wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Respiratory Physiology and Pathology MCQs (Grade 13)

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 42hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When does a restrictive type of hypoventilation of the lungs occur?

a)

tumor in bronchi

b)

emphysema

c)

bronchiolospasm

d)

hydrothorax

e)

laryngospasm

2.

Which of the following is the cause of restrictive respiratory failure?

a)

edema of the respiratory tract

b)

airway blockages

c)

spasm of the smooth muscles of the bronchi

d)

lung removal

e)

compression of the respiratory tract

3.

Which of the following is the cause of lung ventilation disorders?

a)

bronchial tumor

b)

emphysema of the lungs

c)

bronchiolospasm

d)

hydrothorax

e)

laryngospasm

4.

Which of the following is characteristic of upper respiratory tract obstruction?

a)

Biot breathing

b)

rapid, shallow breathing

c)

expiratory dyspnea

d)

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

e)

stenotic breathing

5.

Which of the following refers to the terminal type of breathing?

a)

Biot breathing

b)

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

e)

gasping-breathing

6.

Which of the following is the cause of obstructive pulmonary hypoventilation?

a)

respiratory muscles weakness

b)

pulmonary atelectasis

c)

bronchial asthma

d)

pneumonia

e)

barbiturate poisoning

7.

Which of the following is the intra-pulmonary cause of restrictive hypoventilation of the lungs?

a)

damage to pleura and mediastinum

b)

chest deformity

c)

ossification of rib cartilage

d)

ascites

e)

surfactant deficiency

8.

Violation of the function of which cells leads to surfactant deficiency in newborns?

a)

pulmonary capillary endothelial cells

b)

bronchial epithelial cells

c)

epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles

d)

alveolocytes type I

e)

alveolocytes type II

9.

Which of the following is a consequence of obstruction of the lower respiratory tract?

a)

decreased Tiffno index

b)

difficult inspiration

c)

stenotic breath

d)

increased Tiffno index

e)

decreased residual volume

10.

Which of the following is the cause of precapillary pulmonary hypertension?

a)

left-sided heart failure

b)

disorders of blood outflow from the lungs to the left atrium

c)

pulmonary arterioles thromboembolism

d)

compression of the pulmonary veins

e)

mitral valve stenosis

11.

Which of the following is the cause of postcapillary pulmonary hypertension?

a)

compression of pulmonary arterioles

b)

pulmonary arterioles obturation

c)

spasm of pulmonary arterioles

d)

mitral valve incompetence

e)

acute decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in the inspired air

12.

Which condition is characterized by alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

a)

emphysema

b)

empyema

c)

pneumonia

d)

tuberculosis

e)

exudative pleurisy

13.

Periodic respiration, in which the amplitude and frequency of respiration wavelike increases and then decreases. What kind of breath does this definition refer to?

a)

Biota

b)

Cheyne-Stokes

c)

Apneistic

d)

Kussmaul

e)

Gasping

14.

Which of the following is the leading pathogenetic factor of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

a)

increased permeability of the capillaries of the lungs

b)

reduction of lymph outflow

c)

increased oncotic blood pressure

d)

reduction of aldosterone

e)

increased hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries of the lungs

15.

What is accompanied by a violation of the connection of the respiratory center with the motor neurons of the diaphragm?

a)

violations of voluntary respiratory control

b)

the appearance of Biota respiration

c)

violation of the automatism of breathing

d)

the appearance of Cheyne-Stokes breathing

e)

decreased amplitude of respiratory movements and periodic apnea

16.

Which of the following is important in the pathogenesis of periodic respiration?

a)

decreased sensitivity of the respiratory center to carbon dioxide

b)

sensitization of the respiratory center to carbon dioxide

c)

excessive stimulation the respiratory center

d)

constant stimulation of inspiratory neurons of the respiratory center

e)

the acceleration of Hering-Breuer reflex

17.

Which of the listed manifestations is characteristic of RDS syndrome?

a)

hyperpnoea

b)

an increase in VC

c)

hypoxemia, ineffectiveness of oxygen therapy

d)

hyperoxaemia, hypercapnia

e)

index Tiffno 70%

18.

Which of the following is the main link in the pathogenesis of neonatal RDS?

a)

hyaline deposition in the alveolar wall

b)

lack of surfactant

c)

decreased pulmonary tissue compliance

d)

upper airway obstruction

e)

spasm of bronchioles

19.

Which of the following is the cause of perfusion form of respiratory failure?

a)

intercostal myositis

b)

right-sided heart failure

c)

kyphosis, lordosis

d)

alveolar hypoventilation

e)

bronchial asthma

20.

Which of the listed states increases the distance for the diffusion of gases?

a)

hyperventilation

b)

mechanic respiratory disorders

c)

increased number of functioning alveoli

d)

pulmonary fibrosis

e)

inhibition of the respiratory center

21.

When is there a violation of diffusion through the alveolo-capillary membrane?

a)

pulmonary fibrosis

b)

pleuritis

c)

bronchial asthma

d)

laryngeal edema

e)

intercostal myositis

22.

What kind of breathing is characterized by obstruction of the distal airways?

a)

Biota

b)

rapid, shallow breathing

c)

shortness of breath when exhaling

d)

Cheyne-Stokes

e)

stenosing breathing

23.

What is characteristic of the second stage of asphyxia?

a)

increased blood pressure

b)

increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system

c)

tachycardia

d)

inspiratory dyspnea

e)

increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system

24.

What is characteristic of the first stage of asphyxia?

a)

decreased blood pressure

b)

bradycardia

c)

increased activity of the sympathetic nervous systems

d)

increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system

e)

paralysis of the respiratory center

25.

What form of respiratory failure develops with emphysema of the lungs?

a)

ventilation, obstructive type

b)

centrogenic

c)

neuromuscular

d)

ventilation, restrictive type

e)

thoraco-diaphragmatic

26.

What reflex is triggered during hypoventilation, which leads to pulmonary arterial hypertension and pulmonary edema?

a)

Kitaev reflex

b)

Euler-Liljestrand reflex

c)

Parin reflex

d)

Hering-Breuer reflex

e)

Bainbridge reflex

27.

Which of the listed reasons relates to the pulmonary form of restrictive type of alveolar hypoventilation disorder?

a)

laryngospasm

b)

bronchospasm

c)

surfactant formation disorder

d)

bronchitis

e)

retropharyngeal abscess

28.

What indicators are characteristic of obstructive hypoventilation?

a)

limited lung expansion

b)

limited chest excursion

c)

limited diaphragm mobility

d)

decreased respiratory center activity

e)

with decreasing airway passageway, resistance to air movement through them increases

29.

What is the name of a polyetiological condition characterized by acute onset, severe hypoxemia (not corrected by oxygen therapy), interstitial edema and diffuse pulmonary infiltration?

a)

pulmonary heart

b)

respiratory distress syndrome

c)

restrictive hypoventilation

d)

cardiogenic pulmonary edema

e)

DIC syndrome

30.

Which of the listed pathogenesis links is related to ARDS?

a)

hyperventilation of the lungs

b)

decreased surfactant formation

c)

excess of excitatory afferent influences

d)

decreased respiratory center activity

e)

with decreasing airway passageway, resistance to air movement through them increases

31.

What is the most likely cause of neurodynamic anorexia?

a)

organic CNS lesion

b)

pain syndrome with renal colic

c)

drug poisoning

d)

disruption of digestive tract receptor function

e)

severe cerebral excitation

32.

A 30-year-old man presents with pain and swelling in the lower left parotid region while eating, and has a dry mouth. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with these symptoms?

a)

stomatitis

b)

helminthiasis

c)

pregnancy gestosis

d)

bulbar paralysis

e)

sialolithiasis

33.

A 25-year-old woman who found herself in a stressful situation had a long-standing loss of appetite, which resulted in a significant decrease in body weight. Is it more likely that she has developed?

a)

neurotic anorexia

b)

dyspeptic anorexia

c)

bulimia

d)

parorexia

e)

neuropsychic anorexia

34.

A 20-year-old woman suffers from anorexia nervosa. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

a)

Strong excitation of the cerebral cortex

b)

obsessive notion of excessive fullness

c)

reciprocal inhibition of the food center

d)

pain syndrome

e)

intoxication

35.

Hyperrexia is most likely to occur in?

a)

thyrotoxicosis

b)

intoxication

c)

pain syndrome

d)

suppression of the alimentary center

e)

destruction of the ventrolateral hypothalamic nuclei

36.

A 32-year-old man has begun to notice that when he eats, he feels food sticking in his throat and has difficulty swallowing food, especially liquids. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of this swallowing disorder?

a)

aspiration pneumonia

b)

hyperhydration

c)

hyperchlorhydria

d)

increased pancreatic juice secretion

e)

esophageal achalasia

37.

What is the leading link in gastroesophageal reflux disease?

a)

Decreased nitric oxide production

b)

Decreased secretion of VIP

c)

decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone

d)

loss of fluids and electrolytes

e)

increased vagus nerve tone

38.

A 36-year-old man was diagnosed with gastric ulcer due to painful sensations in the epigastric region 30–50 minutes after a meal, based on the data of clinical and laboratory tests. Which of the following was the most likely cause of this pathology?

a)

hyperacidity of gastric juice

b)

active secretion of prostaglandins

c)

insufficient blood supply to the mucosa

d)

rapid regeneration of gastric mucosa

e)

mucus and bicarbonate secretion

39.

Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in gastric juice secretion?

a)

Overproduction of secretin

b)

an increase in gastrin secretion

c)

decreased histamine secretion

d)

gastric mucosal atrophy

e)

decreased acetylcholine activity

40.

Which of the following is most likely to be a protective factor for the mucosa of the stomach and duodenum?

a)

secretion of prostaglandins

b)

Increased secretion of histamine, serotonin

c)

organic or functional achylia

d)

high acidity of gastric juice

e)

duodeno-gastric reflux

41.

Which of the following is most likely to cause a gastric mucosal ulcer?

a)

Insufficient blood supply to the mucosa

b)

Active secretion of prostaglandins

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

mucus and bicarbonate secretion

e)

rapid regeneration of gastric mucosa

42.

A 37-year-old woman on stool colologic examination revealed amylorrhea, creatorrhea, steatorrhea. What chronic disease are these symptoms of?

a)

gastritis

b)

hepatitis

c)

pancreatitis

d)

cholecystitis

e)

colitis

43.

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

a)

chelithiasis

b)

abdominal trauma

c)

infection

d)

autoimmune damage

e)

hypercalcemia

44.

A 2-year-old girl has bloating and diarrhea. Examination revealed lactase deficiency. The child is most likely to have developed?

a)

primary malabsorption

b)

hypocholia

c)

celiac disease

d)

hypochlorhydria

e)

Gluten disease

45.

Which of the following digestive disorders is most likely to cause steatorrhea?

a)

Inadequate digestion and absorption of carbohydrates

b)

insufficiency of pancreatic lipase synthesis

c)

insufficiency of trypsinogen synthesis in the pancreas

d)

achilia

e)

Deterioration of water and electrolyte absorption

46.

Which term refers to the presence of undigested starch in the feces

a)

amylorrhea

b)

diarrhea

c)

creatorrhea

d)

steatorrhea

e)

amenorrhea

47.

Which APUD hormone is a factor of aggression in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

endorphins

b)

gastrin

c)

motilin

d)

vasoactive intestinal peptide

e)

somatostatin

48.

Which vitamin's absorption will be impaired when bile acid salts are deficient in the intestine?

a)

PP

b)

B1

c)

C

d)

K

e)

B6

49.

A 45-year-old woman with cholemia syndrome has bradycardia. What is the most likely mechanism of bradycardia development?

a)

activation of sympathetic influences on the heart

b)

activation of spontaneous diastolic membrane depolarization

c)

activation of parasympathetic influences on the heart

d)

reentry of pulse in sinus node (re-entry)

e)

appearance of ectopic foci of excitation in myocardium

50.

Osmotic diarrhea develops when

a)

increased secretion of water and electrolytes into the intestinal lumen

b)

violation of abdominal and parietal digestion

c)

increased intestinal motility

d)

increased release of vasoactive intestinal peptide

e)

increased secretion of somatostatin

51.

An increase in which enzymes in the blood has the greatest diagnostic value in acute pancreatitis?

a)

AST, ALT

b)

LDH, alkaline phosphatase

c)

elastase, chymotrypsin

d)

lipase, amylase

52.

Which of the above refers to the manifestations of impaired protein metabolism in liver failure?

a)

swelling

b)

Erythema palmar

c)

jaundice

d)

cholemia

e)

aholia

53.

Alimentary constipation occurs when

a)

lack of fiber in food

b)

violation of the conditioned reflex of bowel movement

c)

diseases of the anorectal area

d)

hypothyroidism

e)

Hirschsprung's disease (megacolon)

54.

Intestinal auto-intoxication is caused by toxic effects

a)

biogenic amines and protein putrefaction products in the intestine

b)

indirect bilirubin

c)

ketone bodies

d)

bile acids

e)

direct bilirubin

55.

What is the most likely manifestation of cholemia syndrome?

a)

Increased indirect bilirubin in the blood

b)

bradycardia

c)

hyperreflexia

d)

tachycardia

e)

deodorhea

56.

Which cause is most likely to produce gastric hypersecretion?

a)

excessive parasympathetic gastric stimulation

b)

Excessive sympathetic stimulation of the stomach

c)

decreased gastrin production and secretion

d)

excessive gastric prostaglandin production

e)

Reduced histamine production and secretion in the gastric wall

57.

Which change is most likely characteristic of hemolytic jaundice?

a)

An increase in direct bilirubin in the blood

b)

discoloration in the feces

c)

intestinal digestive disturbances

d)

cholemia

e)

Urobilinogenemia, urobilinogenuria

58.

Which mechanism is most likely to cause a stress ulcer?

a)

mucosal ischemia

b)

mucosal hyperemia

c)

increased mucus secretion

d)

hypersecretion of endorphins

e)

Increased production of prostaglandins

59.

Examination of a patient with liver cirrhosis revealed abdominal enlargement due to fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity. What could most likely underlie the development of such changes?

a)

hyperalbuminemia

b)

secondary hyperaldosteronism

c)

Increased estrogen

d)

hypovitaminosis K

e)

portal hypotension

60.

What are the most likely consequences of achlorhydria?

a)

constipation

b)

accelerated evacuation of food masses from the stomach into the intestines

c)

delayed neutralization of food masses from the stomach by the duodenal contents

d)

steatorrhea

e)

aholia

61.

Patient A., 17 years old, has increased blood pressure since childhood, the level of which is currently 200/120 mm Hg. Art. There is no influence of psychoemotional factors. It is not possible to normalize blood pressure with antihypertensive drugs. To the left and right of the navel, a systolic murmur is heard. General urine analysis without pathology. What is the most probable mechanism of arterial hypertension formation?

a)

activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

b)

reduction of renal parenchyma

c)

decrease in the production of depressants in the kidneys

d)

increased secretion of renal kinins

e)

reduction of sodium reabsorption in the kidneys

62.

A 42-year-old woman suffers from sudden onset and sudden end of severe headaches with a sharp rise in blood pressure (up to 280–300 mm Hg), sweating, anxiety, a feeling of fear, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain. Examination revealed a right adrenal tumor. What are the mechanisms of arterial hypertension formation in this pathology?

a)

increase in systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output

b)

increased systemic vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output

c)

decrease in systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output

d)

increase in systemic vascular resistance

e)

decreased cardiac output

63.

A man, 55 years old, has been observed for 20 years for chronic glomerulonephritis, notes an increase in blood pressure up to 190/130 mm Hg. What is the form of arterial hypertension in the patient?

a)

secondary vasorenal

b)

secondary renoprivative

c)

endocrine

d)

essential

e)

neurogenic reflex

64.

Stress -> increase in corticosteroid -> increase in the synthesis of ? and angiotensinogen -> increase in the formation of angiotensin II -> vasospasm -> increase in total peripheral vascular resistance -> hypertension. The missing link in the pathogenesis of hypertension

a)

increase water reabsorption in the kidneys

b)

increased sensitivity to catecholamines vascular myocytes

c)

increase in the synthesis of angiotensin converting enzyme

d)

an increase in total peripheral vascular resistance

e)

increased secretion of aldosterone

65.

A man, 39 years old, 12 years ago was exposed to chronic glomerulonephritis. He notes swelling of the face, legs and an increase in blood pressure up to 200/140 mm Hg. Art. In the general analysis of urine — proteinuria and microhematuria. What is the mechanism of arterial hypertension formation?

a)

activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

b)

decrease in the secretion of erythropoietin

c)

increased reabsorption of water in the kidneys

d)

decrease in the secretion of renal kinins, prostaglandins

e)

increased sodium reabsorption in the kidneys

66.

A 55-year-old man, resident of the big city, a taxi driver, complains of headaches, dizziness, nausea. Has been a smoker for about 20 years. During the last year, an increase in blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg was repeatedly observed. What is the form of arterial hypertension in the patient?

a)

endocrine

b)

renal

c)

essential

d)

neurogenic reflex

e)

hemodynamic

67.

Stress -> ? -> increase in the synthesis of angiotensin converting enzyme and angiotensinogen -> increase in the formation of angiotensin II -> vasospasm -> increase in total peripheral vascular resistance -> hypertension. The missing link in the pathogenesis of hypertension

a)

increase water reabsorption in the kidneys

b)

increased sensitivity to catecholamines vascular myocytes

c)

increase in corticosteroid

d)

an increase in total peripheral vascular resistance

e)

increased secretion of aldosterone

68.

Patient P., 36 years old, has a constant increase in blood pressure to 180/110 mm Hg, detected accidentally 7–8 years ago. In the general analysis of urine (proteinuria, hematuria). At the age of 12, after suffering from angina, swelling of the face and shins was noted, changes in urine were detected. What is the form of arterial hypertension in the patient?

a)

secondary vasorenal

b)

secondary renoprivative

c)

endocrine

d)

essential

e)

neurogenic reflex

69.

Patient B., 30 years old, suffers from congenital heart disease. She notes dyspnea on physical exertion. Objectively, the heart borders are dilated to the left and downward. On auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard on the sternum, which spreads throughout the chest. Palpation reveals a "cat's purr" symptom. The second tone on the aorta is attenuated. Blood pressure 110/85 mm Hg, pulse 60 per min. What underlies the pathogenesis of heart failure in this defect?

a)

resistance overload

b)

volume overload

c)

increase in total peripheral vascular resistance

d)

primary damage to cardiomyocytes

e)

hypervolemia

70.

Patient K., 38 years old, during a medical examination revealed shortness of breath during exercise. From the anamnesis it was established that she suffers from congenital heart disease. Objectively: the borders of the heart are expanded to the left and downward. On auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard on the sternum, which spreads throughout the chest. Palpation reveals a symptom of "cat's purr". The second tone on the aorta is weakened. Blood pressure 110/85 mm Hg, pulse 60 per min. What is the stage of pathological hyperfunction and myocardial hypertrophy in the patient according to F.Z. Meerson?

a)

emergency with an increase in energy production

b)

activation of the genetic apparatus of cardiomyocytes

c)

hyperfunction of non-hypertrophied cardiomyocytes

d)

completed hypertrophy and relatively stable hyperfunction

e)

progressive cardiosclerosis and depletion of myocardial function

71.

A 56-year-old woman complains of severe pain behind the sternum, which appeared during physical activity during the day and was treated with nitroglycerin. In the evening the pains resumed and became more severe. Dyspnea and cough with abundant liquid sputum appeared. Objectively: skin and visible mucous membranes were pale with cyanotic tint. On auscultation, over the entire surface of the right and left lungs, damp multifaceted rales were heard. Blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. What form of heart failure does the patient have according to pathogenesis?

a)

overload resistance

b)

coronary myocardial

c)

non-coronary myocardial

d)

overload by volume

e)

pericardial disorder

72.

Patient R, 56 years old, complains of dyspnea on slight physical exertion, episodes of dyspnea at night. Objectively: skin with cyanotic hue, over the entire surface of the right and left lungs there were humid multifaceted rales. There were pronounced edemas on the legs. Arterial pressure 100/70 mm Hg. The following plays an important role in the development of edema

a)

increased oncotic pressure

b)

increase in hydrostatic pressure

c)

decrease in hydrostatic pressure

d)

decrease in total peripheral vascular resistance

e)

increase in minute blood volume

73.

A patient with blood pressure 180/130180/130 mmHg and X-ray evidence of dilation of the left ventricle had severe inspiratory dyspnea at night diagnosed as cardiac asthma. What is the form of heart failure according to the pathogenesis of the patient?

a)

reloading (post-loading)

b)

coronarogenic myocardial

c)

non-coronary myocardial

d)

reloading (preloading)

e)

pericardial

74.

A 49-year-old woman was admitted to the therapeutic department with complaints of severe pain in the region of the heart, which did not subside from taking nitroglycerin. A blood test revealed neutrophilic leukocytosis, increased activity of AST and CPK-MB, increased troponins T and I. On the ECG: sinus rhythm, deepened Q wave and ST segment elevation in the first lead with a mirror image in lead III. As evidenced by the increased activity of AST and CPK-MB, troponins T and I

a)

respiratory acidosis

b)

activation of endonucleases

c)

mitochondrial dysfunction

d)

violation of the integrity of cardiomyocyte membranes

e)

reduction of membrane potential

75.

A woman, 46 years old, irritable, a lower-level manager, often conflicts with staff. Over the past 6 years, there has been an increase in blood pressure. She was taken to the emergency department of the hospital with complaints of headache, anxiety, trembling throughout the body, stabbing pain in the heart, palpitations, interruptions, blood pressure 180/110180/110 mmHg. After the introduction of a tranquilizer and a beta-blocker, blood pressure normalized and well-being improved. What is the mechanism of arterial hypertension formation?

a)

reduction of angiotensin and aldosterone production

b)

increase of thyroid-stimulating hormone

c)

activation of vascular RAAS and SAS against the background of endothelial dysfunction

d)

reduction of total peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output

e)

increased total peripheral vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output

76.

Patient I., 52 years old, was admitted with complaints of severe pains in the heart area, which do not subside from taking nitroglycerin, dizziness and sharp weakness. Objectively: the skin and visible mucous membranes are pale. The body temperature is 37.537.5 °C. The boundaries of the heart are expanded to the left, the tones are deaf, the pulse is 100 min, low filling, irregular. Blood pressure is 95/7095/70 mmHg. In the lungs, wet wheezing is heard. A blood test revealed neutrophilic leukocytosis and an increase in ESR. What kind of syndrome can you think of?

a)

reperfusion syndrome

b)

resorption syndrome

c)

the calcium paradox

d)

oxygen paradox

e)

myomalacia

77.

A 63-year-old man suffering from bronchial asthma has been taking glucocorticoid medications for several years. During these years, body weight gradually increased, diabetes mellitus and hypertension developed. What is the pathogenesis of increased blood pressure in this patient?

a)

reduction of ACE synthesis

b)

reduction of sodium reabsorption in tubules

c)

dystrophic changes in the renal tubules

d)

increased angiotensinogen synthesis

e)

reduction of adrenoreceptor density

78.

Stress→increase in corticosteroid→increase in the synthesis of angiotensin converting enzyme angiotensinogen→?→vasospasm→increase in TPVR→hypertension. The missing link in the pathogenesis of hypertension

a)

increase water reabsorption in the kidneys

b)

increased sensitivity to catecholamine’s vascular myositis

c)

increase in the formation of angiotensin II

d)

an increase in total peripheral vascular resistance

e)

increased secretion of aldosterone

79.

A common feature of chronic renal insufficiency, pheochromocytoma, Conn's syndrome, coarctation of the aorta, acromegaly is

a)

hypotension

b)

systemic vasculitis

c)

venous thrombosis

d)

hypertension

e)

occlusive disease

80.

Primary arterial hypertension can lead to

a)

hypercortisolism

b)

hyperthyroxine production

c)

therosclerosis of the renal arteries

d)

chronic adrenal insufficiency

e)

frequent negative psycho-emotional stressors

81.

The cause of left ventricular failure is

a)

pulmonary emphysema

b)

chronic pneumonia

c)

bicuspid valve insufficiency

d)

hypertension of the small circulatory system

e)

tricuspid valve insufficiency

82.

In the pathogenesis of secondary hypertension has a value

a)

chronic emotional arousal centers

b)

the excess production of adrenal hormones

c)

persistent increase in excitability of sympathetic nerve centers

d)

hereditary defect of membrane on pumps vascular myositis

e)

reduction of inhibitory influence of the cortex on the vasomotor center

83.

A clinical sign of right ventricular failure is

a)

pulmonary edema

b)

hepatomegaly

c)

pulmonary hypertension

d)

hemoptysis

e)

expiratory dyspnea and hemoptysis

84.

For the right heart failure is characterized

a)

pulmonary edema

b)

ascites

c)

hemoptysis

d)

cardiac asthma

e)

hypertension pulmonary circulation

85.

For the right heart failure is characterized by

a)

hemoptysis

b)

cardiac asthma

c)

edema of the lower extremities

d)

hypertension, pulmonary circulation

e)

pulmonary edema

86.

In the pathogenesis of deoxyhemoglobin in the blood increase in heart failure has value

a)

acceleration of blood flow

b)

increase in blood oxygenation in the lungs

c)

an increase in blood oxygen capacity

d)

decrease in tissue oxygen utilization

e)

enhanced utilization of oxygen by tissue

87.

For the right heart failure is characterized by

a)

hemoptysis

b)

cardiac asthma

c)

hypertension of the large circulatory system

d)

hypertension of the pulmonary circulation

e)

pulmonary edema

88.

Stress→increase in corticosteroid→increase in the synthesis of angiotensin converting enzyme and ?→increase in the formation of angiotensin II→vasospasm→increase in TPVR→hypertension. The missing link in the pathogenesis of hypertension

a)

increase water reabsorption in the kidneys

b)

increased sensitivity to catecholamine’s vascular myositis

c)

increase in the synthesis of angiotensinogen

d)

an increase in total peripheral vascular resistance

e)

increased secretion of aldosterone

89.

A 63-year-old man suffering from bronchial asthma has been taking glucocorticoid medications for several years. During these years, body weight gradually increased, diabetes mellitus and hypertension developed. What is the pathogenesis of increased blood pressure in this patient?

a)

reduction of ACE synthesis

b)

reduction of sodium reabsorption in tubules

c)

dystrophic changes in the renal tubules

d)

increase in the synthesis of angiotensin converting enzyme

e)

reduction of adrenoreceptor density

90.

A 42-year-old woman has persistent headaches, general weakness, muscle weakness, creeping sensation, polyuria, nocturia. The relative density of urine is 1001100110021002 . BP 230/120230/120 mmHg. In the blood, the sodium content is increased and the potassium content is reduced. Ultrasound examination revealed a tumor of the right adrenal gland. What hormone does the tumor produce?

a)

aldosterone

b)

adrenalin

c)

thyroxine

d)

cortisol

e)

norepinephrine

91.

Through the axons, enter the central nervous system:

a)

influenza A virus

b)

streptococcal exotoxin

c)

herpes viruses

d)

pneumococci

e)

adenovirus

92.

The consequence of disinhibition syndrome can be:

a)

development of dystrophic changes in neurons and innervated structures

b)

development of organ atrophy

c)

development of deafferentation syndrome

d)

development of denervation syndrome

e)

formation of a generator of pathologically increased excitation

93.

A 25-year-old woman developed double vision and respiratory muscle dysfunction. Botulism was diagnosed. What is the most likely mechanism for the muscle dysfunction?

a)

inhibition of glycine secretion into the synaptic cleft

b)

inhibition of acetylcholine secretion into the synaptic cleft

c)

inhibition of norepinephrine secretion into the synaptic cleft

d)

blocking of glycine-sensitive receptors on the postsynaptic membrane

e)

blocking of acetylcholine-sensitive receptors on the postsynaptic membrane

94.

A 73-year-old woman presented with muscle weakness and paresthesia in her arms and legs. Neurological examination revealed weakness of the flexors and extensors of the lower extremities, increased knee reflexes, and decreased vibration sensitivity. The patient most likely has a vitamin deficiency.

a)

B1

b)

B2

c)

B6

d)

B9

e)

B12

95.

In a 60-year-old man, in the early period after an acute cerebrovascular accident, the severity of neurological symptoms continued to increase, despite the restoration of blood flow in the damaged cerebral vessel. The cause of the worsening neurological symptoms in the patient is:

a)

decreased neuronal osmolarity

b)

shrinkage of neurons

c)

reperfusion of neurons

d)

release of calcium from neurons

e)

inhibition of glutamate receptors

96.

A 28-year-old man has clonic seizures, twitching of the neck, face and trunk muscles with a short period of apnea, and foamy saliva coming out of the mouth. After the seizure, which lasts 2 minutes, the muscles relax. This typical form of pathology is based on:

a)

decreased neuronal excitability

b)

suppression of neuronal firing

c)

destruction of dopamine neurons in the locus coeruleus

d)

increased neuronal activity with hypersynchronous firing

e)

predominance of cholinergic system activity in the striatum

97.

Patient A., 72 years old, was admitted to the emergency room of the hospital complaining of weakness in the right half of the body. These symptoms appeared suddenly during a meal. The patient could not move his right arm and right leg, and speech difficulties (aphasia) developed. It is known from the anamnesis that the patient suffers from arterial hypertension, coronary heart disease, and has significantly elevated cholesterol levels. Upon examination: blood pressure 190/100 mm Hg, severe right-sided hemiparesis, positive Babinski reflex on the right. There are no signs of hemorrhage on the computed tomography of the brain. This condition is characterized by:

a)

absence of tendon reflexes

b)

appearance of pathological reflexes

c)

muscle atrophy

d)

muscle hypotonia

e)

hypo-, areflexia

98.

After a stroke, a 67-year-old man began to experience episodes of severe, difficult to bear polytopic pain, combined with vegetative and motor disorders. Most likely, the pathogenesis of these pains is due to:

a)

suppression of brainstem excitability

b)

formation of disinhibition syndrome in the thalamus

c)

increased conductivity of nerve trunks

d)

decreased excitability of the cerebral cortex

e)

formation of GPUC in the spinal cord

99.

Endogenous factors of damage to the nervous system are:

a)

ionizing radiation

b)

pesticides

c)

lipid peroxidation products

d)

ethyl alcohol

e)

herpes virus

100.

Neurogenic dystrophy is:

a)

autoimmune brain damage

b)

disruption of endorphin synthesis

c)

disruption of metabolism in tissues with a disorder of their innervation

d)

breakdown of higher nervous activity

e)

parabiosis of nerve cells

101.

What is the missing link in the pathogenesis of endemic goiter: Iodine deficiency → decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones (T3, T4) → decreased concentration of T3, T4 in the blood → ? → hyperplasia of the thyroid gland:

a)

increased secretion of thyrotropin

b)

increased secretion of somatostatin

c)

increased secretion of somatomedins

d)

decreased secretion of thyroliberin

e)

decreased secretion of corticoliberin

102.

A 52-year-old woman was admitted to the department complaining of memory loss, general weakness, drowsiness, and weight gain. Examination revealed dry, flaky skin, swollen face, slow speech, body temperature 35.7°, pulse 52 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg, increased thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration, decreased T3 and T4 concentration in the blood. Where is the pathological process localized?

a)

pituitary gland

b)

hypothalamus

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

thalamus

e)

thyroid gland

103.

What manifestation of hypothyroidism is typical for childhood?

a)

mental retardation

b)

accelerated physical development

c)

early closure of growth zones

d)

early closure of fontanelles

e)

premature puberty

104.

The missing link in the pathogenesis of hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes in Addison's disease: Cortisol deficiency → by a feedback mechanism, increased secretion of …? → increased deposition of melanin in the skin and mucous membranes → hyperpigmentation

a)

ACTH

b)

ADH

c)

STH

d)

TSH

e)

LH

105.

In gigantism, after immunohistochemical examination, the most common is

a)

somatotropinoma

b)

prolactosomatotropinoma

c)

prolactinoma

d)

adenomas secreting GH, LH, FSH

e)

pheochromocytoma

106.

A 35-year-old woman was diagnosed with Cushing's disease. Blood glucose level is 8 mmol/l. In the pathogenesis of this hyperglycemia, the most important is:

a)

activation of gluconeogenesis

b)

activation of lipogenesis

c)

activation of glycogenogenesis

d)

inhibition of glycogenolysis

e)

inhibition of lipolysis

107.

In the development of polyuria in the diabetes insipidus, an important role is played by:

a)

activation of the sympathoadrenal system

b)

development of secondary aldosteronism

c)

calcium metabolism disorder

d)

increased permeability of aquaporins

e)

glycosuria

108.

The main link in the pathogenesis of Cushing's disease is:

a)

decreased ACTH levels

b)

decreased sensitivity of hypothalamic-pituitary system to corticosteroids

c)

development of severe electrolyte disturbances

d)

development of invasive pituitary macroadenoma

e)

hyperglycemia

109.

Thyroid cells that secrete thyroxine and triiodothyronine are called:

a)

parafollicular cells

b)

A cells

c)

D cells

d)

C cells

e)

B cells

110.

Hyperthyroidism is caused by increased production of thyroid hormones in:

a)

chronic autoimmune thyroiditis

b)

subacute thyroiditis

c)

postpartum thyroiditis

d)

Graves' disease

e)

myxedema

111.

A 35-year-old man was examined and found to have a moon-shaped face, BP 180/120 mm Hg, blood sugar 7.5 mmol/l. X-ray examination of the lumbar region revealed an enlarged right adrenal gland. What will a blood hormone test reveal?

a)

increased cortisol, decreased ACTH

b)

increased cortisol and ACTH

c)

decreased cortisol and ACTH

d)

increased aldosterone and ACTH

e)

decreased cortisol, increased ACTH

112.

A 25-year-old woman was admitted to the clinic with complaints of general weakness, irritability, sweating, increased appetite, weight loss, and palpitations. Upon examination: body temperature 37.8°, finger tremors, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland, slight exophthalmos. Laboratory blood tests will reveal:

a)

decreased TSH, increased T4, TSH receptor antibodies

b)

increased TSH and T4, thyroglobulin antibodies

c)

decreased TSH and T4

d)

increased ACTH and cortisol

113.

A 52-year-old woman complains of memory loss, general weakness, drowsiness, and weight gain. She associates the onset of the disease with a course of X-ray therapy 1.5 years ago. An objective examination revealed: dry, flaky skin, swollen face, slow speech, body temperature 35.7°, pulse 52 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg, basal metabolic rate (-30%). What will the patient's blood test reveal?

a)

decreased cholesterol

b)

increased glucose

c)

increased TSH, decreased T3, T4

d)

decreased TSH, decreased T3, T4

e)

antibodies to TSH receptors

114.

A 45-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of severe weakness and rapid fatigue. Over the past 4 months, he has lost 18 kg. An objective examination revealed: decreased skin turgor, the skin on the palms, in places of folds and greatest friction against clothing, is much more heavily pigmented than the surrounding areas. BP 100/50 mm Hg, blood sugar 3.5 mmol/l, the speed of unconditioned reflexes is inhibited, severe bradycardia, basal metabolism is reduced. What will most likely be revealed by a study of blood hormones in this patient?

a)

increased glucocorticoids and ACTH

b)

decreased cortisol and ACTH

c)

decreased cortisol, increased ACTH

d)

increased thyroxine and TSH

e)

increased aldosterone and ACTH

115.

A girl of 18 years old was delivered to the hospital by ambulance. On admission, glucose level was 25 mmol/l, pressure 95/60 mm Hg, pulse 112/min, cold extremities, deep rapid breathing, acetone smell from the mouth. The leading link in the pathogenesis of ketoacidotic diabetic coma?

a)

pronounced dehydration of cells

b)

sharp hyperglycemia

c)

hyperosmia of blood and intercellular fluid

d)

significant accumulation of lactic acid

e)

hyperketonemia and uncompensated acidosis

116.

(thyrotropin) - 10 mIU/l (N: 0.34–4.25 mIU/l); Thyroxine - 65 nmol/l (N: 70–151 nmol/l). What is the most likely cause of the enlarged thyroid gland in this patient?

a)

Excessive iodine intake

b)

Lack of iodine in water and food

c)

Hereditary disease

d)

Thyroid tumor

e)

Treatment with iodine

117.

Patient V. consulted a doctor with complaints of an enlarged thyroid gland, slight weakness, drowsiness, fatigue, and constipation. She first noticed a slight enlargement of the gland 2 years ago, after moving to this area. During the examination, symmetrical enlargement of both lobes of the thyroid gland was found. Which of the following laboratory values is most typical for hypothyroidism?

a)

Low TSH and high T4

b)

High TSH and low T4

c)

High TSH and high T4

d)

Low TSH and low T4

e)

Normal TSH and T4

118.

A 5-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother, who states that she has been drinking a lot of water and urinating more frequently than usual. On physical examination, the girl's eyes are slightly protruding. A head x-ray reveals multiple lytic bone lesions involving the calvaria and skull base, biopsy of which reveals collections of Langerhans cells with intracytoplasmic Birbeck granules. Which of the following sets of laboratory values is most consistent with the expected findings for this girl's disorder?

a)

hypernatremia, low urine osmolarity and specific gravity

b)

hypernatremia, high urine osmolarity and specific gravity

c)

hyponatremia, low urine osmolarity and specific gravity

d)

hyponatremia, high urine osmolarity and specific gravity

e)

normal blood sodium, normal urine osmolarity and specific gravity

119.

Patient V. consulted a doctor with complaints of an enlarged thyroid gland, slight weakness, drowsiness, fatigue, and constipation. She first noticed a slight enlargement of the gland 4 years ago, after moving to this area. During the examination, a symmetrical enlargement of both lobes of the thyroid gland was found. What changes in fat metabolism are possible in the patient?

a)

Increased ketone body levels and normal cholesterol levels

b)

Increased cholesterol and ketone bodies

c)

Normal cholesterol and ketone bodies

d)

Decreased cholesterol levels

e)

Decreased ketone bodies

120.

Patient A., 48 years old. Has suffered from acromegaly for about 7 years. Recently, he began to notice dry mouth, thirst, polyuria, and therefore consulted a doctor. During the examination, hyperglycemia and glucosuria were revealed. What caused the occurrence of these symptoms in this case?

a)

diabetes insipidus

b)

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

c)

insulin resistance

d)

diabetes mellitus type 1

e)

diabetes mellitus type 2

121.

Which of the following is the MOST important non-immune mechanism of chronic renal failure progression?

a)

reduced load on functioning nephrons

b)

suppression of the kallikrein-kinin system activity

c)

compensatory hyperfiltration in intact nephrons

d)

reduced formation of cytokines and oxygen free radicals

e)

production of autoantibodies against glomerular basement membrane antigens

122.

Which of the following is the MOST important in the pathogenesis of uremia?

a)

impaired filtration and removal of nitrogenous waste from the body

b)

hyperosmolal hyperhydration

c)

development of alkalosis

d)

dehydration of the body

e)

hypercalcemia

123.

Which of the following is the MOST likely complication of hereditary renal phosphate diabetes?

a)

hyperphosphatemia

b)

decreased urinary phosphorus excretion

c)

decreased urinary calcium excretion

d)

demineralization of bone tissue

e)

hyperglycemia

124.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of proximal tubular acidosis?

a)

increased ammoniogenesis

b)

decreased tubular secretion of hydrogen ions

c)

excessive reabsorption of sodium ions

d)

decreased ammoniogenesis

e)

impaired reabsorption of bicarbonates

125.

An 18-year-old boy has impaired glomerular function of nephrons. Which laboratory indicator will MOST confirm this pathology?

a)

decreased creatinine clearance

b)

hyposthenuria

c)

isosthenuria

d)

cylindruria

e)

glucosuria

Similar Resources on Wayground