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Surgery – Chapter 17 MS (Worksheet Extraction)

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Perioperative nurses provide care before surgery, during surgery, and after surgery.

a)

Before surgery

b)

During surgery

c)

After surgery

d)

Only in intensive care

2.

Which task is included among the responsibilities of perioperative nurses?

a)

Admit surgical patients

b)

Perform initial assessments and prepare patients for surgery

c)

Coordinate and assist in the procedures

d)

Provide immediate postoperative care

e)

Manage hospital finances

3.

Which location is listed as a setting where surgical procedures are performed?

a)

Physicians’ offices

b)

Home health agencies

c)

School health rooms

d)

Mobile health vans

4.

Which term describes surgery performed to relieve symptoms without curing the disease?

a)

Palliative surgery

b)

Diagnostic surgery

c)

Ablative surgery

d)

Cosmetic surgery

5.

Which term refers to surgery that removes diseased tissue or body parts?

a)

Ablative surgery

b)

Reconstructive or restorative surgery

c)

Procurement for transplant

d)

Cosmetic surgery

6.

Which purpose of surgery aims to improve appearance?

a)

Cosmetic surgery

b)

Diagnostic surgery

c)

Palliative surgery

d)

Constructive surgery

7.

Which term identifies surgery conducted to obtain tissue or organs for another patient?

a)

Procurement for transplant

b)

Diagnostic surgery

c)

Reconstructive or restorative surgery

d)

Ablative surgery

8.

Which item from the list is a stated purpose of surgery?

a)

Constructive surgery

b)

Preventive surgery

c)

Exploratory laparotomy

d)

Emergency trauma care

9.

Which variables from the diagram are identified as affecting surgical outcomes?

a)

Age

b)

Drugs

c)

Habits

d)

Weather patterns

10.

Which variables from the diagram affect surgical outcomes?

a)

Nutritional status

b)

Fluid and electrolyte balance

c)

Medical diagnoses

d)

Favorite music

11.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with ginseng use in patients undergoing surgery?

a)

Has risk of cardiac effects

b)

Causes immune suppression and liver inflammation

c)

May increase bleeding

d)

Has potential liver toxicity

12.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with echinacea?

a)

Can cause immune suppression and liver inflammation

b)

Has sedative effects and can cause risk of bleeding especially if taken with aspirin and ginkgo

c)

Can cause blood pressure changes and risk of prolonged bleeding

d)

Has potential liver toxicity and increases risk of additive effect to medications

13.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with garlic?

a)

Can cause blood pressure changes and risk of prolonged bleeding

b)

May increase bleeding

c)

Has risk of cardiac effects

d)

Can cause sedation and blood pressure changes with interaction risks

14.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with ginger?

a)

Has sedative effects and can cause risk of bleeding especially if taken with aspirin and ginkgo

b)

Has risk of cardiac effects

c)

Can cause immune suppression and liver inflammation

d)

Has potential liver toxicity and increases risk of additive effect to medications

15.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with ginkgo?

a)

May increase bleeding

b)

Has sedative effects

c)

Has risk of cardiac effects

d)

Can cause immune suppression

16.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with kava?

a)

Has potential liver toxicity and increases risk of additive effect to medications

b)

Has risk of cardiac effects

c)

Can cause immune suppression and liver inflammation

d)

May increase bleeding

17.

Which effect listed in the table is associated with St. John’s wort?

a)

Can cause sedation, blood pressure changes, and has risk of interaction with other medications that prolong effects of anesthesia

b)

Has risk of cardiac effects

c)

May increase bleeding

d)

Has potential liver toxicity

18.

Preoperative assessment — Health history. Identifying data include recording identifying information such as the patient's age and marital status. Which item is part of identifying data?

a)

Patient's age

b)

Laboratory values

c)

Anesthesia plan

d)

Insurance claim number

19.

Preoperative assessment — Health history. History of present illness requires describing the problem that is being treated surgically. Which statement best reflects this instruction?

a)

Explain the surgical problem being addressed

b)

List prior hospital admissions

c)

Summarize family medical history

d)

Document postoperative care needs

20.

Preoperative assessment — Health history. Record chronic health problems. Which of the following are examples of chronic conditions that must be recorded? Select all that apply.

a)

Diabetes

b)

Heart failure

c)

Pulmonary disease

d)

Kidney disease

21.

Preoperative assessment — Health history. Document allergies. Which allergy types should be specifically documented? Select all that apply.

a)

Food

b)

Drug

c)

Tape

d)

Chemical

22.

Preoperative assessment — Review of systems. Collect data about each body system and note abnormalities, disabilities, or limitations. Which problems must be documented if they may be significant during the surgical experience? Select all that apply.

a)

Vision or hearing loss

b)

Partial paralysis or joint stiffness

c)

Weakness

d)

Cognitive impairment

23.

Preoperative assessment — Functional assessment. Which activities are included in the functional assessment? Select all that apply.

a)

Describe usual activity pattern including occupation, roles, and responsibilities

b)

Determine usual diet and fluid intake and use of tobacco and alcohol

c)

Note exercise and rest patterns

d)

Ask about sources of stress and support and usual ways of coping

24.

Preoperative assessment — Physical examination. Which elements are included in the physical examination? Select all that apply.

a)

Height and weight

b)

Vital signs

c)

Skin

d)

Thorax

e)

Abdomen

25.

Interventions — Anxiety. The nurse should determine the presence and level of anxiety, contributing factors, and need for intervention. What is the appropriate initial action?

a)

Assess anxiety level and contributing factors

b)

Administer sedatives immediately

c)

Delay all procedures until surgery

d)

Provide discharge instructions

26.

Interventions — Deficient knowledge. Patient teaching may occur in the physician’s office, clinic, during preadmission workup, or after hospital admission. In which settings or times can preoperative teaching take place? Select all that apply.

a)

Physician’s office

b)

Clinic

c)

During preadmission workup

d)

After hospital admission

27.

Interventions — Teaching methods. Which teaching methods are identified for preoperative patients? Select all that apply.

a)

Direct teaching by the nurse used most often

b)

Hospital classes for all preoperative patients

c)

Books and pamphlets

d)

Audiotapes and videotapes

28.

Interventions — Preparation for surgery. When does preparation for surgery typically start?

a)

Before or shortly after admission

b)

Only on the day of surgery

c)

After discharge from hospital

d)

Only after informed consent is signed

29.

Interventions — Informed consent. Which statements describe informed consent for surgery? Select all that apply.

a)

Patient is informed and agrees to procedure, alternative treatments, and risks

b)

Written consent protects from unwanted procedures

c)

Consent protects the health care facility and caregivers

d)

Patient must be fully alert and aware of the content when signing

30.

Interventions — Preparation of the digestive tract. This intervention depends on the type of anesthesia and surgery. Which purposes of digestive tract preparation are stated? Select all that apply.

a)

Reduces risk of contamination from fecal matter during the operation

b)

Helps prevent postoperative distention until normal bowel function returns

c)

Avoids constipation and straining in the postoperative period

d)

Improves appetite immediately after anesthesia

31.

Interventions — Preparation of the digestive tract. On what does the need for digestive tract preparation depend?

a)

Type of anesthesia and surgery

b)

Patient’s insurance coverage

c)

Length of hospital stay

d)

Availability of postoperative classes

32.

Interventions — Food and fluid restriction: Nothing by mouth (nil per os, NPO) is required from midnight before the scheduled surgery. Which instruction best reflects this guideline?

a)

Do not take anything by mouth from midnight before the scheduled surgery

b)

Only clear liquids are permitted until 2 hours before surgery

c)

Solid food is allowed until midnight but fluids are unrestricted

d)

A small snack is permitted at 5 a.m. on the day of surgery

33.

Interventions — Food and fluid restriction: If a patient routinely takes an oral medication that is considered essential, how should it be managed on the morning of surgery?

a)

Withhold all medications until after surgery

b)

It may be ordered early with a few sips of water or given parenterally

c)

Take it with a light breakfast

d)

Double the dose the night before surgery

34.

Interventions — Skin preparation to reduce the number of organisms near the incision site includes which action?

a)

Scrubbing and removing hair from a wide margin around the planned surgical site

b)

Applying body oil to the operative area

c)

Avoiding any washing the day before surgery

d)

Using talc powder to dry the skin

35.

Interventions — Skin preparation: When is the operative site scrubbed by the perioperative nurse or operating room technician?

a)

Shortly before surgery

b)

After the incision is made

c)

Exactly 24 hours prior to surgery

d)

During induction of anesthesia

36.

Interventions — Dress and grooming: Which instruction is appropriate regarding clothing and personal items before surgery?

a)

Provide a clean gown and remove all undergarments unless agency policy dictates otherwise

b)

Keep all jewelry on for identification purposes

c)

Leave hairpins or clips in place

d)

Nail polish may remain if it is clear

37.

Interventions — Dress and grooming: How should long hair be managed before surgery?

a)

Braid or secure long hair with a rubber band

b)

Shave the head completely

c)

Leave hair loose for comfort

d)

Dye the hair with antiseptic solution

38.

Interventions — Prostheses: Why are prostheses usually removed, marked, and secured before surgery?

a)

To prevent loss or damage and to avoid injury during anesthesia

b)

To improve cosmetic appearance during transport

c)

To facilitate early ambulation in the recovery room

d)

To reduce postoperative pain immediately after surgery

39.

Interventions — Preoperative medications: When are these medications often ordered to be given?

a)

Shortly before transport to surgery or when the patient is in a holding area

b)

Two days before surgery during preadmission testing

c)

Immediately after transfer to the operating table

d)

Only after the consent form is signed

40.

Interventions — Preoperative medications: Which combination reflects typical preoperative medication goals?

a)

Opioid to decrease anxiety and promote sedation, antiemetic to control nausea and vomiting, anticholinergic to decrease secretions

b)

Antibiotic to reduce pain, diuretic to reduce fluids, beta-blocker to increase secretions

c)

Vitamin C to improve immunity, laxative to empty bowels, antihistamine to increase secretions

d)

Corticosteroid to induce anesthesia, expectorant to thin secretions, antipyretic to raise temperature

41.

Interventions — Preoperative medications: After preoperative medication is given, what safety measures should be taken?

a)

Raise side rails, place the call bell within reach, and instruct the patient to remain in bed

b)

Encourage ambulation to prevent stiffness

c)

Provide a full meal tray to prevent nausea

d)

Lower side rails to reduce restraint

42.

From the table of perioperative medications, which drug class is used to prevent bradycardia and reduce pulmonary secretions during surgery?

a)

Benzodiazepine

b)

Anticholinergic

c)

Opioids

d)

Sedative

43.

According to the perioperative medications table, what is the primary perioperative use of opioids such as morphine and fentanyl?

a)

Decrease anxiety

b)

Decrease pain

c)

Maintain general anesthesia

d)

Facilitate intubation

44.

Which example listed under benzodiazepine in the perioperative medications table is used to decrease anxiety and promote amnesia?

a)

Midazolam (Versed)

b)

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)

c)

Atropine

d)

Pancuronium (Pavulon)

45.

In the perioperative medications table, which agent is identified to relax skeletal muscle to prevent movement during surgery and facilitate intubation?

a)

Morphine

b)

Propofol

c)

Pancuronium (Pavulon)

d)

Etomidate (Amidate)

46.

Which medication in the perioperative table is associated with maintaining general anesthesia?

a)

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)

b)

Ketamine (Ketalar)

c)

Midazolam (Versed)

d)

Atropine

47.

From the perioperative medications table, which statement best matches the perioperative use of benzodiazepines?

a)

Decrease pain and cause immobility

b)

Decrease anxiety and promote amnesia

c)

Induce anesthesia and maintain anesthesia

d)

Prevent bradycardia and reduce pulmonary secretions

48.

In the second perioperative medications table, which hypnotic is listed to induce anesthesia?

a)

Propofol (Diprivan)

b)

Ketamine (Ketalar)

c)

Etomidate (Amidate)

d)

Midazolam (Versed)

49.

According to the second table, which medication is categorized as an intravenous anesthetic with uses of sedation, control pain, cause amnesia, and immobility?

a)

Ketamine (Ketalar)

b)

Pancuronium (Pavulon)

c)

Atropine

d)

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)

50.

In the second perioperative medications table, which sedative-hypnotic is used to induce anesthesia and maintain anesthesia?

a)

Etomidate (Amidate)

b)

Propofol (Diprivan)

c)

Morphine

d)

Fentanyl

51.

From the preoperative checklist interventions, which action must be completed before the patient leaves the unit?

a)

Insert a central venous catheter

b)

Complete and sign the preoperative checklist

c)

Administer postoperative antibiotics

d)

Apply sequential compression devices

52.

Based on the preoperative checklist interventions, which set of items must be verified with the chart and patient before transfer?

a)

Radiology reports present; jewelry, prostheses, and nail polish removed; patient voided; premedication given; vital signs recorded; consent form signed

b)

Only laboratory reports present; patient kept NPO; side rails up

c)

Antibiotics administered; surgical site marked; pain score documented

d)

Blood products available; ICU bed assigned; family notified

53.

From the illustrated pre op checklist, which identification item is explicitly listed as part of the day-of-surgery preparation?

a)

Insurance card

b)

ID Band

c)

Social Security card

d)

Driver’s license

54.

According to the illustrated pre op checklist, which patient preparation item is included regarding diet and bowel status?

a)

Encourage high-fiber breakfast

b)

NPO – Bowel Prep

c)

Administer carbohydrate drink

d)

No restrictions on eating

55.

From the illustrated pre op checklist, which statement reflects the required documentation before transfer?

a)

Verbal consent obtained at the bedside

b)

Preoperative education postponed until after transfer

c)

Informed consent signed

d)

All medications held without charting

56.

According to the illustrated pre op checklist, which item addresses removal of cosmetics before surgery?

a)

Makeup and nail polish removed

b)

Hair washed and styled

c)

Perfume applied

d)

Sunscreen applied

57.

From the illustrated pre op checklist, which action regarding valuables is included?

a)

Valuables kept with patient at all times

b)

Documentation/checklist of valuables

c)

All valuables handed to surgeon

d)

Valuables stored without record

58.

According to the Preoperative Checklist, during Time Out the team must verbally agree after performing the Time Out. Which verification is explicitly listed as part of Time Out?

a)

Correct patient identity

b)

Insurance pre-authorization

c)

Patient fasting status

d)

Availability of volunteers

59.

During Time Out on the Preoperative Checklist, which verification confirms the location for the procedure?

a)

Correct site and side

b)

Room temperature within range

c)

Preoperative lab turnaround noted

d)

Visitor policy posted

60.

Which Time Out verification relates to imaging or testing according to the Preoperative Checklist?

a)

Diagnostic study confirmation of site and side

b)

Nurse staffing ratios for the shift

c)

Blood bank operating hours

d)

Cafeteria menu availability

61.

Regarding equipment on the Preoperative Checklist, what does the Time Out section require the team to verify?

a)

Availability of implants

b)

Availability of special equipment

c)

Both are listed

d)

Neither is listed

62.

In the Fire Risk Assessment on the Preoperative Checklist, which item is listed as an ignition source?

a)

Cautery, laser, fiberoptic light source

b)

Wet drapes

c)

Patient identification armband

d)

Sterile gloves

63.

According to the Fire Risk Assessment on the Preoperative Checklist, what action is indicated when the score is 3?

a)

Initiate routine protocol

b)

Initiate high risk fire protocol (see side 2 for specifics)

c)

Cancel the procedure

d)

Notify nonclinical services

64.

In Component #2 Site Marking on the Preoperative Checklist, after verification is completed, what word is the patient instructed to write with a permanent marker on or as near the site as possible if able?

a)

Yes

b)

Correct

c)

Operate

d)

Mark

65.

Within Component #1 Verification Process on the Preoperative Checklist, if site marking is required, what does the form instruct?

a)

Go to component 2

b)

Skip to Fire Risk Assessment

c)

Sign discharge paperwork

d)

Call scheduling

66.

How many Time Outs can be documented on the Preoperative Checklist with time and initials fields?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

67.

In the Fire Risk Assessment on the Preoperative Checklist, which anatomical reference is used to assess procedure site location?

a)

Xiphoid

b)

Patella

c)

Scapula

d)

Malleolus

68.

Which example of an open oxygen source is explicitly listed in the Fire Risk Assessment on the Preoperative Checklist?

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Endotracheal tube with closed circuit

c)

Oxygen concentrator in storage

d)

Pulse oximeter sensor

69.

In Component #1 Verification Process on the Preoperative Checklist, what must be verbalized by the patient or decision maker?

a)

Planned procedure

b)

Insurance policy number

c)

Preferred meal choice

d)

Visitor hours

70.

According to Component #1 Verification Process on the Preoperative Checklist, which item confirms the planned procedure?

a)

Schedule

b)

Cafeteria roster

c)

Parking permit

d)

Facility directory map

71.

Which document is listed as confirming the planned procedure in Component #1 Verification Process on the Preoperative Checklist?

a)

Consent

b)

Community newsletter

c)

Gift shop receipt

d)

Building map

72.

In a hand off using SBAR, which component focuses on describing the patient’s current condition.

a)

Situation

b)

Background

c)

Assessment

d)

Recommendation

73.

In a hand off using SBAR, which component presents proposed actions for care.

a)

Situation

b)

Background

c)

Assessment

d)

Recommendation

74.

The images depict the perioperative period identified by the title shown.

a)

Preoperative phase

b)

Intraoperative phase

c)

Postoperative phase

d)

Recovery room phase

75.

According to the Universal Protocol Time-Out principles, who usually marks the procedure site and where.

a)

The surgeon in the preoperative area

b)

The circulating nurse in the operating room

c)

The anesthesia care provider in the PACU

d)

A resident on the hospital ward

76.

During the operating room time-out described, which actions are required before an incision is made.

a)

Involve active members of the procedure team

b)

Confirm the patient identity, site, and procedure

c)

Start the procedure even if questions remain

d)

Document the time-out

77.

Which role listed is the team member who circulates.

a)

Registered nurse who circulates

b)

Registered nurse first assistant

c)

Surgical technician who scrubs

d)

Anesthesia care provider

78.

Which roles shown are included in the surgical team list on the slide.

a)

Surgeon

b)

Assistant surgeon

c)

Pharmacist

d)

Other specialized technical personnel

79.

Which preoperative nursing responsibility is explicitly stated on the diagram.

a)

Record vital signs prior to transfer

b)

Leave jewelry and valuables in place

c)

Apply nail polish and makeup

d)

Keep dentures, eyeglasses, and hearing aids without assessment

80.

Which items are included in the preoperative routines discussed immediately prior to transport to the operating room.

a)

Explain and review the informed consent form

b)

Review physical preparation such as skin, bowels, and NPO status

c)

Discuss what to expect in the operating room

d)

Administer postoperative antibiotics

81.

During regional anesthesia, which nursing consideration is emphasized on the diagram.

a)

Monitor return of sensation

b)

Encourage deeper general anesthesia

c)

Promote respiratory depression

d)

Increase blood pressure proactively

82.

Under general anesthesia nursing concerns on the diagram, which risk is highlighted.

a)

Respiratory depression requiring patent airway management

b)

Elevated urinary output as the only issue

c)

Hypertension prevention without hydration

d)

Immediate ambulation after induction

83.

According to the Local Anesthesia section, which drug is listed as a local anesthetic agent used to alter sensation for procedures performed painlessly and safely?

a)

lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine)

b)

thiopental sodium (Pentothal)

c)

isoflurane (Forane)

d)

ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar)

84.

In the Local Anesthesia section, how may local anesthetics be administered? Select all that apply.

a)

topically

b)

by local infiltration

c)

by nerve‑blocking techniques

d)

by intravenous infusion

85.

Local anesthetics are often the agents of choice for which patients because of other medical conditions?

a)

older adult patients

b)

pediatric patients

c)

pregnant patients

d)

elite athletes

86.

Which procedures in the Local Anesthesia section are commonly done when general anesthesia is not needed or desired? Select all that apply.

a)

dental procedures

b)

eye surgery

c)

repair of lacerations

d)

open‑heart surgery

87.

Regional anesthesia is achieved using local anesthetics that block the conduction of nerve impulses in a specific area. What effect does regional anesthesia have on patient consciousness?

a)

It does not cause the patient to lose consciousness.

b)

It causes deep unconsciousness similar to coma.

c)

It produces brief loss of memory without sensory changes.

d)

It guarantees complete paralysis of all muscles.

88.

Which description best defines a nerve block in the Regional Anesthesia section?

a)

Injection of an anesthetic agent around a nerve to block the transmission of impulses

b)

Application of anesthetic cream on the skin surface

c)

Continuous inhalation of anesthetic gases through a mask

d)

Electrical stimulation of a nerve to reduce pain

89.

Which options are examples of regional nerve blocks listed in the Regional Anesthesia section? Select all that apply.

a)

epidural anesthesia

b)

subarachnoid anesthesia

c)

inhalational anesthesia

d)

topical anesthesia

90.

What complication of spinal anesthesia is explicitly identified in the Regional Anesthesia section?

a)

post spinal headache

b)

malignant hyperthermia

c)

laryngospasm

d)

urinary retention

91.

Which interventions are listed as management strategies for post spinal headache? Select all that apply.

a)

keeping the patient flat

b)

"blood patch"

c)

offer fluids postoperatively if not contraindicated

d)

encourage immediate ambulation

92.

General anesthesia acts on the central nervous system. Which effects are listed in the General Anesthesia section? Select all that apply.

a)

loss of consciousness

b)

loss of sensation

c)

loss of reflexes, pain perception, and memory

d)

marked bradycardia as the primary intended effect

93.

According to the General Anesthesia section, which routes are used to administer general anesthesia?

a)

inhalation

b)

intravenous infusion

c)

intramuscular injection

d)

topical application

94.

Which of the following are listed inhalation agents in the Inhalation Agents section? Select all that apply.

a)

isoflurane (Forane)

b)

sevoflurane (Ultane)

c)

nitrous oxide

d)

propofol (Diprivan)

95.

Identify the device depicted securing the airway in the diagram accompanying the Inhalation Agents section.

a)

endotracheal tube

b)

nasogastric tube

c)

urinary catheter

d)

central venous catheter

96.

Which agents listed in the Intravenous Agents section are intravenous anesthetics or adjuncts? Select all that apply.

a)

thiopental sodium (Pentothal)

b)

propofol (Diprivan)

c)

midazolam (Versed)

d)

isoflurane (Forane)

97.

Which opioid analgesics appear in the Intravenous Agents section list of IV agents?

a)

fentanyl (Duragesic) and sufentanil (Sufenta)

b)

nitrous oxide and desflurane (Suprane)

c)

lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) and tetracaine (Pontocaine)

d)

ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar) and etomidate (Amidate)