Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Hygiene, Grooming and Skin Integrity

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure forms the front part of the roof of the mouth?

a)

Tonsil on the side of throat

b)

Uvula hanging from soft palate

c)

Soft palate at the mouth roof

d)

Hard palate at the mouth roof

2.

During a mouth inspection, which finding most likely indicates mucosal inflammation?

a)

Red swollen areas with tenderness

b)

Smooth moist surface throughout

c)

Uniform pale healthy appearance

d)

Blue discoloration of the lips

3.

Which observation of the lips best suggests cyanosis?

a)

Bluish discoloration of lip tissue

b)

Normal moist and elastic lips

c)

Pale but warm pink color

d)

Dry cracked appearance of lips

4.

Identify the soft tissue that hangs from the soft palate.

a)

Epiglottis near the larynx

b)

Uvula at the soft palate

c)

Frenulum under the tongue

d)

Retromolar trigone tissue

5.

When assessing dental appliances, which items should be noted?

a)

Dentures, partial plates, bridges, crowns

b)

Braces, tongue rings, lip fillers

c)

Toothbrush brand and floss type

d)

Chewing gum and mouthwash use

6.

A patient’s mucosa appears unhealthy and pale. What is the most appropriate next nursing action?

a)

Document finding and assess for ulcers

b)

Ignore because pale is always normal

c)

Immediately start antibiotic therapy

d)

Recommend cosmetic lip hydration

7.

Which area is correctly described as the back part of the roof of the mouth?

a)

Inside of cheek mucosa

b)

Floor of mouth under tongue

c)

Hard palate forming roof front

d)

Soft palate at the mouth roof

8.

Which lip finding most strongly indicates dehydration during assessment?

a)

Dry cracked lips with fissures

b)

Moist pink lips with shine

c)

Bluish coloring without dryness

d)

Swollen lips with vesicles only

9.

Which is a primary purpose of maintaining good oral hygiene?

a)

To promote plaque accumulation

b)

To weaken natural saliva defenses

c)

To increase tooth sensitivity daily

d)

To freshen the mouth regularly

10.

Which outcome best reflects keeping the oral cavity clean and healthy?

a)

Persistent halitosis despite brushing

b)

Increased tartar formation quickly

c)

Reduced risk of mouth infections

d)

Higher likelihood of ulcer cracking

11.

Preventing unpleasant taste and halitosis primarily promotes what?

a)

Comfort during social interactions

b)

Rapid dental enamel erosion

c)

Tongue coating and taste dulling

d)

Ligament inflammation around teeth

12.

Which complication is directly linked to poor oral hygiene?

a)

Plaque and tartar buildup

b)

Strengthened immune saliva

c)

Enhanced chewing efficiency

d)

Improved mucosal hydration

13.

Halitosis is best defined as:

a)

Fungal thrush infection

b)

Bad breath condition

c)

Inflamed gum tissue

d)

Tooth decay process

14.

Poor oral care can lead to reduced nutrition intake primarily due to:

a)

Heightened taste sensitivity

b)

Accelerated tooth whitening

c)

Excessive saliva production

d)

Inability to chew effectively

15.

Dryness of oral mucosa from poor hygiene may result in:

a)

Cracking and ulcers formation

b)

Stronger periodontal ligaments

c)

Immediate enamel remineralization

d)

Improved taste perception

16.

A coated tongue can lead to which downstream effect?

a)

Enhanced breath freshness daily

b)

Dulling of taste and appetite loss

c)

Rapid plaque removal and comfort

d)

Increased saliva buffering power

17.

Identify the inflammation of oral mucosa from the list:

a)

Periodontitis syndrome

b)

Glossitis disease

c)

Stomatitis condition

d)

Gingivitis disorder

18.

Glossitis refers specifically to inflammation of the:

a)

Gum tissues

b)

Ligaments supporting teeth

c)

Tongue structure

d)

Oral mucosa

19.

Which term describes inflammation of the gums?

a)

Gingivitis state

b)

Stomatitis issue

c)

Glossitis event

d)

Candidiasis case

20.

Periodontitis involves inflammation of which supporting structures?

a)

Ligaments, gums, and bones

b)

Tongue papillae and taste buds

c)

Salivary glands and ducts

d)

Tooth enamel and dentin

21.

Which complication of poor oral hygiene is a fungal infection commonly seen in debilitated patients?

a)

Parotitis bacterial infection of salivary glands

b)

Pharyngitis bacterial inflammation of pharynx

c)

Oral thrush candidiasis occurs in the mouth

d)

Laryngitis viral swelling of the larynx

22.

Sordes refers to which oral finding requiring nursing attention during care?

a)

Purulent drainage from gingival crevices

b)

Ulcerations along buccal mucosa surfaces

c)

White patches due to candidal hyphae growth

d)

Foul matter collected on teeth tongue lips

23.

Which body region can oral infections spread to if hygiene is neglected?

a)

Pharynx leading to pharyngitis inflammation

b)

Esophagus causing reflux esophagitis irritation

c)

Duodenum causing duodenitis villous damage

d)

Stomach causing gastritis mucosal erosion

24.

A patient who is dyspnoeic is most likely to need assistance with oral hygiene because they

a)

Are at risk of dental caries from mouth breathing

b)

Have increased saliva requiring frequent suctioning

c)

Need antibiotic prophylaxis before brushing

d)

Experience breathlessness limiting self-care ability

25.

Which patient profile typically requires oral hygiene assistance from nursing staff?

a)

Athlete recovering from minor ankle sprain

b)

Elective outpatient with short day surgery

c)

Healthy adult with independent mobility

d)

Comatose with impaired protective reflexes

26.

Before starting oral care, what is the primary assessment to promote cooperation and reduce anxiety in a conscious weak patient?

a)

Request dentist consult immediately

b)

Perform oral swab test for microbes

c)

Check vital signs and chart medications

d)

Assess mental and physical status first

27.

Why should the nurse check for loose teeth and removable dental plates before oral care?

a)

To document baseline cosmetic appearance

b)

To prevent accidental dislodgement and injury

c)

To improve taste perception during care

d)

To enhance fluoride absorption into enamel

28.

Which positioning best reduces aspiration risk during oral care for an unconscious patient?

a)

Semi-Fowler’s with head to side

b)

High Fowler’s with neck hyperextended

c)

Prone with head facing downward

d)

Supine flat with chin elevated

29.

Aspiration pneumonia prevention during oral care primarily depends on

a)

Administering prophylactic broad antibiotics

b)

Brushing with stiff bristles for plaque removal

c)

Using alcohol-based mouthwashes routinely

d)

Maintaining airway protection and suctioning

30.

Which high‑risk group for poor oral hygiene complications requires special education on mouth care while on NBM with tube feeding?

a)

Postoperative patients allowed fluids

b)

Children with routine dental checkups

c)

Ambulatory adults on regular oral diets

d)

Patients artificially fed via TPN NGT PEG

31.

Which initial nursing action best ensures appropriate oral hygiene products are selected for a patient?

a)

Assess the patient’s oral condition thoroughly

b)

Encourage the patient to attempt self-care

c)

Apply standard precautions consistently

d)

Place the patient in Semi-Fowler’s position

32.

What is the primary purpose of encouraging self‑care during oral hygiene?

a)

To shorten the total care time

b)

To promote independence in daily activities

c)

To reduce the need for dental referral

d)

To prevent aspiration pneumonia

33.

Practicing standard precautions during oral care mainly aims to achieve which outcome?

a)

Increase saliva production

b)

Enhance patient motivation to brush

c)

Improve fluoride uptake by enamel

d)

Prevent cross‑contamination between individuals

34.

When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, which positioning is most appropriate to reduce aspiration risk?

a)

Prone with head turned left

b)

Semi‑Fowler’s or lateral positioning

c)

Trendelenburg with chin lifted

d)

Supine with neck extended

35.

A patient reports mouth soreness and a loose tooth. What is the best next step?

a)

Apply topical anesthetic and continue care

b)

Advise immediate flossing of the area

c)

Observe and report findings for early treatment

d)

Delay care until next dental visit

36.

Which recommendation supports mucosal moisture and reduces dryness?

a)

Avoid all fruit to limit acids

b)

Encourage adequate fluid intake daily

c)

Brush teeth once weekly at night

d)

Use mouthwash before each meal

37.

What is the key benefit of brushing and flossing regularly in oral hygiene?

a)

Strengthen jaw bone growth

b)

Prevent tartar or thrush formation

c)

Eliminate all oral bacteria

d)

Increase vitamin D absorption

38.

For long‑term oral health maintenance, how frequently should patients follow up with a dentist when possible?

a)

Every six months routinely

b)

Every month after meals

c)

Every two years if asymptomatic

d)

Only when pain is severe

39.

Which is a primary purpose of performing an assisted bath or shower for a dependent patient?

a)

To cleanse the skin thoroughly

b)

To enhance muscle hypertrophy

c)

To accelerate wound granulation

d)

To decrease sebaceous gland output

40.

Which benefit of skin cleansing during assisted bathing most directly reduces social discomfort for patients?

a)

Stimulating hair follicles

b)

Increasing skin turgor

c)

Improving venous return

d)

Preventing body odour

41.

A nurse aims to promote patient comfort during assisted showering. Which outcome best reflects that goal?

a)

Greater sebaceous activity

b)

Improved sense of well‑being

c)

Higher systolic blood pressure

d)

Reduced sweat secretion

42.

Which patient type most likely requires assisted bath due to restricted movement after surgery?

a)

Healthy adult with dermatitis

b)

Adolescent with acne

c)

New parent with fatigue

d)

Post‑operative joint replacement

43.

Which patient condition indicates assisted bathing due to mobility limitations rather than skin disease?

a)

Paralysis or amputation

b)

Eczema with itching

c)

Psoriasis flare‑up

d)

Seborrheic dermatitis

44.

A patient with severe depression struggles to perform self‑care. What is the most appropriate nursing action regarding bathing?

a)

Restrict fluids pre‑bath

b)

Provide assisted bath support

c)

Delay bathing indefinitely

d)

Discontinue hygiene completely

45.

Before assisting with a shower, which assessment best evaluates the patient’s ability to hold the showerhead and support themselves?

a)

Motor power of upper limbs

b)

Serum creatinine level

c)

Skin turgor measurement

d)

Capillary refill time

46.

Which pre‑procedure check is essential when a patient has an indwelling urinary catheter?

a)

Increase shower water temperature

b)

Manage lines and drainage tubes

c)

Avoid cleansing below the waist

d)

Remove catheter temporarily

47.

A stroke survivor has unsteady gait and poor coordination. What is the safest bathing approach?

a)

Use dry shampoo only

b)

Arrange assisted showering

c)

Encourage independent shower

d)

Prohibit all hygiene care

48.

Which action best prevents slips when assisting a patient to bathe in the bathroom?

a)

Lay a towel over the wet tiles

b)

Ask patient to walk barefoot on tiles

c)

Use socks to improve floor traction

d)

Place non-slip rubber mat on the floor

49.

Before seating a patient on a commode chair, what safety step must be confirmed?

a)

Commode chair wheels are locked securely

b)

The privacy curtain is fully closed

c)

The chair cushion is warmed slightly

d)

The basin is prefilled with clean water

50.

Where should bathing items, clothing, and the call button be positioned for safe patient bathing?

a)

Within easy reach of the patient

b)

On a nearby countertop shelf

c)

At the end of the bed far side

d)

In a labeled storage cabinet

51.

Which instruction reduces risk when a patient uses the bathroom alone?

a)

Keep door ajar and avoid call bell

b)

Close door tightly and shout for help

c)

Lock door firmly and wait quietly

d)

Do not lock the door and use call bell

52.

A patient rests feet on the commode footrest. What should they be told regarding standing?

a)

Stand quickly then lift footrest

b)

Lift knees and pivot to stand

c)

Stand slowly with feet on footrest

d)

Do not stand while feet on footrest

53.

When assisting with bathing, how should drainage tubing be managed to prevent complications?

a)

Disconnect tubes during bath

b)

Handle drainage tubes carefully

c)

Clamp all tubes temporarily

d)

Let tubes hang freely loose

54.

Which patient action should be encouraged when rising to stand in the bathroom?

a)

Place hands on wet tiles

b)

Keep arms crossed at chest

c)

Grasp movable towel rails

d)

Hold the installed safety bars

55.

For a high fall-risk patient during bathing, what is the safest staff approach?

a)

Check intermittently every minute

b)

Use a monitor instead of presence

c)

Wait outside with door closed

d)

Always remain with the patient

56.

Which practice maintains flow and prevents backflow in patient tubing during hygiene care?

a)

Elevate tubing above the source

b)

Loop tubing tightly around bar

c)

Avoid kinking or tugging of tubing

d)

Let tubing rest under patient

57.

How should wound dressings be managed during bathing to prevent moisture exposure?

a)

Double tape edges only

b)

Leave uncovered to observe

c)

Remove and air-dry the wound

d)

Cover with waterproof material

58.

Which is a primary purpose of a bed bath for immobile patients?

a)

To increase medication absorption through skin

b)

To replace physical therapy sessions daily

c)

To prevent body odour and skin contaminants

d)

To reduce fluid intake and urinary output

59.

Which benefit of a bed bath most directly supports cardiovascular health?

a)

Improves nutrition through increased appetite

b)

Enhances sleep cycle via melatonin release

c)

Promotes blood circulation in peripheral tissues

d)

Eliminates pathogens from hospital environment

60.

Which patient type most commonly requires a bed bath in acute care?

a)

Outpatient coming for routine check

b)

Postnatal patient without complications

c)

Ambulatory with minor sprain

d)

Critically ill with limited mobility

61.

A patient is confused and bedbound after surgery. What nursing action is most appropriate before starting the bed bath?

a)

Assess movement limitations and safe positioning

b)

Encourage independent shower without supervision

c)

Administer diuretics to prevent fluid overload

d)

Avoid communication to reduce agitation

62.

Which statement best describes perineal hygiene in bed bathing?

a)

Optional if patient wears absorbent briefs

b)

Performed only by physicians during rounds

c)

Essential to prevent infection and skin breakdown

d)

Avoided to reduce patient embarrassment

63.

You note redness over the sacrum during a bed bath. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Document and escalate for pressure injury prevention

b)

Increase water temperature to improve circulation

c)

Ignore findings and proceed with routine steps

d)

Apply ice directly for immediate relief

64.

Before initiating a bed bath for a patient with total hip replacement, what should you prioritize?

a)

Assess permissible movement and positioning precautions

b)

Perform range-of-motion on the operated hip

c)

Massage the operative hip to relax muscles

d)

Place patient supine without supports

65.

Which action best promotes patient dignity during bed bathing?

a)

Keep curtains open for continuous observation

b)

Remove all linens for faster workflow

c)

Provide privacy and encourage independence

d)

Discuss unrelated topics loudly with staff

66.

For a paralyzed patient, what assessment is crucial during bed bathing?

a)

Evaluate oral intake during previous meal

b)

Measure peak expiratory flow and FEV1

c)

Check for limb impairment and skin integrity

d)

Assess ability to ambulate independently

67.

What is the safest approach to water temperature during a bed bath?

a)

Adjust to warm and verify comfort frequently

b)

Use cold water to minimize vasodilation

c)

Avoid testing; rely on standard thermostat

d)

Keep very hot water to ensure deep cleaning

68.

When undressing a patient with hemiplegia, which sleeve should be removed first to ease clothing removal?

a)

Both sleeves simultaneously

b)

Unaffected arm sleeve first

c)

Affected arm sleeve first

d)

Either arm sleeve first

69.

During undressing, how should sleeves be removed for a patient with an intravenous infusion?

a)

Remove sleeve from IV hand first

b)

Remove sleeve from non‑IV hand first

c)

Disconnect IV before removing sleeve

d)

Cut sleeve near IV site

70.

When dressing a patient with hemiplegia, which arm should be slipped into the sleeve first?

a)

Affected arm first

b)

Unaffected arm first

c)

Either arm first

d)

Both arms together

71.

While dressing a patient on IV infusion, which sleeve should be put on first?

a)

Sleeve on the non‑IV hand

b)

Sleeve on the IV hand

c)

Sleeve on either hand

d)

Sleeve after stopping the IV

72.

Which sequence best balances patient comfort and ease of movement for hemiplegia during dressing and undressing?

a)

Dress affected first, undress unaffected first

b)

Dress unaffected first, undress unaffected first

c)

Dress affected first, undress affected first

d)

Dress unaffected first, undress affected first

73.

Which action reduces risk of dislodging an IV cannula during clothing changes?

a)

Remove sleeve from IV limb first

b)

Apply sleeve to IV limb first

c)

Twist tubing around the sleeve

d)

Briefly occlude IV flow during dressing

74.

What is the primary purpose of performing a hair wash for patients?

a)

To keep hair and scalp clean and healthy

b)

To increase hair length rapidly and permanently

c)

To change natural hair color without chemicals

d)

To eliminate all dandruff in a single session

75.

Which patient most likely requires assistance with hair washing during inpatient care?

a)

Comatose patient with limited mobility

b)

Healthy adult with full independence

c)

Outpatient visiting for routine checkup

d)

Athlete recovering from minor sprain

76.

During perineal care, why is front-to-back cleaning essential?

a)

It reduces transfer of bacteria to urethra

b)

It prevents soap residue in the folds

c)

It dries the area faster after cleaning

d)

It improves lotion absorption into skin

77.

Which outcome is a direct goal of perineal and genital care?

a)

Enhance muscle strength in lower limbs

b)

Induce rapid wound epithelialization

c)

Prevent offensive odour and promote comfort

d)

Increase systemic blood pressure significantly

78.

Which patient group listed typically needs help with hair washing in the hospital?

a)

Paralyzed, bedbound, critically ill

b)

Middle-aged, independent office worker

c)

Pregnant, ambulant, hemodynamically stable

d)

Pediatric, alert, playful toddler

79.

When providing perineal care to an uncircumcised male, which step is correct?

a)

Leave foreskin retracted to air-dry fully

b)

Gently retract foreskin, clean, then replace

c)

Avoid touching foreskin to prevent irritation

d)

Clean only the shaft, avoid glans area

80.

Which infection is directly targeted for prevention through perineal care?

a)

Urinary tract infection and fungal infection

b)

Malaria and dengue fever infection

c)

Viral hepatitis and measles infection

d)

Pneumonia and otitis media infection

81.

Before performing hair wash or perineal care, which action upholds patient dignity?

a)

Announce procedure to the entire ward

b)

Obtain consent and ensure privacy

c)

Proceed quickly without explanation

d)

Leave doors open for easy access

82.

A bedbound patient is weak and critically ill. You must plan hair washing. Which approach shows appropriate infection control and safety?

a)

Position patient flat without head support

b)

Soak mattress thoroughly to rinse hair

c)

Skip gloves to finish the task faster

d)

Use clean equipment, maintain body alignment

83.

A patient reports discomfort in the perineal region. Which plan best addresses comfort and infection prevention?

a)

Use cold water rapidly with vigorous scrubbing

b)

Delay care until symptoms fully resolve

c)

Apply strong fragrance directly without cleaning

d)

Perform gentle front-to-back cleaning with warm water

84.

Which patient most likely requires specialized perineal and genital care?

a)

Post-surgery and weak

b)

Independent and alert

c)

Recovering and energetic

d)

Ambulatory and stable

85.

What is the primary reason to clean the perineal area from front to back?

a)

Reduce infection risk

b)

Increase patient comfort

c)

Shorten procedure time

d)

Improve skin hydration

86.

Before providing perineal care, what should the nurse do to uphold dignity?

a)

Limit verbal communication

b)

Ensure privacy throughout

c)

Avoid explaining steps

d)

Remove all linens quickly

87.

Which patient condition indicates a need for assistance with perineal care?

a)

Seasonal allergies

b)

Unconscious or confused

c)

Mild dehydration only

d)

Minor ankle sprain

88.

When caring for an uncircumcised male, which action is essential?

a)

Retract foreskin and cleanse

b)

Avoid touching the foreskin

c)

Clean only the shaft area

d)

Use dry gauze exclusively

89.

A patient with prolonged vulval or vaginal irritation needs perineal care primarily due to:

a)

Dermatologic sunburn

b)

Orthopedic surgery

c)

Gynaecological disorder

d)

Respiratory infection

90.

After perineal care, which finding must be reported to the staff in-charge?

a)

No unusual odor

b)

Patient consent obtained

c)

Normal skin tone

d)

Redness or discharge