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PROJECT MANAGEMENT CHAPTER 1 MINI MULTIPLE CHOICE 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A program is usually a group of

a)

plans

b)

people and work

c)

related projects

d)

unrelated projects

2.

Project management is a rationally planned and organised effort to achieve a specific goal.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The ____ manages the four basic elements of a project: resources, time, money, and scope.

a)

project manager

b)

team member

c)

stakeholder

d)

sponsor

4.

Project closure involves releasing the final product to the customer, handing over the project documentation, manuals, source code, and network layouts.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Project management consists of interacting processes namely ___, ___, process interactions, and ___ which are organised in groups.

a)

Quick Momentum

b)

Overlaps

c)

Project processes, process groups, customisation

d)

Project Manager

6.

“Risk” is usually _____ as the project progresses.

a)

increased

b)

reduced

c)

become negligible

d)

remained same

7.

Project management is the job of organising, coordinating, and controlling the various tasks and resources in order to successfully complete a project

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Project Human Resource Management ensures that the most appropriate manpower with necessary skills is deployed for an effective execution of the desired project

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

a)

Programs have a Smaller scope than projects

b)

Programs have a larger scope than projects

c)

The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related

d)

Projects have defined objectives

10.

10. ___ helps an organisation to prevent failures in projects.

a)

Risk management

b)

Resource allocation

c)

Market analysis

d)

Product design

11.

Scope, cost, and schedule are not some of the parameters used for project negotiation.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Project management provides the project managers and team members with the principles they do not require to effectively meet the needs of the customer.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

___ and ___ refer to the mechanism applied on the inputs to create the desired outputs

a)

Tools and techniques

b)

Project processes, process groups

c)

Process groups, customisation

d)

Project management, product oriented

14.

Project process is classified into ___ and ___ process.

a)

Process groups, customisation

b)

Tools and techniques

c)

Project management, product oriented

d)

Project processes, process groups

15.

The most important problem faced in the implementation phase of a project is delay in execution.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Select one:

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Project cycle include

a)

Initiation, Planning, Execution, Closure

b)

Design, Marketing, Sales, Support

c)

Recruitment, Training, Appraisal, Retirement

d)

Manufacturing, Distribution, Retail, Service

18.

7. Project initiation is

a)

the first phase of project management

b)

the final phase of project management

c)

a type of project closure

d)

an optional step in project planning

19.

Must induce the right people at the right time to address the right issues and make the right decisions.

a)

Effective leadership

b)

Financial planning

c)

Technical expertise

d)

Resource allocation

20.

The decision rule for net present value is to:

a)

accept all projects with positive net present values

b)

accept all projects with cash inflows exceeding initial cost

c)

reject all projects with rates of return exceeding the opportunity cost of capital

d)

reject all projects with cost of capital

21.

Net present value is the present value of the cash flows subtracted from the initial investment.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

If two projects offer the same, positive NPV, then:

a)

they also have the same IRR

b)

they have the same payback period

c)

they are mutually exclusive projects

d)

they add the same amount to the value of the firm

23.

With an NPV of zero decrease shareholders' wealth by the cost of the project.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is the NPV of a project that costs 100,000andreturns100,000 and returns 45,000 annually for three years if the opportunity cost of capital is 14%?

a)

$473.44

b)

$3,473.44

c)

$4,475

d)

$4,473.44

25.

Which of the following statements is correct for a project with a positive NPV?

a)

The discount rate exceeds the rate of return

b)

IRR exceeds the cost of capital

c)

The discount rate exceeds the cost of capital

d)

Accepting the project has an indeterminate effect on shareholders

26.

Which of the following changes will increase the NPV of a project?

a)

An increase in the initial cost of the project

b)

A decrease in the discount rate

c)

A decrease in the number of cash inflows

d)

A decrease in the size of the cash inflows

27.

Evaluate the following project using an IRR criterion, based on an opportunity cost of 10%: CF₀ = -6,000, CF₁ = +3,300, CF₂ = +3,300.

a)

Reject, since opportunity cost exceeds IRR

b)

Reject, since IRR exceeds opportunity cost

c)

Accept, since IRR exceeds opportunity cost

d)

Accept, since opportunity cost exceeds IRR

28.

If the IRR for a project is 15%, then the project's NPV would be:

a)

negative at a discount rate of 30%.

b)

negative at a discount rate of 20%

c)

negative at a discount rate of 25%.

d)

negative at a discount rate of 10%.

29.

What is the approximate IRR for a project that costs 100,000andprovidescashinflowsof100,000 and provides cash inflows of 30,000 for 6 years?

a)

29.9%

b)

19%

c)

19.9%

d)

9.9%

30.

What is the maximum that should be invested in a project at time zero if the inflows are estimated at $40,000 annually for three years, and the cost of capital is 9%?

a)

$111,251.79

b)

$101,251.79

c)

$100,251.79

d)

$101

31.

Under which of the following conditions will a future value calculated with simple interest exceed a future value calculated with compound interest at the same rate?

a)

The investment period is very short

b)

The interest rate is very high

c)

This is not possible with positive interest rates

d)

The investment period is very long

32.

Which of the following are incorrect when we calculate the cash flows of a proposed new project?

a)

Include opportunity costs, such as the value of land that you could otherwise sell

b)

If cash flows are forecast in nominal terms (including the effects of future inflation), use a real discount rate

c)

Do include debt interest or the cost of repaying a loan. When calculating NPV, do not assume that the project is financed entirely by the shareholders and that they receive all the cash flows. This separates the investment decision from the financing decision

d)

Treat inflation consistently. If cash flows are forecast in nominal terms (including the effects of future inflation), use a nominal discount rate. Discount real cash flows at a real rate

33.

What is the present value of your trust fund if it promises to pay you $50,000 on your 30th birthday (7 years from today) and earns 10% compounded annually?

a)

$25,000

b)

$30,657.91

c)

$25,657.91

d)

$55,657.91

34.

What is the amount of the operating cash flow for a firm with 500,000profitbeforetax,500,000 profit before tax, 100,000 depreciation expense, and a 35% marginal tax rate?

a)

$25,000

b)

$325,000

c)

$455,000

d)

$425,000

35.

An asset in the MACRS 5-year class life will have depreciation expense in six different years.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

If a project is expected to increase inventory by 15,000,increaseaccountspayableby15,000, increase accounts payable by 10,000, and decrease accounts receivable by $1,000, what effect does working capital have during the life of the project?

a)

Increases investment by $4,000

b)

Increases investment by $54,000

c)

Increases investment by $6,000

d)

Increases investment by $5,000

37.

When a depreciable asset is ultimately sold, the sales price is:

a)

taxable

b)

taxable if sales price exceeds book value

c)

fully taxable

d)

non-taxable

38.

The difference between an NPV break-even level of sales and an accounting break-even level of sales is:

a)

the consideration of depreciation expense

b)

the inclusion of income taxes

c)

the consideration of opportunity cost

d)

allowing the sales level to vary in response to changes in demand

39.

Which of the following is not accurate in depicting cash flows from operations?

a)

(revenues - expenses - taxes paid)

b)

(revenues - expenses)(1 - tax rate) - (depreciation)

c)

(revenues - expenses).tax rate + (depreciation)

d)

(revenues - expenses)(1 - tax rate) + (depreciation)

40.

What is the present value of the following payment stream, discounted at 8% annually: 1,000attheendofyear1,1,000 at the end of year 1, 2,000 at the end of year 2, and $3,000 at the end of year 3?

a)

$6,022.11

b)

$8,022

c)

$5,022.11

d)

$7,022.11

41.

The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System allows an increase:

a)

in total depreciation over the asset's life

b)

in real but nominal depreciation expense

c)

in real but not nominal depreciation expense

d)

in annual depreciation during earlier years

42.

The value of a proposed capital budgeting project depends upon the:

a)

incremental cash flows produced

b)

increase in total sales produced

c)

total cash flows produced

d)

accounting profits produced

43.

Your forecast shows $500,000 annually in sales for each of the next three years. If your second and third year predictions have failed to incorporate 5% expected annual inflation, how far off in total dollars is your three-year forecast?

a)

$76,250

b)

$25,500

c)

$25,000

d)

$55,000

44.

Projects that are calculated as having negative NPVs should be:

a)

rejected or abandoned

b)

discounted using lower rates

c)

depreciated over a longer time period

d)

charged less in overhead costs

45.

Capital budgeting analysis focuses on profits as opposed to cash flows.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The value of a proposed capital budgeting project depends upon the:

a)

increase in total sales produced

b)

total cash flows produced

c)

accounting profits produced

d)

incremental cash flows produced

47.

Assume your firm has an unused machine that originally cost 75,000,hasabookvalueof75,000, has a book value of 20,000, and is currently worth $25,000. Ignoring taxes, the correct opportunity cost for this machine in capital budgeting decisions is:

a)

$55,000

b)

$25,000

c)

$20,000

d)

$25,500

48.

Which of the following is not correct when we calculate the cash flows of a proposed new project?

a)

Count sunk costs

b)

Estimate the project's incremental cash flows-that is, the difference between the cash flows with the project and those without the project

c)

Include all indirect effects of the project, such as its impact on the sales of the firm's other products

d)

Discount cash flows, not profits

49.

In what manner does depreciation expense affect investment projects?

a)

It increases interest expense by the amount of the depreciation expense

b)

It reduces taxable income by the amount of the depreciation expense

c)

It reduces cash flows by the amount of the depreciation expense

d)

It increases rate expense by the amount of the depreciation expense

50.

How much interest is earned in the third year on a $1,000 deposit that earns 7% interest compounded annually?

a)

$100

b)

$85

c)

$80.14

d)

$90.14

51.

For a profitable firm in the 35% marginal tax bracket with $100,000 of annual depreciation expense, the depreciation tax shield would be:

a)

$55,000

b)

$35,500

c)

$30,000

d)

$35,000

52.

The present value of a perpetuity can be determined by:

a)

Dividing the payment by the interest rate

b)

Multiplying the payment by the number of payments to be made

c)

Multiplying the payment by the return rate

d)

Multiplying the payment by the interest rate

53.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding a company's tax bill and depreciation?

a)

Modified accelerated cost recovery system (MACRS) depreciation schedules allow more of the depreciation allowance to be taken in early years than is possible under straight-line depreciation

b)

Depreciation is a cash flow. And, because depreciation reduces taxable income, it reduces taxes

c)

Depreciation is a cash flow. it reduces taxes

d)

The tax reduction caused by depreciation is called the depreciation tax shield

54.

When is it appropriate to include sunk costs in the evaluation of a project?

a)

Include sunk costs if it improves the project's NPV

b)

Include sunk costs when they are relatively large

c)

It is never appropriate to include sunk costs

d)

Include sunk costs if they are considered to be overhead costs

55.

Which of the following methods will provide a correct analysis for capital budgeting purposes?

a)

Discounting real cash flows with real rates

b)

Discounting cash flows with real rates

c)

Discounting real cash flows with nominal rates

d)

Discounting nominal cash flows with real rates

56.

Calculate the ratio of variable-costs-to-sales for a firm with: 3,000,000accountingbreakevenrevenues,3,000,000 accounting break-even revenues, 1.2 million fixed costs, and $450,000 depreciation.

a)

25%

b)

55%

c)

40%

d)

45%

57.

A firm with 60% of sales going to variable costs, 1.5millionfixedcosts,and1.5 million fixed costs, and 500,000 depreciation would show what accounting profit with sales of $3 million? Ignore taxes.

a)

$800,000 loss

b)

$500,000 loss

c)

$200,000 loss

d)

$300,000 loss

58.

A credit card account that charges interest at the rate of 1.25% per month would have an annually compounded rate of _____ and an APR of ______.

a)

16.08%; 15.00%

b)

24.55%; 26.08%

c)

14.55%; 16.08%

d)

14%; 16%

59.

Which of the following statements regarding present and future values of streams of cash payments are incorrect?

a)

The future value of an annuity is the sum of the future value of each individual cash flow

b)

The present value of an annuity is the sum of the future value of each individual cash flow

c)

The present value of a stream of cash flows is simply the sum of the present value of each individual cash flow

d)

A level stream of cash payments that continues indefinitely is known as an annuity; one that continues for a limited number of years is called a perpetuity

60.

How long must one wait for an initial investment of $1,000 to triple in value if the investment earns 8% compounded annually?

a)

5

b)

15

c)

10

d)

25

61.

31. STEPS TO CHOOSE BUSINESS IDEA INCLUDE :

a)

Identifying market needs

b)

Ignoring customer feedback

c)

Copying competitors blindly

d)

Avoiding research

62.

32. "Present value of cash flows minus initial investments" that is:

a)

Net Present Value

b)

Internal Rate of Return

c)

Payback Period

d)

Profitability Index

63.

33. "Time until cash flows recover the initial investment of the project." that is:

a)

Payback Period

b)

Net Present Value

c)

Internal Rate of Return

d)

Profitability Index

64.

34. NCF in formular of PBP ???

a)

Net Cash Flow

b)

Net Current Fund

c)

Net Capital Fund

d)

Net Cost Factor

65.

GOOD BUSINESS IDEAS are all of the following except:

a)

A product or service that customers want

b)

A product or service that has little negative impact on your family and community's environment

c)

The knowledge and skills you have or can get

d)

A product, We can imagine or not real life

66.

Feasibility analysis is NOT the first stage in the process of project development.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The purpose of the analysis is to examine the desirability of investing in pre-investment studies.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The technical feasibility aspect of a project relates to the earning capacity of the project

a)

True

b)

False

69.

If the break-even point lies ___ anticipated demand, implying a loss on the product, and then the product may be discontinued or, may receive additional advertising and/or be re-priced to increase demand.

a)

Client

b)

Above

c)

Screening

d)

Break-even

70.

___ is a financial term to describe a business or project where the sales revenue is equal to total expenses.

a)

Break-even

b)

Screening

c)

Client

d)

Above

71.

____ builds on the work done in project initiation through the development of a project plan

a)

Project charter

b)

Project execution and control

c)

Client

d)

Project planning

72.

Five dimensions that must be managed on a project are ____, ____, cost, ____, and staff

a)

Scope, quality, schedule

b)

Project processes, process groups, schedule

c)

Scope, schedule, Project processes

d)

Project processes, process groups, customisation

73.

____ of a project should be clearly defined, measurable, and achievable.

a)

Tools

b)

Objectives

c)

Techniques

d)

Quality

74.

The project team documents its charge in the form of a ___, which is based on the project proposal and business case.

a)

Client

b)

Project execution and control

c)

Project planning

d)

Project charter

75.

The planning and scoping should be such that the project manager can assess every stage of the project and the quality of the deliverable of the project at every stage.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

In the ___ stage, of project identification the project ideas generated above are screened and a preliminary exercise is conducted to weed out the bad or unviable ideas.

a)

Client

b)

Break-even

c)

Screening

d)

Above

77.

The ___ then submits the proposal to get it investigated on its viability, evaluation and selection

a)

Project planning

b)

Project charter

c)

Project execution and control

d)

Client

78.

Good plans always do not allow for flexibility to adapt to changing circumstances.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The Strategic Management is "Project managers must respond to changes with appropriate decisions about future projects and adjustments to current projects." that is

a)

Strategic Management

b)

Operational Management

c)

Financial Management

d)

Resource Management

80.

7. Strategic Management Process include :----------- steps

a)

Five

b)

Three

c)

Seven

d)

Four

81.

Portfolio investment project management issues include the following EXCEPT:

a)

Resource allocation

b)

Risk assessment

c)

Market monopoly

d)

Performance monitoring

82.

Benefits of Project Portfolio Management issues include the following EXCEPT

a)

Improved resource allocation

b)

Enhanced project alignment with strategy

c)

Increased project failure rates

d)

Better risk management

83.

The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on a number of sub processes placed in different stages called the Work Breakdown Structure

a)

True

b)

False

84.

If all the steps of project planning are performed successfully, ____ and planning become effective and the ideal outcomes are achieved.

a)

Project planning

b)

Work Breakdown Structure

c)

Scoping

d)

Capital projects

85.

____ is a significant facet of project management.

a)

Project planning

b)

Scoping

c)

Capital projects

d)

Work Breakdown Structure

86.

Project planning involves three processes: ____ review, and ____

a)

Work Breakdown Structure, analysis

b)

Primary purpose, Identification

c)

Analysis

d)

Identification, analysis

87.

The ____ of project close out assessment is to document the best practices and lessons learned for use on future projects.

a)

Identification

b)

Primary purpose

c)

Analysis

d)

Work Breakdown Structure

88.

Subsequent to preparing ____, the team plans the project schedule and budget.

a)

Primary purpose

b)

Identification

c)

Analysis

d)

Work Breakdown Structure

89.

WBS is produced by identifying the key elements, breaking each element down into component parts and continuing to breakdown until manageable work packages have been identified

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The purpose of project planning is to identify various areas of the project work and the influencing factors, and subsequently define the boundaries of the project performance.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

___ structures are typically used in businesses that primarily sell and produce standard products and seldom conduct external projects

a)

Organisational

b)

Functional-type organisation

c)

Project-type organisational structure

d)

Matrix-type organisation

92.

All projects are basically ___, requiring huge money for completion and earning no return till their successful completion.

a)

Scoping

b)

Project planning

c)

Work Breakdown Structure

d)

Capital projects

93.

A definition of the end result or mission of the project—a product or service for the client/customer—in specific, tangible, and measurable terms

a)

Project objective or deliverable

b)

Project schedule

c)

Project budget

d)

Project team

94.

Which steps is "Creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)" in Defining the Project

a)

Project planning

b)

Project execution

c)

Project closure

d)

Project monitoring

95.

The project scope checklist includes the following elements except

a)

Budget estimation

b)

Project objectives

c)

Deliverables

d)

Stakeholder analysis

96.

Summarizes the tasks to be accomplished and who is responsible for what on the project - Lists project activities and participants - Clarifies critical interfaces between units and individuals that need coordination

a)

Responsibility Matrix

b)

Project Budget

c)

Risk Register

d)

Work Breakdown Structure

97.

____ have the principal responsibility of achieving the target goals of the firm and have the decision-making authority.

a)

Project management

b)

Line managers

c)

Full line authority

d)

Line organisation

98.

The Project Leader is the person responsible for the overall project.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

A project leader or manager is expected to be completely accountable for his team members and meeting the team’s targets.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

____ is the oldest and simplest type of organization where the line of command is fulfilled from top to bottom.

a)

Line managers

b)

Line organisation

c)

Project management

d)

Full line authority