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ECET TEST - 3 CORE

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a universal gate?

a)

AND

b)

XOR

c)

OR

d)

NAND

2.

Which of the following is NOT a combinational circuit?

a)

Flip-Flop

b)

Multiplexer

c)

Decoder

d)

Adder

3.

A demultiplexer is a device that ________.

a)

encodes multiple inputs into one output

b)

decodes binary numbers to decimal

c)

stores binary information in registers

d)

routes a single input to multiple outputs

4.

Convert the binary number 110011 to its decimal equivalent.

a)

49

b)

51

c)

53

d)

55

5.

Which component pairs with a multiplexer to perform opposite routing functions in digital circuits?

a)

Adder

b)

Encoder

c)

Demultiplexer

d)

Register

6.

When converting 110011₂ to decimal, which positional weights are applied to the six bits from right to left?

a)

1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32

b)

1, 3, 9, 27, 81, 243

c)

2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64

d)

0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

7.

In a demultiplexer, what determines which output line receives the input signal?

a)

power supply voltage

b)

address or select inputs

c)

clock pulses only

d)

feedback from outputs

8.

Which statement best distinguishes a demultiplexer from an encoder?

a)

Demultiplexer distributes one input to many lines

b)

Demultiplexer increases bit-width of outputs

c)

Encoder converts decimal values to binary

d)

Encoder routes one input to many outputs

9.

Given the bit pattern 110011₂, which bits contribute to the value 32 + 16?

a)

the two least significant bits

b)

no bits contribute those weights

c)

the two most significant bits

d)

the middle two bits

10.

If a demultiplexer has 3 select lines, how many possible output lines can it address?

a)

16 lines

b)

8 lines

c)

6 lines

d)

4 lines

11.

Which error most likely leads to an incorrect decimal result when converting 110011₂?

a)

ignoring the least significant bit

b)

doubling the sum after conversion

c)

using base ten positional weights

d)

adding weights for zero bits

12.

A system needs to send one data stream to any of eight destinations. Which device is the most suitable?

a)

Adder with carry-in control

b)

Demultiplexer with three selects

c)

Encoder with three outputs

d)

Register with parallel load

13.

The number of select lines required for an 8-to-1 multiplexer is?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

14.

A sequential logic circuit that toggles its output state on each clock pulse is a:

a)

T flip-flop

b)

D flip-flop

c)

SR flip-flop

d)

JK flip-flop

15.

Convert the decimal number 108 into its octal equivalent.

a)

152

b)

160

c)

124

d)

154

16.

For an 8-to-1 multiplexer, the relationship between inputs and select lines is best described as:

a)

Inputs equal select lines minus one

b)

Inputs equal 2selectlines2^select lines

c)

Inputs equal select lines

d)

Select lines equal 2inputs2^inputs

17.

Which flip-flop is specifically designed to toggle when its input is high on the clock edge?

a)

T flip-flop with T=0

b)

JK flip-flop with J=K=1

c)

D flip-flop with D=1

d)

SR flip-flop with S=R=1

18.

Given a decimal number N, which method correctly converts N to octal?

a)

Multiply by eight repeatedly

b)

Subtract powers of ten iteratively

c)

Divide by eight and read remainders

d)

Divide by two and group bits

19.

If a multiplexer has k select lines, how many input lines can it choose from?

a)

2k2^k

b)

k inputs

c)

k2k^2 inputs

d)

2k inputs

20.

Which statement about SR and D flip-flops is accurate regarding toggling behavior?

a)

SR toggles when S=R=1

b)

D toggles only on rising edges

c)

SR always holds previous state

d)

D outputs follow input, not toggle

21.

What is the octal representation of the binary number 1101100?

a)

160

b)

152

c)

124

d)

154

22.

A JK flip-flop behaves like which flip-flop when J and K are tied together and driven as a single input?

a)

Master–slave flip-flop

b)

SR flip-flop

c)

D flip-flop

d)

T flip-flop

23.

What is the simplified form of the Boolean expression (A + B)(A + C)?

a)

A + B + C

b)

A + BC

c)

AB + C

d)

AC + BC

24.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of a Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document?

a)

To plan the project schedule

b)

To describe the functional and non-functional requirements

c)

To outline the software design

d)

To define the coding standards

25.

Using Boolean algebra, which identity justifies reducing (A + B)(A + C) to A + BC?

a)

Idempotent and absorption laws

b)

Commutative and distributive laws

c)

Associative and consensus theorem

d)

De Morgan’s and complement laws

26.

In an SRS, which content is typically included to ensure clarity for stakeholders?

a)

Post-release marketing strategies

b)

Functional requirements with constraints

c)

Detailed UI color palette tables

d)

Algorithm pseudocode for modules

27.

If A = 1, B = 0, and C = 1, what is the value of (A + B)(A + C)?

a)

Depends on B only

b)

Undefined

c)

1

d)

0

28.

Which artifact most directly translates the SRS into implementable tasks?

a)

Detailed design specification

b)

High-level architecture

c)

Test plan document

d)

Deployment checklist

29.

Which Boolean expression is equivalent to A + BC under consensus theorem application?

a)

A(B + C)

b)

(A + B + C)

c)

AB + AC

d)

(A + B)(A + C)

30.

In a well-written SRS, which property best ensures requirements are testable?

a)

Ambiguous phrasing allowed

b)

Informal stakeholder notes

c)

Traceability maintained

d)

High-level vision only

31.

Which step should you take to verify the simplification of (A + B)(A + C) = A + BC?

a)

Apply De Morgan’s to both terms

b)

Construct a truth table comparison

c)

Introduce a new variable D

d)

Factor out B from the expression

32.

Which risk arises if an SRS omits non-functional requirements?

a)

Too many integration tests

b)

Performance and reliability gaps

c)

Unclear deployment timeline

d)

Overly strict coding rules

33.

Which SDLC phase typically includes a feasibility study to assess constraints and viability?

a)

Planning and analysis activities

b)

Maintenance and support

c)

Implementation and deployment

d)

Testing and defect triage

34.

In the classic waterfall model, what is the second phase following requirements?

a)

Implementation coding tasks

b)

Design specification creation

c)

Maintenance and upgrades

d)

Verification and validation

35.

Which activity is primarily intended to find defects before release?

a)

System testing execution

b)

Requirements elicitation

c)

Post‑release maintenance

d)

High‑level architecture

36.

During planning in SDLC, which deliverable best captures project feasibility?

a)

Feasibility assessment report

b)

Change management logs

c)

Refactored code modules

d)

Detailed test scenarios

37.

Which sequence correctly reflects early waterfall flow?

a)

Maintenance then design

b)

Testing then design

c)

Requirements then design

d)

Implementation then design

38.

What risk arises if design is skipped and coding starts directly?

a)

Overly formal requirements

b)

Architecture inconsistencies

c)

Excess test redundancy

d)

Delayed maintenance cycles

39.

Which testing focus aligns with verifying design meets requirements?

a)

Replacement of legacy tools

b)

Optimization of compilers

c)

Validation against user needs

d)

Scheduling of daily standups

40.

Which metric is most relevant during feasibility analysis?

a)

Cost–benefit comparison

b)

Branch coverage rate

c)

Cyclomatic complexity

d)

Mean time to repair

41.

Which artifact is finalized at the end of the design phase?

a)

System architecture specification

b)

Defect density dashboard

c)

End‑user training videos

d)

Incident response playbook

42.

Which post‑implementation activity ensures the system continues to meet needs over time?

a)

Integration test planning

b)

Requirements prototyping

c)

Maintenance and enhancement

d)

Initial feasibility screening

43.

In Agile development, which methodology uses time-boxed sprints to deliver increments?

a)

Waterfall follows sequential phases without sprints

b)

Scrum organizes work into short sprints

c)

Spiral emphasizes risk-driven iterations, not sprints

d)

Kanban uses continuous flow without sprints

44.

Which testing level focuses on verifying individual software components in isolation?

a)

Integration testing checks module interactions

b)

System testing validates end-to-end behavior

c)

Unit testing targets single modules

d)

Acceptance testing confirms user requirements

45.

Which model typically delivers functional software in staged releases over time?

a)

Waterfall delivers only at final stage

b)

Big-bang compiles everything at once

c)

V-model mirrors testing to development phases

d)

Incremental model provides successive builds

46.

A team wants continuous flow, pull-based work, and WIP limits. Which method aligns best?

a)

Waterfall with gated milestones

b)

Scrum with fixed-length sprints

c)

Kanban with visual flow control

d)

Spiral with risk analysis cycles

47.

During integration testing, the primary goal is to identify issues in what area?

a)

Across end-user workflows

b)

Within a single component’s logic

c)

Against regulatory requirements

d)

Between interacting components

48.

When would system testing be most appropriate in the lifecycle?

a)

Immediately after requirements sign-off

b)

Before any coding begins

c)

After unit tests pass for modules

d)

Only after deployment to production

49.

What is a key advantage of the Incremental Model for complex projects?

a)

Complete specification before coding

b)

Eliminates integration challenges entirely

c)

Early delivery of partial functionality

d)

Single-phase verification and validation

50.

A product owner needs frequent feedback and adaptability. Which approach best supports this?

a)

V-model with strict mapping

b)

Scrum with sprint reviews

c)

Waterfall with fixed scope

d)

Big-bang with one final release

51.

Which activity most closely aligns with unit testing practices?

a)

Mocking dependencies for a module

b)

Executing full system scenarios

c)

Evaluating performance at scale

d)

Validating user acceptance criteria

52.

A project faces high uncertainty and evolving risks. Which model explicitly centers on risk analysis?

a)

Waterfall model enforces linear progression

b)

Scrum framework focuses on time-boxed sprints

c)

Incremental model centers on delivery cadence

d)

Spiral model emphasizes risk assessment

53.

Which statement best characterizes the waterfall model?

a)

Complete product is delivered at once

b)

Allows early detection of errors

c)

Continuously incorporates customer feedback

d)

Requires no planning at any stage

54.

Which option correctly defines debugging in software development?

a)

The process of writing code

b)

Running a program without any issues

c)

Identifying and fixing errors in a program

d)

Adding new features to a program

55.

Which type of requirement focuses on performance, reliability, and security?

a)

Business process requirements

b)

Functional requirements

c)

Non-functional requirements

d)

User interface requirements

56.

In a waterfall approach, what is a common limitation?

a)

High flexibility for late changes

b)

Iterative testing with early prototypes

c)

Limited support for customer feedback

d)

Adaptive planning after each sprint

57.

Which activity is part of verification rather than validation?

a)

Evaluating usability with end users

b)

Assessing business value in operation

c)

Ensuring it satisfies user needs

d)

Checking the product meets specifications

58.

Choose the statement that best contrasts functional vs. non-functional requirements.

a)

Functional cover reliability and scalability

b)

Functional specify performance and security

c)

Functional describe how well it performs

d)

Functional describe what the system does

59.

A team wants early error detection and frequent feedback. Which lifecycle model aligns best?

a)

Code-and-fix approach

b)

Agile iterative development

c)

Traditional waterfall model

d)

Big-bang implementation

60.

When conducting debugging, which step is typically first?

a)

Deploying a hotfix immediately

b)

Optimizing performance hotspots

c)

Refactoring unrelated modules

d)

Reproducing the defect consistently

61.

Which metric is most relevant to a non-functional security requirement?

a)

Coverage of user stories delivered

b)

Average time to compromise detected

c)

Number of business rules implemented

d)

Count of functional use cases

62.

A project delivers all features only at the end of the cycle. What risk increases?

a)

Late discovery of critical defects

b)

Excessive customer co-creation

c)

Too many mid-sprint requirement changes

d)

Overuse of iterative prototypes

63.

Which register holds the address of the next instruction to be executed?

a)

Program Counter (PC)

b)

Instruction Register (IR)

c)

Stack Pointer (SP)

d)

Memory Address Register (MAR)

64.

Which memory holds frequently accessed data for fast retrieval?

a)

Registers

b)

RAM

c)

ROM

d)

Cache

65.

What does the Instruction Register (IR) primarily store during execution?

a)

Top of stack address

b)

Next instruction address

c)

Memory data word

d)

Current instruction code

66.

Which register is used to point to the top of the current stack frame?

a)

Base Register

b)

Program Counter

c)

Instruction Register

d)

Stack Pointer

67.

Which component supplies addresses to memory during fetch operations?

a)

Memory Address Register

b)

Arithmetic Logic Unit

c)

Cache Controller

d)

Instruction Decoder

68.

Choose the best description of a non-functional requirement in systems design.

a)

Specific business rule to implement

b)

Detailed algorithmic procedure

c)

Constraint on system performance or quality

d)

Feature that the system must perform

69.

Business requirements primarily capture which aspect of a system?

a)

Compiler optimization settings

b)

Quality attributes like reliability

c)

Hardware interface specifications

d)

Organizational goals and outcomes

70.

A program frequently accesses a small working set of data. Which hardware feature optimizes this pattern?

a)

Level-1 cache memory

b)

Large ROM segment

c)

Extended register file

d)

Slow external storage

71.

If the Program Counter is accidentally modified, which immediate effect is most likely?

a)

IR clears and halts the CPU

b)

Cache is flushed automatically

c)

Execution jumps to an unintended address

d)

Stack overflows instantly

72.

Which pairing correctly matches register to role?

a)

PC: holds next instruction address

b)

SP: points to base of heap

c)

MAR: stores current instruction code

d)

IR: holds next instruction address

73.

The 8086 microprocessor has how many address lines?

a)

32

b)

20

c)

24

d)

16

74.

The primary purpose of an interrupt in a microprocessor is to ________.

a)

Organize registers

b)

Control memory access

c)

Execute instructions faster

d)

Handle I/O operations efficiently

75.

Which component is most directly responsible for permanent data storage in a typical computer system?

a)

RAM module

b)

Graphics card

c)

Hard drive

d)

CPU cache

76.

If an 8086 system needs to address 1 MB of memory, which feature enables this capability?

a)

On-chip DMA controller

b)

Dedicated I/O bus

c)

Fixed 16-bit addressing

d)

Segmented addressing

77.

An interrupt allows a microprocessor to respond to which kind of events most effectively?

a)

Background computation

b)

Asynchronous external signals

c)

Periodic memory refresh

d)

Sequential instruction flow

78.

When an interrupt occurs, what typically happens to the current program execution state?

a)

It resets the CPU

b)

It continues uninterrupted

c)

It is saved to a stack

d)

It is discarded permanently

79.

Which statement best compares address lines and data lines in a microprocessor bus?

a)

All lines carry addresses

b)

Control lines set timing

c)

Data lines carry values

d)

Address lines select locations

80.

Why might a microprocessor use interrupt priorities?

a)

To speed up arithmetic

b)

To resolve simultaneous requests

c)

To reduce clock frequency

d)

To increase address width

81.

Increasing the number of address lines by one generally increases the addressable space by what factor?

a)

No significant change

b)

Triples addressable space

c)

Doubles addressable space

d)

Adds one byte total

82.

Which I/O handling technique relies on interrupts to avoid constant polling by the CPU?

a)

Interrupt-driven I/O

b)

Memory-mapped busy wait

c)

Programmed I/O polling

d)

Synchronous DMA only

83.

Which of the following is a volatile memory?

a)

RAM

b)

Flash drive

c)

ROM

d)

Hard disk

84.

The size of the general‑purpose registers in the 8086 microprocessor is ____.

a)

8 bits

b)

16 bits

c)

32 bits

d)

64 bits

85.

Which CPU component coordinates and controls all activities inside the processor?

a)

Bus interface unit

b)

Arithmetic Logic Unit

c)

Control Unit

d)

Cache controller

86.

Which storage device is non‑volatile and uses magnetic platters?

a)

Registers

b)

DRAM

c)

SRAM

d)

Hard disk

87.

What is the primary function of the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)?

a)

Manage program flow

b)

Execute arithmetic and logic

c)

Handle I/O requests

d)

Store instructions temporarily

88.

In a typical CPU, which element temporarily holds instructions being executed?

a)

Instruction register

b)

Program counter

c)

Stack pointer

d)

Status register

89.

Which memory type retains data without power and is used for firmware?

a)

SRAM

b)

ROM

c)

Cache

d)

DRAM

90.

Which register tracks the address of the next instruction to fetch?

a)

Program counter

b)

Accumulator

c)

Index register

d)

Base register

91.

Compared to ROM, RAM is primarily used for which purpose during program execution?

a)

Temporary working data

b)

Bootloader storage

c)

Permanent storage

d)

Microcode routines

92.

Which statement best explains why RAM is called volatile?

a)

It loses data when power is off

b)

It stores data permanently by default

c)

It uses magnetic storage for data

d)

It cannot be written to by CPU

93.

Which component performs arithmetic and logical operations in a processor?

a)

ALU executes arithmetic and logic

b)

Cache holds frequently used data

c)

Control Unit manages instruction sequencing

d)

Register File stores temporary operands

94.

Which unit directs the flow of instructions and coordinates other components?

a)

Control Unit orchestrates execution

b)

ALU carries out computations

c)

Register File buffers operands

d)

Cache accelerates memory access

95.

What is the primary role of the register file?

a)

Control sequencing and scheduling

b)

Execute arithmetic and logical operations

c)

Store temporary operands for fast access

d)

Hold frequently accessed memory blocks

96.

What is the main benefit of a cache in a CPU?

a)

Schedules threads and interrupts

b)

Stores immediate values for instructions

c)

Performs integer multiplication quickly

d)

Reduces average memory access latency

97.

Compute the binary sum: 1101 + 1010

a)

11000

b)

11110

c)

10111

d)

10011

98.

When is the Carry Flag (CF) set in unsigned arithmetic?

a)

No overflow but sign bit flips unexpectedly

b)

Operation yields a zero after subtraction

c)

An addition produces a carry out of MSB

d)

Result becomes negative in two’s complement

99.

Which statement correctly distinguishes CF from OF in binary addition?

a)

CF indicates signed overflow conditions

b)

CF is about carry out; OF about signed overflow

c)

OF tracks borrow in subtraction only

d)

Both CF and OF mean the same event

100.

For 8-bit unsigned addition, what happens when 200 + 100 is computed?

a)

Stores 44 and clears all flags

b)

Triggers OF but not CF

c)

Produces 300 with no flags set

d)

Wraps modulo 256 and sets CF

101.

Which component most directly feeds operands to the ALU during execution?

a)

Control Unit dispatches micro-ops

b)

Register File supplies source values

c)

Main memory writes condition codes

d)

Cache decodes instruction formats

102.

What is the typical use of cache relative to registers?

a)

Cache is larger than registers but slower

b)

Cache holds opcodes instead of data

c)

Cache is smaller than registers and faster

d)

Cache executes logic while registers fetch

103.

In two’s complement representation, which statement is true?

a)

It is not used in modern systems

b)

Addition needs special handling

c)

The MSB determines the sign

d)

The MSB is always zero

104.

Which option is NOT an addressing mode in microprocessors?

a)

Immediate mode

b)

Direct mode

c)

Indirect mode

d)

Sequential mode

105.

A division operation produces which characteristic outcome?

a)

Only a sign change

b)

Only an overflow flag

c)

Only a remainder value

d)

Only a carry-out bit

106.

An arithmetic operation can result in which condition related to the most significant bit?

a)

A borrow into the MSB

b)

A carry out of the MSB

c)

A zeroing of the MSB

d)

A parity flip on the MSB

107.

If the MSB determines the sign in two’s complement, what does an MSB of 1 indicate for a number?

a)

The value is positive

b)

The value is negative

c)

The value is fractional

d)

The value is undefined

108.

Which addressing mode uses the operand value embedded directly within the instruction?

a)

Immediate mode

b)

Direct mode

c)

Indexed mode

d)

Indirect mode

109.

In microprocessor addressing, which mode accesses memory via a pointer stored in a register?

a)

Immediate mode

b)

Direct mode

c)

Indirect mode

d)

Sequential mode

110.

Which flag is most relevant when a carry is produced out of the most significant bit during addition?

a)

Parity flag

b)

Sign flag

c)

Carry flag

d)

Zero flag

111.

During integer division, which pair of outputs is typically produced by hardware?

a)

Quotient and remainder

b)

Sum and difference

c)

Product and modulus

d)

Exponent and mantissa

112.

Which statement best explains why two’s complement is widely used in computers?

a)

It avoids negative numbers entirely

b)

It requires special addition rules

c)

It stores separate sign and magnitude

d)

It simplifies subtraction via addition

113.

Which ROM variant is designed to be programmed a single time and then permanently fixed?

a)

PROM, programmed once and permanent

b)

EEPROM, electrically erasable many times

c)

EPROM, erasable with ultraviolet light

d)

Flash memory, block-erasable and rewritable

114.

Which data structure inherently follows the First In, First Out access order?

a)

Stack, last in first out behavior

b)

Tree, hierarchical parent–child model

c)

Queue, first in first out discipline

d)

Linked list, pointer-based sequence

115.

Which memory type requires UV light exposure to remove stored data before reprogramming?

a)

SRAM, volatile cache storage

b)

EEPROM, electrical erasure only

c)

EPROM, ultraviolet erasure needed

d)

PROM, permanently fixed contents

116.

Select the structure that uses push and pop operations to manage elements.

a)

Graph, add and explore

b)

Stack, push and pop operations

c)

Queue, enqueue and dequeue

d)

Tree, insert and traverse

117.

Which option best distinguishes EEPROM from Flash memory in typical usage?

a)

Volatile behavior versus persistent behavior

b)

Magnetic storage versus optical storage

c)

Ultraviolet erasure versus thermal erasure

d)

Byte-level erasure versus block-level erasure

118.

A system must process tasks in arrival order to ensure fairness. Which data structure should be used?

a)

Queue for arrival-order processing

b)

Hash table for constant lookup

c)

Stack for reverse-order handling

d)

Tree for hierarchical scheduling

119.

You need read-only firmware that can never be altered after manufacturing. Which memory is most appropriate?

a)

RAM cleared when power off

b)

PROM burned once at fabrication

c)

EEPROM updated electrically

d)

Flash memory rewritable blocks

120.

Which action correctly describes removing the front element from a queue?

a)

Shift removes last element

b)

Delete removes random element

c)

Pop removes top element

d)

Dequeue removes front element

121.

A developer must occasionally patch device configuration bytes without rewriting whole blocks. Which memory is ideal?

a)

Flash for block-level updates

b)

EEPROM for byte-level updates

c)

PROM for single-time write

d)

CD-ROM for optical read-only

122.

Which claim about stacks and queues is accurate?

a)

Stacks use LIFO; queues use FIFO

b)

Stacks use FIFO; queues use LIFO

c)

Both use FIFO access order

d)

Both use LIFO access order

123.

What is the average-case time complexity of Binary Search on a sorted array?

a)

O(n) per search operation

b)

O(n log n) overall time

c)

O(log n) per search

d)

O(1) constant time

124.

Which operation in a queue removes the element at the front?

a)

Pop from front end

b)

Push from rear end

c)

Dequeue from front

d)

Enqueue into rear

125.

Which of the following is NOT a linear data structure?

a)

Queue with FIFO order

b)

Tree with hierarchical nodes

c)

Linked list of nodes

d)

Array with fixed indexing

126.

For Binary Search to work correctly, what precondition must hold for the data?

a)

Data must be random

b)

Data must be sorted

c)

Data must be unique

d)

Data must be large

127.

What is the main difference between stack and queue removal operations?

a)

Both use priority-based removal

b)

Both use random access removal

c)

Stack uses LIFO, queue uses FIFO

d)

Stack uses FIFO, queue uses LIFO

128.

Which scenario best suits Binary Search over Linear Search?

a)

Dynamic streaming dataset

b)

Small unsorted dataset

c)

Sparse dataset with duplicates

d)

Large sorted dataset

129.

If a queue supports Enqueue and Dequeue, which additional operation most directly inspects the next removal?

a)

Pop from top element

b)

Peek at front element

c)

Insert at front end

d)

Push onto rear end

130.

When analyzing algorithms, which complexity class indicates logarithmic growth in work?

a)

O(n) linear growth

b)

O(n^2) quadratic growth

c)

O(1) constant growth

d)

O(log n) logarithmic growth

131.

Which invariant ensures correct mid-point narrowing in Binary Search?

a)

Search window always expands

b)

Pivot always moves to right

c)

Indices are swapped each step

d)

Low index never exceeds high

132.

A queue implementation using a circular array prevents which common issue?

a)

Duplicate elements insertion

b)

Wasted slots after dequeues

c)

Index overflow at rear

d)

Memory fragmentation

133.

In Selection Sort, which element is selected at each step while sorting elements in ascending order?

a)

Any random element

b)

The middle element

c)

The smallest element

d)

The largest element

134.

What type of data structure is typically used to manage function calls during recursion?

a)

Queue structure

b)

Graph structure

c)

Tree structure

d)

Stack structure

135.

Which data structure follows First-In, First-Out ordering for element processing?

a)

Tree ordering

b)

Heap ordering

c)

Queue ordering

d)

Stack ordering

136.

Which data structure is best described by Last-In, First-Out removal of elements?

a)

Queue removal

b)

Stack removal

c)

Table removal

d)

List removal

137.

During Selection Sort on an unsorted array, what is the primary operation performed after selecting the candidate element?

a)

Enqueue for later use

b)

Push onto recursion stack

c)

Swap with current position

d)

Insert candidate at front

138.

In recursion, why is a stack preferred for tracking active calls?

a)

Supports FIFO ordering

b)

Supports breadth-first

c)

Supports LIFO unwinding

d)

Supports random access

139.

Which structure naturally represents hierarchical relationships among elements?

a)

Tree structure

b)

Queue structure

c)

Array structure

d)

Stack structure

140.

When implementing Selection Sort, what determines the element chosen during each pass for ascending order?

a)

Arbitrary chosen value

b)

Current largest value

c)

Current smallest value

d)

Median of subarray

141.

A recursive algorithm terminates when which condition is met for its call stack?

a)

Base case reached

b)

No base case found

c)

Tree becomes balanced

d)

Queue becomes empty

142.

Which statement best differentiates queue behavior from stack behavior?

a)

Queues remove newest items

b)

Stacks remove newest items

c)

Both remove newest items

d)

Neither removes newest items

143.

Which sorting algorithm follows the divide-and-conquer paradigm?

a)

Bubble sort with pairwise swaps

b)

Selection sort with minimal picks

c)

Merge sort with recursive splits

d)

Insertion sort with incremental shifts

144.

Which structure is not considered dynamic in typical implementations?

a)

Array with fixed size allocation

b)

Stack with linked nodes growth

c)

Queue with dynamic linked storage

d)

Tree with nodes inserted on demand

145.

What operation pattern best characterizes a stack?

a)

LIFO with top-based access

b)

Random access with indices

c)

FIFO with front removals only

d)

Priority-based removal rules

146.

In a queue, which access order is standard for removals?

a)

Middle elements removed first

b)

Highest-priority removed first

c)

First-in elements removed first

d)

Last-in elements removed first

147.

Which data structure naturally supports hierarchical relationships?

a)

Tree with parent-child links

b)

Queue with linear ordering

c)

Stack with single access point

d)

Array with contiguous elements

148.

Which scenario most benefits from a linked list over an array?

a)

Constant-time range queries on slices

b)

Fixed-size numeric matrix storage

c)

Frequent random index lookups

d)

Frequent middle insertions and deletions

149.

Which statement best explains why merge sort is stable?

a)

Swaps only adjacent unequal items

b)

Selects minimum using strict ties

c)

Merges halves preserving equal order

d)

Inserts elements by shifting left

150.

Which disadvantage is typical for arrays compared to linked lists?

a)

Costly resizing for growth needs

b)

Slow traversal of consecutive cells

c)

Non-contiguous memory fragmentation

d)

Higher pointer overhead per element