vessels

c)

exchange vessels

d)

shock-absorbing vessels

e)

shunt vessels

39.

Venules and veins, based on their functional significance, are classified as...

a)

exchange vessels

b)

shock-absorbing vessels

c)

resistance vessels

d)

shunting vessels

e)

capacitance vessels

40.

The greatest resistance in the systemic circulation is observed at the level of...

a)

medium arteries

b)

arterioles

c)

vascular anastomoses

d)

capillaries

e)

large arteries

41.

Volumetric blood flow velocity is...

a)

the volume of blood flowing in the pulmonary circulation

b)

the volume of blood flowing through the cross-section of a given section of the circulatory system or an individual vessel per unit of time

c)

the distance a portion of blood moves through a vessel per unit of time

d)

the volume of blood flowing in the systemic circulation

e)

the volume of blood in the chambers of the heart

42.

Linear blood flow velocity is...

a)

the distance a portion of blood travels in the systemic circulation

b)

the distance a portion of blood moves through a vessel per unit of time

c)

the volume of blood flowing through the cross-section of a given section of the circulatory system or an individual vessel per unit of time

d)

the distance a portion of blood moves in the pulmonary circulation

e)

the distance a portion of blood moves when ejected from the blood vessels heart

43.

How does the linear velocity of blood flow change from the aorta to the vena cava:

a)

decreases up to the capillaries, then increases

b)

remains constant at all levels

c)

increases up to the capillaries, then decreases

d)

gradually decreases at all levels of the vascular system

e)

gradually increases at all levels of the vascular system

44.

The automaticity of conduction system cells is based on the ability to:

a)

Spontaneous depolarization

b)

Rapid depolarization

c)

Repolarization

d)

Trace potentials

e)

Slow repolarization

45.

The action potential of sinoatrial node pacemaker cells is characterized by all of the following except:

a)

a mild overshoot

b)

a shallow rise

c)

the presence of a plateau during the repolarization period

d)

absence of an early rapid repolarization phase

e)

slow diastolic depolarization

46.

Systolic volume is:

a)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta or pulmonary artery in one contraction

b)

the sum of the volumes of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta and pulmonary artery in one contraction

c)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta

d)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart per unit of time

e)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart per minute

47.

Blood pressure depends on all of the following factors except:

a)

Osmotic pressure of the blood

b)

cardiac output

c)

Vascular elasticity

d)

Peripheral resistance

e)

Stroke volume

48.

Working muscles of the heart:

a)

myocardium

b)

endocardium

c)

pericardium

d)

pleura

e)

epicardium

49.

Arterial blood enters:

a)

left atrium via the pulmonary veins

b)

right atrium via the vena cava

c)

right atrium via the pulmonary arteries

d)
e)

right atrium via the inferior vena cava

50.

Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the:

a)

small intestine

b)

duodenum

c)

stomach

d)

large intestine

e)

oral cavity

51.

Loss of taste is called:

a)

anosmia

b)

ageusia

c)

analgesia

d)

anorexia

e)

ataxia

52.

The vomiting center is located in:

a)

the pons of Varli

b)

the reticular formation

c)

the medulla oblongata

d)

the midbrain

e)

the hypothalamus

53.

Salivary gland secretion upon stimulation of parasympathetic nerves:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

changes in two phases

d)

does not change

e)

decreases, then increases

54.

The salivary center is located in:

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

cerebellum

c)

spinal cord

d)

cerebral cortex

e)

midbrain

55.

Gastrointestinal motility under the influence of sympathetic nerve stimulation:

a)

increase, then decrease

b)

increase

c)

change in two phases

d)

no change

e)

decrease

56.

Chewing movements are recorded using the following methods:

a)

electromyography

b)

balloonography

c)

mastication

d)

electrogastrography

e)

gnathodynamometry

57.

What type of digestion is unique to the small intestine:

a)

remote

b)

inherent

c)

autolytic

d)

symbiotic

e)

mural (membrane)

58.

What is the reaction of pancreatic juice?

a)

slightly alkaline

b)

neutral

c)

acidic

d)

alkaline

e)

slightly acidic

59.

Emulsification of fats occurs under the influence of:

a)

amylase

b)

lipase

c)

pepsin

d)

bile acids

e)

trypsin

60.

In which part of the digestive system is gastrin produced?

a)

in the large intestine

b)

in the small intestine

c)

in the stomach

d)

in the pancreas

e)

in the oral cavity

61.

Name the main enzymes in human saliva:

a)

enterokinase

b)

protein kinase

c)

pepsin, trypsin

d)

lipase, elastase

e)

maltase, amylase

62.

How are fats broken down during digestion:

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

mono- and diglycerides and fatty acids

d)

glucose

e)

fat-soluble vitamins

63.

What is the primary function of gastrin?

a)

increases gastric juice secretion

b)

activates a pancreatic enzyme

c)

converts pepsinogen to pepsin in the stomach

d)

increases pancreatic secretion

e)

increases bile secretion

64.

A component of saliva with a bactericidal composition:

a)

maltose

b)

lysozyme

c)

kallekrein

d)

maltase

e)

amylase

65.

The component of saliva that facilitates swallowing:

a)

lysozyme

b)

mucin

c)

urea

d)

chlorides

e)

phosphates

66.

Where does the initial absorption of water and nutrients occur:

a)

in the stomach

b)

in the large intestine

c)

in the rectum

d)

in the small intestine

e)

in the oral cavity

67.

The hunger and satiety centers are located in:

a)

midbrain

b)

hypothalamus

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

medulla oblongata

e)

spinal cord

68.

Protein coagulation in the digestive tract is caused by:

a)

hydrochloric acid

b)

pepsin

c)

bile

d)

trypsin

e)

enterokinase

69.

Gastrointestinal motility under the influence of bile:

a)

change gradually

b)

no change

c)

disappear

d)

increase

e)

decrease

70.

What type of saliva is secreted when the parasympathetic nerves are stimulated:

a)

serous

b)

neutral

c)

thick, viscous

d)

alkaline

e)

acidic

71.

What are gastrointestinal hormones:

a)

norepinephrine

b)

vasopressin

c)

adrenaline

d)

oxytocin

e)

gastrin

72.

What is hydrochloric acid used for:

a)

breaks down emulsified fats and protects the gastric mucosa from damage

b)

suppresses gastric hormone secretion and creates an alkaline environment

c)

activates lipase and inhibits gastric motility

d)

activates enzymes, denatures proteins, stimulates gastrin release

e)

reduces the development of H. pylori

73.

The main humoral regulator of pancreatic secretion:

a)

HCl

b)

cholesterase

c)

secretin

d)

insulin

e)

glucagon

74.

Experimental methods for studying gastric function:

a)

"Imagination feeding" practice

b)

sialography

c)

masticationography

d)

duodenal intubation

e)

Matteucci experiment

75.

Pancreatic trypsinogen is activated:

a)

with lysozyme

b)

with pepsin

c)

with hydrochloric acid

d)

with enterokinase

e)

with chymotrypsin

76.

One of the main enzymes of gastric juice:

a)

lysozyme

b)

trypsin

c)

carboxypeptidase

d)

amylase

e)

pepsin

77.

Non-specific liver function:

a)

participation in protein metabolism

b)

detoxification

c)

participation in fat and carbohydrate metabolism

d)

bile formation

e)

synthesis of secretin, cholecystokinin

78.

Gastrocyanic acid pH:

a)

strongly alkaline

b)

neutral

c)

slightly alkaline

d)

alkaline

e)

acidic

79.

Hydrochloric acid:

a)

participates in lipotropic liver metabolism

b)

creates an optimal pH for enzyme activity

c)

neutralizes excess HCl

d)

creates a protective layer

e)

suppresses the growth of H. pylori

80.

In which part of the gastrointestinal tract does protein breakdown begin:

a)

in the small intestine

b)

in the large intestine

c)

in the stomach

d)

in the mouth

e)

in the esophagus

81.

What are the internal causes of hunger:

a)

increased blood glucose and amino acid levels

b)

decreased blood glucose and increased blood amino acid levels

c)

decreased body weight and plasma osmotic pressure

d)

increased body temperature and decreased body water

e)

decreased blood glucose and amino acid levels

82.

In which part of the gastrointestinal tract does fat breakdown begin:

a)

in the mouth

b)

in the small intestine

c)

in the stomach

d)

in the large intestine

e)

in the esophagus

83.

Breakdown by a proteolytic enzyme in pancreatic juice:

a)

proteins into peptides and amino acids

b)

carbohydrates into oligo-, di-, and monosaccharides

c)

oils into glycerol and fatty acids

d)

proteins into monosaccharides

e)

binds proteins to albumin and peptones

84.

Intestinal villus motility is enhanced by:

a)

vasointestinal peptide, enterokinase

b)

adrenaline, bile acids

c)

villi kinin, bile acids

d)

enterogastrone, glucose

e)

secretin, bile

85.

The small intestine has the following functions:

a)

absorptive, secretory, storage, motor

b)

thermoregulatory, secretory, absorptive, motor

c)

incertory, reservoir, motor, regulatory

d)

excretory, regulatory, motor, endocrine

e)

secretory, motor, absorptive, excretory

86.

The main mechanism of glucose absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is:

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

filtration

e)

electroosmosis

87.

How do the following substances affect intestinal motility:

a)

adrenaline inhibits, acetylcholine enhances

b)

adrenaline inhibits, acetylcholine has no effect

c)

adrenaline has no effect, acetylcholine inhibits

d)

adrenaline enhances, acetylcholine inhibits

e)

adrenaline has no effect, acetylcholine enhances

88.

Where are the enzymes involved in the membrane digestion process located:

a)

in the intestinal wall

b)

in the endocytic membrane

c)

in the intestinal lumen

d)

in the intestinal capillaries

e)

glycocalyx

89.

This enzyme was named by I.P. Pavlov as the "enzyme" of the enzyme:

a)

gastrin

b)

trypsin

c)

enterokinase

d)

lipase

e)

nuclease

90.

The microflora of the digestive tract in a healthy adult is most often found in:

a)

jejunum

b)

stomach

c)

large intestine

d)

duodenum

e)

ileum

91.

When does bile flow into the duodenum:

a)

with contraction of the stomach

b)

with each meal

c)

continuously

d)

depends on blood sugar levels

e)

depends on oxygen levels in the air

92.

Which bile substance has the greatest effect on lipids than others:

a)

cholesterol

b)

amino acids

c)

bilirubin

d)

phospholipids

e)

bile acids

93.

Which kidney function primarily maintains long-term blood pressure via sodium and water balance?

a)

Ammonium excretion for acid-base

b)

Renal gluconeogenesis

c)

Aldosterone-mediated Na reabsorption

d)

Renal erythropoietin secretion

e)

Glomerular filtration rate regulation

94.

Which process directly produces primary urine in the nephron?

a)

Collecting duct water reabsorption

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Passive tubular reabsorption

d)

Countercurrent multiplication

e)

Glomerular filtration

95.

Where is secondary urine collected before leaving the kidney?

a)

In the ureter

b)

In the renal tubules

c)

In the renal capsule

d)

In the bladder

e)

In the nephron

96.

Glucose appears in urine when which transport in proximal tubule is saturated?

a)

Pinocytosis across tubule cells

b)

Facilitated diffusion via GLUT2

c)

Passive paracellular diffusion

d)

Secondary active Na-glucose cotransport

e)

Primary active Na-glucose cotransport

97.

Which hormone increases sodium reabsorption from nephron tubules into blood?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Renin

c)

Insulin

d)

ADH

e)

Parathyroid hormone

98.

Erythropoietin produced by the kidneys primarily stimulates which process?

a)

Red cell production in marrow

b)

Platelet formation in marrow

c)

Neutrophil release from spleen

d)

Hemoglobin breakdown in liver

e)

Clotting factor synthesis in liver

99.

Which nephron segment creates the corticomedullary osmotic gradient most strongly?

a)

Thick ascending limb

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Bowman’s capsule

e)

Thin descending limb

100.

Which substance is used to measure glomerular filtration rate because it is freely filtered and neither reabsorbed nor secreted?

a)

Glucose

b)

Urea

c)

Inulin

d)

Bicarbonate

e)

Creatinine

101.

Non-threshold substances are those that are not reabsorbed. Which group best fits this description?

a)

Creatinine, glucose, sulfates

b)

Creatinine, inulin, phosphates

c)

Creatinine, inulin, sulfates

d)

Amino acids, inulin, water

e)

Creatinine, glucose, inulin

102.

Which statement best describes aldosterone’s mechanism in renal tubular cells?

a)

Blocks apical ENaC channels

b)

Inhibits angiotensin II effects

c)

Upregulates basolateral Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase

d)

Stimulates urea transporters broadly

e)

Activates apical aquaporins directly

103.

Which renal function helps maintain acid-base balance during acidosis?

a)

Decreased ammonium production

b)

Reduced carbonic anhydrase activity

c)

Increased bicarbonate excretion

d)

Increased H⁺ secretion with NH₄⁺

e)

Enhanced phosphate reabsorption

104.

Which of the following is not a normal function of the kidneys?

a)

Regulating osmotic pressure of plasma

b)

Biotransforming and eliminating drugs

c)

Producing vitamin D entirely

d)

Maintaining acid-base balance

e)

Excreting metabolic end products

105.

Where is the secondary capillary network of the nephron formed?

a)

In the collecting ducts

b)

In juxtaglomerular apparatus

c)

In the walls of convoluted tubules

d)

In the loop of Henle

e)

In the nephron capsule

106.

Which hormone released by juxtaglomerular cells initiates the RAAS cascade?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Somatotropin

c)

Renin

d)

Vasopressin

e)

Aldosterone

107.

Normal urine contains which level of glucose?

a)

5.55–9.9 mmol/L

b)

Absent

c)

9.9 mmol/L

d)

3.33–5.55 mmol/L

e)

2.5 or more mmol/L

108.

Which transport predominates for sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule?

a)

Endocytosis-mediated uptake

b)

Passive paracellular diffusion

c)

Secondary active coupled to solutes

d)

Primary active via Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase

e)

Simple diffusion through membrane

109.

Which renal excretory function includes synthesis and release of renin and erythropoietin into blood?

a)

Synthesis and release of key renal hormones

b)

Synthesis of proteolytic enzymes

c)

Formation of natriuretic peptide

d)

Synthesis of catecholamines

e)

Production of pulmonary surfactant

110.

Where is secondary urine formed within the kidney?

a)

In the nephron loop

b)

In the ureter

c)

In the bladder

d)

In the renal tubules

e)

In the nephron capsule

111.

Which factor directly reduces intestinal secretion and is analogous to reduced renal secretion processes?

a)

Saliva

b)

Motilin

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Pepsin

e)

Somatostatin

112.

Urine formation is based on three main processes:

a)

glomerular reabsorption and secretion, tubular filtration

b)

glomerular secretion, tubular reabsorption, and filtration

c)

glomerular secretion and filtration, tubular reabsorption

d)

glomerular reabsorption, tubular filtration, and secretion

e)

glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and secretion

113.

The kidneys' role in regulating hematopoiesis is due to their production of

a)

oxytocin

b)

angiotensin

c)

renin

d)

erythropoietin

e)

urokinase

114.

Secondary urine normally does not contain

a)

uric acid

b)

ammonia

c)

bilirubin

d)

urea

e)

water

115.

What is the normal amount of final urine produced per day?

a)

50 L

b)

180 L

c)

8 L

d)

0.2 ml

e)

1-1.5 L

116.

Which part of the urinary system provides the countercurrent mechanism?

a)

loop of Henle

b)

renal glomerulus

c)

urinary bladder

d)

renal pelvis

e)

ureter

117.

What role does the hormone aldosterone play in urine formation?

a)

water reabsorption

b)

urea reabsorption

c)

protein reabsorption

d)

glucose reabsorption

e)

sodium reabsorption

118.

Name the hormone that regulates urine output

a)

dopamine

b)

oxytocin

c)

testosterone

d)

vasopressin

e)

thyroxine

119.

The formation of terminal urine is the result of

a)

filtration, reabsorption, active transport

b)

filtration, adsorption, alteration

c)

filtration, reabsorption, tubular secretion

d)

filtration, reabsorption, pinocytosis

e)

filtration, adsorption

120.

What is the name for the presence of glucose in urine?

a)

uremia

b)

glucosuria

c)

polyuria

d)

ketonuria

e)

proteinuria

121.

The presence of red blood cells in urine is called

a)

hematuria

b)

polyuria

c)

uremia

d)

erythropenia

e)

erythrocytosis

122.

Name the male sex hormones

a)

statins

b)

liberins

c)

estrogens

d)

catecholamines

e)

androgens

123.

The placenta, as an endocrine gland, secretes

a)

human chorionic gonadotropin

b)

testosterone

c)

thyroxine

d)

corticotropin

e)

prolactin

124.

Sperm development is regulated by the direct influence of

a)

growth hormone

b)

insulin

c)

corticosterone on the seminiferous tubules

d)

testosterone

e)

oxytocin

125.

The organ of the excretory system where urine is produced

a)

liver

b)

kidneys

c)

urethra

d)

ureter

e)

bladder

126.

The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the

a)

acinus

b)

renal pyramid

c)

renal capsule

d)

nephron

e)

neuron

127.

Filtration in the kidneys is

a)

the process of urine formation

b)

the process of water and dissolved substances moving from the tubules into the collecting ducts

c)

the process of water and dissolved substances moving from the blood into the Bowman-Shumlyansky capsule

d)

the process of water and dissolved substances moving from the blood into the loop of Henle

e)

the process of water and dissolved substances moving from the tubules into the blood

128.

What does the countercurrent system of the kidneys do?

a)

the process of blood clotting

b)

concentration of urine and conservation of water for the body

c)

breaks down proteins reabsorbed from primary urine

d)

the process of hematopoiesis

e)

concentration of urine and increased water excretion from the body

129.

How many nephrons are in one kidney?

a)

several thousand

b)

several tens

c)

10 million

d)

200-300 thousand

e)

more than 1 million

130.

Normal human urine has a reaction of

a)

slightly acidic

b)

neutral

c)

acidic

d)

alkaline

e)

slightly alkaline

131.

What is synthesized in the kidneys?

a)

renin

b)

angiotensinogen

c)

hippuric acid

d)

prostaglandins

e)

water

132.

What is normal renal pressure?

a)

110-120 mmHg

b)

50-60 mmHg

c)

10-15 mmHg

d)

30-40 mmHg

e)

70-80 mmHg

133.

What substance is passively reabsorbed in the proximal nephron?

a)

amino acids

b)

water

c)

formed blood elements

d)

glucose

e)

sodium

134.

Primary urine does NOT contain

a)

water

b)

urea

c)

large proteins and blood cells

d)

amino acids

e)

blood plasma

135.

What is NOT included in the final urine composition?

a)

uric acid

b)

urea

c)

creatinine

d)

urobilin

e)

sugar

136.

How does sympathetic nerve stimulation affect renal reabsorption?

a)

stimulates

b)

inhibits

c)

does not affect

d)

inhibits

e)

decreases

137.

What is the mechanism of sodium reabsorption in the kidneys?

a)

concentration gradient

b)

transport with ATP energy expenditure

c)

pinocytosis

d)

osmotic gradient

138.

What is renal reabsorption?

a)

the process of urine formation

b)

transition of fluid from the renal tubules to the collecting ducts

c)

transition of fluid from the renal tubules to the renal glomeruli

d)

transition of water and dissolved substances from the blood into the Bowman-Shumlyansky capsule

e)

reabsorption of water and dissolved substances in the kidneys

139.

What amount of sodium entering the nephron during filtration is absorbed in the loop of Henle?

a)

up to 25%

b)

50%

c)

75–80%

d)

40%

e)

100%

140.

What is the elimination threshold?

a)

the concentration of a substance in primary urine

b)

none of the above

c)

the concentration of a substance in the blood at which it is completely reabsorbed

d)

the concentration of a substance in secondary urine

e)

the minimum concentration of a substance in the blood at which it can no longer be completely reabsorbed

141.

How are the kidneys involved in protein metabolism?

a)

In the kidneys, proteins can be converted into fats.

b)

The kidneys are protein depots.

c)

In the loop of Henle, proteins are synthesized from amino acids.

d)

In the proximal tubules, low‑molecular‑weight proteins are broken down into amino acids.

e)

The kidneys are not involved in protein metabolism.

142.

In which part of the kidney does blood pass through the capillaries for the second time?

a)

Around the collecting ducts.

b)

Around the tubules.

c)

In the glomeruli.

d)

Nephron

e)

In the loop of Henle.

143.

The proximal tubules reabsorb

a)

water, amino acids, Na, K

b)

chlorides, phosphates, glucose, Na

c)

urea, sulfates, glucose, K

d)

water, chlorides, urea

e)

glucose, amino acids, vitamins, hormones

144.

Another name for antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

a)

vasopressin

b)

oxytocin

c)

prolactin

d)

adrenaline

e)

renin

145.

Antidiuretic hormone affects

a)

carbohydrate diffusion in the renal tubules

b)

water filtration from the capillaries of the Malpighian glomerulus

c)

water reabsorption from the renal tubules

d)

NaCl reabsorption in the loop Gengle

e)

water secretion in the distal tubules

146.

A blood chemistry test revealed a patient's blood glucose level of 12 mmol/L. Should we expect sugar in his urine?

a)

yes, because glucose is always present in the final urine in small amounts

b)

no, because glucose is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubules

c)

yes, because the renal threshold for glucose (10 mmol/L) is exceeded

d)

no, because glucose does not pass through the renal filter

e)

no, because the renal threshold for glucose is not exceeded (15 mmol/L)

147.

What hormone, when insufficient, causes diabetes insipidus, or diabetes insipidus?

a)

vasopressin

b)

testosterone

c)

dopamine

d)

oxytocin

e)

thyroxine

148.

Which hormones influence the development of secondary sexual characteristics in boys?

a)

Androgens

b)

Estrogens

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Insulin

e)

Prolactin

149.

Which hormones influence the development of secondary sexual characteristics in girls?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Estrogens

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Aldosterone

e)

Insulin

150.

In addition to the testes, androgens in adult men are produced in the

a)

pituitary gland

b)

pancreas

c)

thyroid gland

d)

hypothalamus

e)

adrenal glands

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