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NUR221 Pathophysiology Exam #2

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which finding is most characteristic of a macule?

a)

Elevated, firm lesion

b)

Flat, circumscribed discoloration

c)

Fluid-filled blister. Thickened, rough patch

2.

Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for suspected fungal infection?

a)

Blood culture

b)

Skin biopsy

c)

Skin scraping with microscopy

d)

Patch testing

3.

A patient with intense pruritus from an allergic reaction is experiencing symptoms due to:

a)

Bradykinin release

b)

Histamine release

c)

Serotonin release

d)

Prostaglandin release

4.

Which intervention is most important for preventing secondary infection in pruritic skin disorders?

a)

Applying warm compresses

b)

Encouraging frequent scratching

c)

Keeping nails short

d)

Using scented lotions

5.

Contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy is classified as:

a)

Type I hypersensitivity

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

c)

Type III hypersensitivity

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

6.

Which finding is most consistent with urticaria?

a)

Silvery plaques

b)

Painful bullae

c)

Wheals with intense itching

d)

Thickened, leathery skin

7.

A serious complication of urticaria is:

a)

Joint deformity

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Skin atrophy

d)

Nail pitting

8.

Atopic dermatitis in infants typically presents as:

a)

Dry, scaly patches on flexor surfaces

b)

Moist, red vesicular lesions on cheeks

c)

Thickened plaques on elbows

d)

Painful mucosal erosions

9.

Elevated IgE and eosinophils are associated with:

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Atopic dermatitis

c)

Scleroderma

d)

Pemphigus

10.

Psoriasis is primarily caused by:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Autoantibodies against desmosomes

c)

T-cell–mediated keratinocyte proliferation

d)

Collagen overproduction

11.

A hallmark sign of psoriasis is:

a)

Honey-colored crusts

b)

Silvery scales on erythematous plaques

c)

Painful bullae

d)

Burrows in finger webs

12.

Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:

a)

Thickened, tight skin

b)

Painful mucocutaneous blisters

c)

Wheals and itching

d)

Ring-shaped lesions

13.

The primary treatment for pemphigus is:

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Systemic glucocorticoids

c)

Antivirals

d)

Phototherapy

14.

Scleroderma is caused by:

a)

Keratinocyte hyperproliferation

b)

Autoantibodies against epidermal cells

c)

Excess collagen deposition

d)

Viral infection

15.

A classic finding in scleroderma is:

a)

Raynaud phenomenon

b)

Honey-colored crusts

c)

Vesicles with clear fluid

d)

Thick silvery plaques

16.

Dupuytren’s contracture involves:

a)

Autoimmune blistering

b)

Palmar fascia fibrosis

c)

Collagen vascular disease

d)

Fungal infection

17.

Impetigo is mainly caused by:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Candida albicans

18.

A patient with impetigo is at risk for:

a)

Autoinoculation

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Bone necrosis

d)

Raynaud phenomenon

19.

Necrotizing fasciitis is most often caused by:

a)

Group A streptococcus

b)

Candida

c)

HPV

d)

HSV-1

20.

A hallmark sign of necrotizing fasciitis is:

a)

Slow-growing plaques

b)

Rapid tissue destruction with systemic toxicity

c)

Thickened nails

d)

Painless nodules

21.

Scabies are caused by:

a)

A virus

b)

A fungus

c)

A mite

d)

A bacterium

22.

A classic sign of scabies is:

a)

Burrows in finger webs

b)

Silvery plaques

c)

Painful bullae

d)

Purple nodules

23.

Actinic keratosis is considered:

a)

Benign

b)

Premalignant

c)

Malignant

d)

Infectious

24.

The ABCDE rule is used to evaluate:

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Melanoma

c)

Impetigo

d)

Scleroderma

25.

Kaposi’s sarcoma is most common in:

a)

Children

b)

Immunocompromised patients

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Athletes

26.

Which fracture type involves bone protrusion through the skin?

a)

Closed

b)

Compression

c)

Open

d)

Incomplete

27.

What is the first phase of fracture healing?

a)

Bony callus

b)

Remodeling

c)

Fibrocartilaginous procallus

d)

Hematoma formation

28.

A patient reports severe pain, swelling, and numbness after a fracture. Which complication is suspected?

a)

Nonunion

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Compartment syndrome

d)

Fat embolism

29.

Which condition results from vitamin D deficiency in adults?

a)

Rickets

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Paget’s disease

30.

Which therapy is first-line for osteoporosis management?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Bisphosphonates

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Opioids

31.

Loss of joint articulation defines:

a)

Sprain

b)

Subluxation

c)

Dislocation

d)

Strain

32.

RICE therapy is most appropriate for which injury?

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Sprain

c)

Paget’s disease

d)

Osteoporosis

33.

Abnormal bone remodeling with bone enlargement is characteristic of:

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Rickets

c)

Paget’s disease

d)

Osteomalacia

34.

Which test best evaluates muscle electrical activity?

a)

MRI

b)

EMG

c)

Radiography

d)

Bone scan

35.

Which spinal curvature involves exaggerated thoracic rounding?

a)

Lordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Spondylosis

36.

A complete fracture is defined as:

a)

A partial break

b)

Bone crushed into fragments

c)

Bone separated into two pieces

d)

Bone protruding through skin

37.

A compound fracture is also known as:

a)

Closed fracture

b)

Open fracture

c)

Compression fracture

d)

Comminuted fracture

38.

A comminuted fracture involves:

a)

Bone crushed

b)

Bone broken into multiple fragments

c)

Bone bent but not broken

d)

Bone is displaced but intact

39.

Which of the following is a function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Hormone production

b)

Oxygen transport

c)

Vitamin D synthesis

d)

Bile secretion

40.

What is the primary role of the lymphatic system?

a)

Produce red blood cells

b)

Filter pathogens and return interstitial fluid

c)

Regulate blood pressure

d)

Store calcium

41.

Which vessel type has the thickest tunica media?

a)

Veins

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arteries

d)

Venules

42.

What mechanism assists venous return to the heart?

a)

Arterial recoil

b)

Skeletal muscle pump

c)

Capillary filtration

d)

Aortic pressure

43.

Which lab test monitors the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

a)

PT

b)

INR

c)

aPTT

d)

Bleeding time

44.

What is the final step in the coagulation cascade?

a)

Platelet plug formation

b)

Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Activation of thrombin

45.

Which symptom is most associated with iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Paresthesias

b)

Glossitis

c)

Petechiae

d)

Splenomegaly

46.

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is characterized by:

a)

Microcytic RBCs

b)

Neurologic symptoms

c)

Low reticulocyte count

d)

Hemolysis

47.

Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in:

a)

Factor IX

b)

Factor VII

c)

Factor VIII

d)

Platelets

48.

Which condition involves both excessive clotting and bleeding?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

DIC

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Von Willebrand disease

49.

Which leukemia is most common in children?

a)

CML

b)

CLL

c)

AML

d)

ALL

50.

A hallmark of acute leukemia is:

a)

Slow onset

b)

Mature WBCs

c)

Immature, nonfunctional WBCs

d)

High platelet count

51.

Which symptom is most associated with peripheral arterial disease?

a)

Leg swelling

b)

Intermittent claudication

c)

Warm skin

d)

Bounding pulses

52.

A bruit heard over the abdomen may indicate:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Aortic aneurysm

c)

DVT

d)

Hypertension

53.

Lymphadenopathy refers to:

a)

Infection of lymph nodes

b)

Enlargement of lymph nodes

c)

Removal of lymph nodes

d)

Congenital absence of lymph nodes

54.

Tender lymph nodes are most often associated with:

a)

Malignancy

b)

Infection

c)

Autoimmune disease

d)

Radiation exposure

55.

Reed–Sternberg cells are diagnostic for:

a)

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin lymphoma

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Leukemia

56.

A key diagnostic test for lymphoma is:

a)

Urinalysis

b)

Excisional lymph node biopsy

c)

Skin scraping

d)

EMG

57.

Multiple myeloma primarily affects:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Skin

d)

Liver

58.

A hallmark sign of multiple myeloma is:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hyponatremia

59.

Lymphedema Stage II is characterized by:

a)

Pitting edema

b)

Non-pitting edema with fibrosis

c)

No swelling

d)

Hard, fibrotic skin with nodules

60.

Elephantiasis is caused by:

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Viral infection

c)

Filarial worm obstruction

d)

Autoimmune disease

61.

Castleman disease is best diagnosed with:

a)

Skin biopsy

b)

Lymph node biopsy

c)

EMG

d)

Bone scan

62.

LDL cholesterol contributes to disease primarily by:

a)

Removing cholesterol from tissues

b)

Promoting atheroma formation

c)

Preventing plaque buildup

d)

Increasing capillary permeability

63.

Which risk factor for atherosclerosis is modifiable?

a)

Age

b)

Gender

c)

Genetic predisposition

d)

Cigarette smoking

64.

A STEMI is characterized by:

a)

ST depression

b)

ST elevation

c)

Normal ECG

d)

U-wave prominence

65.

NSTEMI differs from STEMI because:

a)

It has complete occlusion

b)

It shows ST elevation

c)

It shows ST depression or T-wave inversion

d)

It is not an emergency

66.

First-line treatment for acute MI includes:

a)

NSAIDs

b)

MONA

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antivirals

67.

A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to have:

a)

JVD

b)

Pulmonary congestion

c)

Ascites

d)

Peripheral edema

68.

Right-sided heart failure typically causes:

a)

Crackles

b)

Orthopnea

c)

Systemic edema

d)

Pink frothy sputum

69.

Atrial fibrillation is characterized by:

a)

Regular rhythm

b)

P waves before each QRS

c)

Irregularly irregular rhythm

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

70.

A patient with suspected endocarditis requires:

a)

Skin biopsy

b)

Blood cultures

c)

EMG

d)

Spirometry

71.

Malignant hypertension is defined as:

a)

BP < 120/80

b)

Rapidly progressive severe hypertension

c)

Mild hypertension

d)

Hypertension due to pregnancy

72.

Septic shock is classified as:

a)

Hypovolemic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Distributive

d)

Obstructive

73.

A pulsatile abdominal mass with a bruit is most suggestive of:

a)

Varicose veins

b)

Deep vein thrombosis

c)

Aortic aneurysm

d)

Arteriosclerosis

74.

Which process refers to the movement of air in and out of the lungs?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Perfusion

c)

Ventilation

d)

Oxygenation

75.

Gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane occurs through:

a)

Active transport

b)

Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Filtration

76.

Which breath sound is most characteristic of asthma?

a)

Crackles

b)

Wheezes

c)

Rhonchi

d)

Absent sounds

77.

Crackles heard on auscultation are most associated with:

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Fluid in alveoli

d)

Upper airway obstruction

78.

Which finding is most consistent with community-acquired pneumonia?

a)

Dry cough without fever

b)

Fever, productive cough, crackles

c)

Sudden chest pain relieved by rest

d)

Hyperinflated lungs

79.

Which condition causes impaired diffusion?

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Neuromuscular weakness

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Foreign body aspiration

80.

Chronic bronchitis is defined by which clinical feature?

a)

Barrel-shaped chest

b)

Minimal cough

c)

Chronic productive cough

d)

Early hypoxemia

81.

Which finding is more typical of emphysema than chronic bronchitis?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Early hypercapnia

c)

Barrel chest

d)

Persistent hypoxemia

82.

Asthma differs from COPD because asthma:

a)

Is progressive and irreversible

b)

Is caused by smoking

c)

Involves reversible airway obstruction

d)

Has no inflammatory component

83.

Which trigger commonly precipitates asthma exacerbation?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Cold air exposure

c)

Increased hemoglobin

d)

Dehydration

84.

A hallmark diagnostic criterion for ARDS is:

a)

PaO2/FiO2 > 300

b)

Bilateral infiltrates with no cardiac cause

c)

Hyperinflated lungs

d)

Pleural effusion

85.

Which find distinguishes ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

a)

Bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray

b)

Severe hypoxemia

c)

Normal cardiac function

d)

Crackles on auscultation

86.

A sweat chloride level of 65 mEq/L supports a diagnosis of:

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

ARDS

87.

A patient with a pulmonary embolism primarily experiences impaired:

a)

Ventilation

b)

Diffusion

c)

Perfusion

d)

Oxygen binding

88.

Which finding indicates impaired ventilation?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Neuromuscular weakness

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Thickened alveolar membrane

89.

Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are referred to as:

a)

Lymphomas.

b)

Myelomas.

c)

Lymphocytomas.

d)

Lymphedemas.

90.

Why non-Hodgkin lymphomas are often more challenging to treat than Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which statement accurately explains this difference?

a)

Non-Hodgkin tumors tend to be larger at diagnosis.

b)

Non-Hodgkin lymphomas frequently involve multiple lymph node regions and extranodal sites.

c)

Non-Hodgkin lymphomas are unresponsive to novel biologic therapies.

d)

Non-Hodgkin lymphomas remain asymptomatic until stage IV.

91.

The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:

a)

Cardiac output is insufficient to meet the heart's and body's needs

b)

Temporary vasospasm occurs in a coronary artery

c)

Total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis

d)

Irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to the coronary arteries

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