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Management Exam Practice Questions (1-27)

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which set lists all four basic management functions in order?

a)

Controlling, organizing, influencing, planning

b)

Organizing, planning, controlling, influencing

c)

Planning, organizing, influencing, controlling

d)

Influencing, planning, organizing, controlling

2.

What does planning primarily involve for managers?

a)

Motivating staff to complete assigned tasks

b)

Choosing tasks, outlining methods, setting timing

c)

Assigning tasks to departments and teams

d)

Monitoring performance against standards

3.

Which statement best distinguishes planning from organizing?

a)

Planning sets goals; organizing structures resources

b)

Planning assigns tasks; organizing motivates teams

c)

Planning is short-term; organizing is long-term

d)

Planning handles people; organizing handles budgets

4.

What is influencing in the management context?

a)

Structuring roles and resources

b)

Guiding people’s behavior toward goals

c)

Assigning tasks across units

d)

Comparing results to standards

5.

Which description correctly captures organizing?

a)

Designing roles, relationships, resources

b)

Motivating, leading, and directing

c)

Setting objectives and action plans

d)

Auditing results and correcting gaps

6.

Under corporate social responsibility, how should managers balance goals?

a)

Consider societal and organizational goals together

b)

Ignore societal interests unless legally required

c)

Prioritize organizational goals over societal goals

d)

Focus exclusively on societal expectations

7.

What does the Davis Model of CSR encourage firms to be?

a)

Neutral systems with limited stakeholder input

b)

Open systems with public disclosure

c)

Closed systems protecting proprietary data

d)

Hierarchical systems with strict oversight

8.

Which CSR activity fits normal operations under the Davis Model?

a)

Shareholder-only communication campaigns

b)

Consumer affairs and community volunteerism

c)

Speculative political lobbying efforts

d)

Unrelated philanthropic investments abroad

9.

What is controlling in management?

a)

Structuring roles and processes

b)

Motivating employees to act

c)

Comparing performance to standards

d)

Assigning tasks to teams

10.

Which pair correctly identifies core management resources?

a)

Policies, procedures, standards, audits

b)

Capital, markets, products, services

c)

Planning, organizing, leading, controlling

d)

Human, financial, physical, informational

11.

In operations, what does efficiency mean?

a)

Meeting standards without variance

b)

Allocating tasks to specialists

c)

Producing more units per hour

d)

Using fewer resources for outputs

12.

Which statement about management principles is accurate?

a)

Principles apply only to large firms

b)

Jobs vary; principles are universal

c)

Principles differ by industry only

d)

Jobs are identical; principles vary

13.

Technical skills primarily involve what?

a)

Applying specialized knowledge

b)

Motivating and inspiring people

c)

Aligning goals with stakeholders

d)

Seeing the organization holistically

14.

Minimum CSR performance for managers requires what?

a)

Focusing only on profitability

b)

Adhering to legislated responsibilities

c)

Deferring to industry associations

d)

Voluntarily exceeding legal standards

15.

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission’s primary function is to:

a)

Enforce equal employment opportunity

b)

Regulate product safety in markets

c)

Set standards for corporate disclosure

d)

Administer environmental compliance

16.

The Consumer Product Safety Commission primarily:

a)

Oversees environmental permits

b)

Sets financial reporting standards

c)

Grants equal employment to workers

d)

Regulates product safety and health

17.

When do conceptual skills become more important than technical skills?

a)

Transitioning from public to private

b)

Shifting from staff to line positions

c)

Entering a new industry role

d)

Moving from lower to upper management

18.

Which activity is change-related for organization members?

a)

Assigning roles and defining structures

b)

Auditing results and correcting deviations

c)

Clarifying objectives and monitoring performance

d)

Providing recognition and developing confidence

19.

Which are task-related activities in management?

a)

Stakeholder town hall meetings

b)

Short-term planning and monitoring

c)

Community volunteering initiatives

d)

Employee recognition ceremonies

20.

Which term best describes stakeholders?

a)

Customers purchasing products

b)

Individuals affected by decisions

c)

Shareholders providing capital

d)

Managers setting objectives

21.

Controlling in the area of social responsibility does not entail assessments or measurements.

a)

False

b)

Often

c)

Rarely

d)

True

22.

All companies should take social responsibility measurements in the quality-of-life area and the economic function area.

a)

True

b)

Only economic

c)

Only quality-of-life

d)

False

23.

A social audit is conducted to measure the present social responsibility activities of an organization.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Historical only

d)

Future only

24.

A career is a sequence of work-related positions occupied by a person over the course of a lifetime.

a)

True

b)

Short-term roles

c)

False

d)

Only one job

25.

The exploration stage occurs at the beginning of a career and is characterized by self-analysis and the exploration of different types of available jobs.

a)

False

b)

Late-career

c)

Mid-career

d)

True

26.

Career plateauing is a period of declining performance and productivity.

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Rapid promotion

d)

Always growth

27.

The second stage in career evolution is the establishment stage, during which individuals about 25 to 45 years old start to become more productive, or higher performers.

a)

True

b)

Decline

c)

Exploration

d)

False

28.

An organization that wants to retain an employee may need to assist that employee's spouse in his or her career development as well.

a)

Illegal

b)

Never needed

c)

False

d)

True

29.

Ethical managers strive for success within the confines of sound management practices that are characterized by fairness and justice.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Profit only

d)

Rules only

30.

A code of ethics is an informal statement that organizations release to help its employees obtain a basic understanding of ethics.

a)

Only legal

b)

Only verbal

c)

False

d)

True

31.

Kant's categorical imperative proposes to act in such a way that the action taken under the circumstances could be a universal law, or rule, of behavior.

a)

True

b)

Outcome-only

c)

Utility-based

d)

False

32.

A whistle-blower is an employee who performs quality reviews within an organization and reports flaws in the processes.

a)

True

b)

Union official

c)

False

d)

External auditor

33.

The process of determining how an organization can get where it wants to go and what it will do to accomplish its objectives is ________.

a)

Influencing

b)

Organizing

c)

Controlling

d)

Planning

34.

Which of the following is the fundamental purpose of planning?

a)

Allocating resources efficiently

b)

Helping the organization reach its objectives

c)

Maintaining ethical codes

d)

Improving pay structures

35.

________ is the process of establishing orderly uses for resources within the management system.

a)

Organizing

b)

Planning

c)

Controlling

d)

Influencing

36.

________ skill is the ability to establish orderly uses for resources within the management system.

a)

Organizing

b)

Planning

c)

Controlling

d)

Influencing

37.

________ is the process of guiding the activities of organization members in appropriate directions.

a)

Organizing

b)

Controlling

c)

Influencing

d)

Planning

38.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the influencing subsystem?

a)

Policy compliance

b)

Budget reduction

c)

Employee evaluation

d)

Attainment of management objectives

39.

Ensuring that an event occurs as it was planned to occur constitutes ________.

a)

Plan

b)

Control

c)

Influence

d)

Organize

40.

________ is the systematic effort to compare performance to predetermined standards in order to determine whether performance is in line with those standards, or needs to be corrected.

a)

Planning

b)

Influencing

c)

Controlling

d)

Organizing

41.

Becky's department has seen a number of layoffs in the last two months, and employee morale is very low. This is affecting the work atmosphere and productivity is declining. In this situation, the department manager's primary task will be ________.

a)

Organizing

b)

Controlling

c)

Influencing

d)

Planning

42.

Motivating employees to perform better so that they can achieve the organization's goals is known as ________.

a)

Auditing

b)

Controlling

c)

Influencing

d)

Organizing

43.

Lebron wants to file a complaint against a fast-food restaurant because he was rejected in a job interview with the firm. Lebron believes that he was discriminated against because of race. Which of the following federal agencies should he approach?

a)

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

b)

Securities and Exchange Commission

c)

Department of Labor

d)

Federal Trade Commission

44.

Social responsiveness can be defined as ________.

a)

Routine cost control

b)

Profit maximization only

c)

Reactive legal compliance

d)

Proactive adaptation to social needs

45.

The protective purpose of planning is to ________.

a)

ensure compliance with regulations and policies

b)

align resources with strategic objectives

c)

increase the degree of organizational success

d)

reduce risk from uncertain business conditions

46.

The affirmative purpose of planning is to ________.

a)

minimize risk from business uncertainties

b)

increase the degree of organizational success

c)

widen spans of management in firms

d)

avoid unnecessary paperwork and red tape

47.

Fred is a Grade D manager in Lighthouse Infrastructure and manages a small team of eight engineers. The company has 15 Grade D managers. He worked his way up from the lowest grade, Grade E, where he was one of 52 line managers and hopes to be promoted to Grade C soon, which would make him one of the six vice-presidents in the company. However, breaking into Grade B, comprising three presidents, will be a challenge. Only the CEO and COO occupy Grade A. Which of the following numbers represents Fred's span of control?

a)

3 presidents at Grade B overall

b)

8 direct reports in his current team

c)

15 managers at Grade D in the firm

d)

6 vice-presidents at Grade C level

48.

Dorothy Woods, CEO of Arcadia Corp., is planning to widen the spans of management in the organization in order to have a flatter organization. Which of the following, if true, would support Dorothy's strategy?

a)

Arcadia Corp. centralizes decisions to increase formal controls

b)

Arcadia Corp. leads in developing customized, innovative communication technology

c)

Arcadia Corp. uses narrow spans with multiple guiding authorities

d)

Arcadia Corp. maintains strict multi-layered regulatory paperwork

49.

Trot is the CEO of a consulting firm. He plays a key role in guiding the activities of organization members in appropriate directions. This role performed by Trot can be called ________.

a)

control

b)

coordination

c)

planning

d)

influence

50.

You are speaking to one of your professors. You tell the professor that you are satisfied with the grades that you have received. In this communication situation you are a(n) ________.

a)

decoder

b)

encoder

c)

feedback

d)

channel

51.

As part of the controlling process, you have finished measuring the performance of your team. What must you do next?

a)

Compare measured performance to standards

b)

Set new organizational objectives

c)

Provide additional training to staff

d)

Collect more raw data from teams

52.

Which of the following is the best example of raw data?

a)

an interpreted customer satisfaction index

b)

a summarized monthly performance report

c)

a projection of future product demand

d)

a benchmarked KPI comparison chart

53.

The primary management function is ________.

a)

planning

b)

controlling

c)

organizing

d)

leading

54.

Alternatives to reach an organizational objective are based on assumptions which are called ________.

a)

procedures

b)

policies

c)

benchmarks

d)

premises

55.

According to Fayol's guidelines for organizing resources, you should avoid ________.

a)

regulations, red tape, and paperwork

b)

centralization of decision making

c)

excess span of control in teams

d)

multiple channels for communication

56.

According to Fayol's guidelines for organizing resources, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT ________.

a)

establish multiple guiding authorities

b)

assign authority with responsibility

c)

ensure appropriate division of labor

d)

maintain clear unity of command

57.

Which of the following is considered a primary managing activity?

a)

inventory turnover optimization

b)

product lifecycle mapping

c)

budget variance analysis

d)

building corporate culture

58.

Primary management activities such as communicating, leading, and motivating are considered ________.

a)

planning premises

b)

controlling functions

c)

organizing structures

d)

influencing processes

59.

________ and ________ have been called the "Siamese twins of management."

a)

Directing; coordinating

b)

Organizing; staffing

c)

Leading; motivating

d)

Planning; controlling

60.

Which of the following is the first step in the controlling process?

a)

measuring performance

b)

setting performance standards

c)

taking corrective action

d)

analyzing variances

61.

________ is the management function through which managers compare present performance to preestablished performance standards.

a)

Staffing

b)

Controlling

c)

Organizing

d)

Planning

62.

Gathering information that measures recent performance within the organization is part of the ________ management function.

a)

leading

b)

organizing

c)

planning

d)

controlling

63.

Managers who have successfully increased the value of the organization have fulfilled their social obligation towards ________.

a)

the degree of effectiveness and efficiency in pursuing social responsibilities

b)

regulations, red tape, and paperwork reduction goals

c)

expansion of spans across managerial hierarchies

d)

premises used to build strategic alternatives

64.

________ is defined as the process of determining how the organization will achieve its objectives, or get where it wants to go.

a)

stockholders

b)

enhances decision coordination

c)

can take up too much managerial time

d)

Planning

e)

Managing a virtual team of engineers spread across several countries.

65.

A disadvantage of planning is that it ________.

a)

enhances decision coordination

b)

can take up too much managerial time

c)

Planning

d)

Managing a virtual team of engineers spread across several countries.

e)

stockholders

66.

Which of the following is an advantage of planning?

a)

stockholders

b)

Planning

c)

enhances decision coordination

d)

can take up too much managerial time

e)

Managing a virtual team of engineers spread across several countries.

67.

According to the contingency viewpoint to designing span of management, which of the following situations would warrant a relatively wide span of control?

a)

Planning

b)

enhances decision coordination

c)

Managing a virtual team of engineers spread across several countries.

d)

stockholders

e)

can take up too much managerial time

68.

Andrew is a mid-level manager with three organizational levels above him and two below him. He has four analysts reporting directly to him. Using Graicunas's formula, calculate the total number of possible relationships between Andrew and his subordinates.

a)

timeliness

b)

appropriate

c)

The subordinates have a strong negative attitude toward the manager.

d)

44

e)

external stimuli that interfere with transmission of messages from the sender to the receiver

69.

Which of the following is the most complete and accurate description of communication barriers?

a)

external stimuli that interfere with transmission of messages from the sender to the receiver

b)

appropriate

c)

44

d)

The subordinates have a strong negative attitude toward the manager.

e)

timeliness

70.

Which of the following is an example of a macrobarrier when a manager communicates with his or her subordinates?

a)

external stimuli that interfere with transmission of messages from the sender to the receiver

b)

The subordinates have a strong negative attitude toward the manager.

c)

timeliness

d)

appropriate

e)

44

71.

The CEO of Pegasus Inc. wants to know the ROI on a recent promotional drive to develop the marketing strategy for next year. The Marketing Manager sends him a detailed report on all the personnel in his department and the salaries and bonuses paid to them over the past year. This information is likely to be useless to the Operations manager because it is not ________.

a)

Implementation

b)

appropriate

c)

subsystem

d)

recognize the unity of command

e)

timeliness

72.

Information ________ is the extent to which the receipt of information allows decisions to be made and action to be taken so the organization can gain some benefit from possessing the information.

a)

recognize the unity of command

b)

Implementation

c)

subsystem

d)

timeliness

e)

appropriate

73.

________ is the key to a successful planning process.

a)

timeliness

b)

recognize the unity of command

c)

appropriate

d)

subsystem

e)

Implementation

74.

A system created as part of the overall management system is a(n) ________.

a)

recognize the unity of command

b)

subsystem

c)

timeliness

d)

appropriate

e)

Implementation

75.

According to Fayol's guidelines for organizing resources, you should ________.

a)

appropriate

b)

timeliness

c)

Implementation

d)

recognize the unity of command

e)

subsystem

76.

Which of the following is the first step in the organizing process?

a)

standard

b)

communication abilities

c)

reflect on plans and objectives

d)

emotional intelligence

e)

measuring performance

77.

Which of the following is considered a fundamental managerial skill?

a)

communication abilities

b)

measuring performance

c)

standard

d)

emotional intelligence

e)

reflect on plans and objectives

78.

The capacity of people to recognize their own feelings and the feelings of others, to motivate themselves, and to manage their own feelings as well as the emotions in relationships with others, is called ________.

a)

emotional intelligence

b)

reflect on plans and objectives

c)

measuring performance

d)

standard

e)

communication abilities

79.

The level of activity established to serve as a model for evaluating organizational performance is a(n) ________.

a)

communication abilities

b)

standard

c)

reflect on plans and objectives

d)

emotional intelligence

e)

measuring performance

80.

Jacob, an upper-level manager, recently saw a project fail because he did not establish objectives for all important organizational areas during the initial stages. Jacob made a mistake during the ________ stage of the management process.

a)

organizing

b)

planning

81.

Seth, a manager in a growing organization, believes that creating departments leads to the formation of barriers in an organization. Not establishing departments appropriately while ________ can be a huge management mistake.

a)

organizing

b)

planning

82.

________ is defined as the management process of guiding the activities of organization members to help attain organizational objectives.

a)

Planning

b)

Controlling

c)

Influencing

d)

Organizing

83.

In which of the following stages of performing social responsibility activities does a manager lead, communicate, motivate, and work with groups to attain the organization's social responsibility objectives?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Influencing

d)

Controlling

84.

Planning is advantageous to an organization, particularly in the creation of new ventures. According to an often-cited survey, as many as 65 percent of all newly started businesses are not around to celebrate a fifth anniversary. This high failure rate seems primarily a consequence of inadequate planning. Successful businesses have an established plan, a formal statement that outlines the objectives the organization is attempting to achieve. Planning does not eliminate risk, of course, but it does help managers identify and deal with organizational problems before they cause havoc in a business. Which of the following best expresses the main point of this paragraph?

a)

Planning eliminates business risk entirely

b)

Companies that plan well appear to have a better chance at success

c)

New ventures fail mainly due to market competition

d)

Formal plans are unnecessary for small businesses

85.

The first step in the planning process is to ________.

a)

assign departmental tasks

b)

conduct market analysis

c)

state organizational objectives

d)

allocate resources effectively

86.

Which of the following is true about the height of an organization chart?

a)

Taller charts mean more decentralization

b)

Greater height increases span of management

c)

Normally, the greater the height of the organization chart, the smaller the span of management

d)

Chart height has no relation to span

87.

The organization structure at Kinetic Machines is horizontally divided into Marketing, Finance, Production, and R&D departments. Identify the departmentalization mode being used here.

a)

Functional

b)

Process

c)

Customer

d)

Geographic

88.

To minimize the negative effects of the perceptual differences of receivers on interpersonal communication, managers should ________.

a)

focus on nonverbal cues only

b)

avoid written communication

c)

try to send messages with precise meanings

d)

use more technical jargon

89.

What is the major purpose of feedback in the communication process?

a)

It replaces the need for clarity

b)

It records all messages for auditing

c)

It helps receivers avoid misunderstandings

d)

It is used by the source to ensure successful communication

90.

Immediately after Randor Leather awarded a long-term contract for supply of raw materials, its Operations Manager gets information from a vendor about a much cheaper source of raw material. This information is likely to be of little use to the business because it is not ________.

a)

timely

b)

accurate

c)

of good quality

d)

complete

91.

As part of a process of job redesigning, the HR manager of Mars LLC conducted an informal survey of employees to assess their job satisfaction levels. However, fearing negative action, few employees gave clear, unambiguous responses to the HR manager's questions. This survey is likely to be of little use to the HR manager because it is ________.

a)

not representative

b)

biased by sampling

c)

not in sufficient quantity

d)

too technical

92.

The targets toward which an open management system is directed are ________.

a)

organizational objectives

b)

departmental budgets

c)

employee appraisals

d)

market share goals

93.

The second and third steps of the organizing process focus on the ________.

a)

tasks to be performed within the management system

b)

hiring sequence for vacancies

c)

span of control

d)

budget allocations for departments

94.

Which of the following is the last step in the organizing process?

a)

Design organizational structure

b)

Define roles and responsibilities

c)

Assign authority levels

d)

Evaluate results of organizing strategy

95.

Which of the following terms best represents the capacity of people to recognize their own feelings and the feelings of others, to motivate themselves, and to manage their own feelings as well as the feelings in relationships with others?

a)

Behavioral adaptability

b)

Cognitive empathy

c)

Emotional intelligence

d)

Social aptitude

96.

Factors within an organization that are barriers to organizational goal attainment are called ________.

a)

problems

b)

risks

c)

constraints

d)

issues

97.

Roland, a firm believer in management policies, always manages his team by the book. His team members agree that he is more of a manager than a leader. This indicates that Roland should work on _______ his team.

a)

controlling processes tightly

b)

planning activities effectively

c)

organizing workflow better

d)

influencing team behaviors

e)

staffing positions wisely

98.

Gayle has not established appropriate performance standards for her team. This is a fault in the _______ function of management.

a)

controlling function

b)

organizing function

c)

leading function

d)

staffing function

e)

planning function

99.

The social responsibility measurement in the _______ area includes performing tasks like producing goods and services that people need, paying fair wages, and ensuring worker safety.

a)

legal function

b)

community function

c)

philanthropic function

d)

ethical function

e)

economic function

100.

The social responsibility measurement in the _______ area includes tasks like making an effort to preserve the natural environment.

a)

community area

b)

quality-of-life area

c)

ethical area

d)

economic area

e)

legal area

101.

What is the underlying assumption in the first alternative?

a)

Low-cost raw materials will not affect final product quality

b)

Customers are more quality conscious than price sensitive

c)

The company's relationship with current suppliers is strong

d)

Customers associate high prices with high quality and vice versa

e)

Competitors will avoid adopting high-end technology

102.

What is the underlying assumption in the second alternative?

a)

Competitors are also likely to adopt high-end technology

b)

Consumers' decisions are influenced by manufacturing process

c)

Better technology translates into higher worker productivity

d)

Upgrading costs will outweigh resulting benefits

e)

Alternate suppliers can provide raw materials cheaper

103.

The organization structure at Sinclair Funds, a financial services company, is divided horizontally into Insurance, Mutual Funds, and Wealth Management departments. Identify the departmentalization mode being used here.

a)

geographic basis

b)

customer segment

c)

product or service

d)

process stage

e)

functional area

104.

Gizmo Sales, a company that sells office supplies to companies in Atlanta, GA, has organized the business horizontally into departments named North Atlanta, South Atlanta, and Downtown Atlanta. This indicates that Gizmo has departmentalized on the basis of _______.

a)

territories

b)

functional roles

c)

customer type

d)

product lines

e)

process flow

105.

You are the manager of a legal consulting firm. Which of the following is an example of a microbarrier of communication that you are likely to come across?

a)

The firm has several international clients who speak different languages and have different cultures

b)

Employees lack access to project management software tools

c)

Client contracts require lengthy legal reviews by specialists

d)

Email servers experience periodic outages during weekdays

e)

The firm’s building has poor acoustics causing echoes

106.

Which of the following should the source do to gather nonverbal feedback?

a)

increase message frequency to avoid misinterpretations

b)

observe the destination's gestures and facial expressions

c)

send messages using detailed quantitative charts and tables

d)

request written summaries after each meeting from recipients

e)

use only audio calls to minimize visual distractions

107.

"Paralysis by analysis" is generally caused by _______.

a)

information overload

b)

poor delegation

c)

lack of training

d)

organizational politics

e)

insufficient data quality

108.

Which of the following is the first step in evaluating organizational information?

a)

summarizing findings for leadership

b)

collecting additional internal records

c)

benchmarking against external data

d)

pinpointing the data to be analyzed

e)

choosing appropriate analytic models