wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Test Ngoại 1-80

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Non mechanical obstruction is also known as paralytic ileus or adynamic ileus.

a)

T

b)

F

2.

Hypovolemia is a common complication of intestinal obstruction.

a)

T

b)

F

3.

An obstruction high in the small intestine often results in metabolic acidosis.

a)

T

b)

F

4.

Intussusception is twisting of the intestine.

a)

T

b)

F

5.

Volvulus is telescoping of a segment of the intestine within itself.

a)

T

b)

F

6.

Hypokalemia is the most common electrolyte disturbance that predispose the patient to intestinal obstruction.

a)

T

b)

F

7.

Intestinal obstruction due to phytobezoar is a mechanical obstruction.

a)

T

b)

F

8.

Ileus is a paralytic or functional variety of obstruction.

a)

T

b)

F

9.

In order, the main clinical signs of bowel obstruction include nausea or vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, and blockage of gas or stool.

a)

T

b)

F

10.

Nausea and vomiting may be caused from anesthetic agents or narcotics, delayed gastric emptying, slowed peristalsis, resumption of oral intake too soon after surgery.

a)

T

b)

F

11.

Which key feature does the nurse most likely find when performing a physical assessment on the patient with a small-bowel obstruction?

a)

Visible peristaltic waves in the upper and middle abdomen.

b)

Minimal or no vomiting.

c)

No major fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

d)

Metabolic acidosis.

12.

Crohn’s disease can cause a mechanical obstruction.

a)

T

b)

F

13.

What does nursing care of the patient with intestinal obstruction who reports discomfort in the early diagnostic period consist of?

a)

Administration of opioid analgesics.

b)

Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler’s position.

c)

Providing the patient with fluids.

d)

Offering the patient semi-soft food.

14.

Which intervention apply to patients with fluid volume deficit related to an intestinal obstruction?

a)

Provide frequent mouth care with lemon glycerin swabs.

b)

Offer ice chips to suck on before surgery.

c)

Offer a small glass of water.

d)

Assess for edema from third spacing.

15.

Which observation of the patient with an intestinal obstruction does the nurse report immediately?

a)

Urinary output of 1000 ml in an 8 hour period.

b)

The patient’s request for something to drink.

c)

Abdominal pain changing from colicky to constant discomfort.

d)

The patient who is changing positions frequently.

16.

Which discharge information does the nurse include for the patient who has had an intestinal obstruction caused by fecal impaction?

a)

Encourage the patient to report abdominal distention, nausea or vomiting, and constipation.

b)

Provide the patient a written description of a low-fiber diet.

c)

Remind the patient to limit activity.

d)

Remind the patient to decrease fluid intake.

17.

The nurse is teaching the patient about colostomy care. Which information does the nurse include in the teaching plan?

a)

The stoma will enlarage within 6 to 8 weeks of surgery.

b)

Use a moisturizing soap to cleanse the area around the stoma.

c)

Place the colostomy bag on the skin when the skin sealant is still damp.

d)

An antifungal cream or powder can be used if a fungal rash develops.

18.

Which statement about the care of the patient wiwht a colostomy is correct?

a)

A healthy stoma should be dry.

b)

The stoma should protrude about 5 cm from the abdominal wall.

c)

When palpating the stoma, it should feel firm.

d)

A slight amount of edema is normal in the initial postoperative period.

19.

The nurse immediately reports to surgeon all but which sign/symptom related to a colostomy?

a)

Liquid stool immediately postoperatively.

b)

Unusual bleeding.

c)

Signs of ischemia and necrosis.

d)

Mucocutaneous separation.

20.

After colostomy surgery, which intervention does the nurse employ?

a)

Cover the stoma with a dry, sterile dressing.

b)

Apply a pouch system as soon as possible.

c)

Make a hole in the pouch for gas to escape.

d)

Watch for the colostomy to start functioning day 1.

21.

Patients with pancreatitis often have Turner's sign which is a gray-blue discoloration of the abdomen and periumbilical area.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The pain of acute pancreatitis is often described as intense, boring, and continuous.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Typically, a patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis after presenting with severe abdominal pain in the mid-epigastric area or left upper quadrant.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Abdominal pain is the prominal symptom of pancreatitis.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Anticholinergics are given to increase vagal stimulation, motility, and pancreatic flow.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Pain management for acute pancreatitis should begin with rapid infusion of opioids by means of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Helping the patient to assume a supine position decreases the abdominal pain of pancreatitis.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Patients in the early stages of acute pancreatitis are usually maintained on NPO status.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for acute pancreatitis?

a)

Risk for deficient fluid volume related to abnormal and normal routines.

b)

Nausea related to pancreatic disease.

c)

Risk for infection related to necrotic pancreatic tissue.

d)

Acute pain related to biologic and injury agents.

30.

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate in verifying a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Trypsine

b)

Lipase

c)

Alkaline phosphatase

d)

Alanine aminotransferase

31.

The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for the development of paralytic (adynamic) ileus. Which action provides the nurse with the best indication of bowel function?

a)

Observing contents of the nasogastric drainage.

b)

Auscultation of bowel sounds.

c)

Asking the patient if he or she has passed flatus or had a stool.

d)

Obtaining a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen with contrast medium.

32.

Which drug is contraindicated for the patient with paralytic ileus?

a)

Ranitidine (Zantac)

b)

Cefuroxime (Zinacef)

c)

Papaverine (Pavabid)

d)

Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

33.

The nurse has instructed the patient in the recovery phase of acute pancreatitis about diet therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful?

a)

"I will eat the ususal three meals a day that I am used to".

b)

"I am eating tacos for my first meal back home".

c)

"I will avoid eating chocolate".

d)

"I will limit the amound of protein in my diet".

34.

If complications of pancreatitis such as pancreatic pseudocyst and abscess appear, surgical drainage may be necessary.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

If pancreatitis is caused by biliary tract obstruction, the physician may perform a laparotomy (abdominal exploration) for common bile duct exploration and the release of obstruction.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Monitors drainage tubes for patency by assessing for kinks in the tubes as part of a postoperative plan of care for clients undergoing a surgical intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Maintain the ordered drain suction pressure and system integrity as part of a postoperative plan of care for clients undergoing a surgical intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Record the output amount from the drain and describe the character of the drainage as part of a postoperative plan of care for clients undergoing a surgical intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Provide meticulous skin care and dressing changes, and assess for further deterioration of the tissue as part of a postoperative plan of care for clients undergoing a surgical intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Collaborate with an enterostomal therapist (ET) for measures to promote skin integrity as part of a postoperative plan of care for clients undergoing a surgical intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Peritonitis is caused by contamination of the peritoneal cavity by bacteria or chemicals.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal analysis can cause peritonitis.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

White blood cell counts are often decreased with peritonitis.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Abdominal wall rigidity is a classic finding in patients with peritonitis.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The fluid shift that occurs in peritonitis may result in which of the following?

a)

Intracellular fluid moving into the peritoneal cavity.

b)

Significant increase in circular volume.

c)

Eventual renal failure and electrolyte imbalance.

d)

Increased bowel motility caused by increased fluid volume.

46.

 The source of inflammation in peritonitis rarely comes from

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Internal reproductive organs

c)

The bloodstream

d)

Abdominal gunshot wound

47.

A rare cause of peritonitis is

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Perforated peptic ulcer

c)

Peritoneal dialysis

d)

Bowel perforation secondary to cancer, penetrating wound

48.

Which complication is not due to peritonitis:

a)

Adhesion of small intestine

b)

Abscess formation

c)

Intraabdominal haemorrhage

d)

Paralytic ileus

49.

The respiratory problems that may accompany peritonitis are aresult of which factor?

a)

Associated pain interfering with ventilation

b)

Decreased pressure against the diaphragm

c)

Fluid shifts to thoracic cavity

d)

Decreased oxygen demands related to the infectious process

50.

Which nursing intervention is part of nonsurgical management for the patient with peritonitis?

a)

Monitor weekly weight and intake and output

b)

Insert a nasogastric tube to decompress the stomach

c)

Order a breakfast tray when the patient is hungry

d)

Administer NSAIDs for pain

51.

What are the cardinal signs of peritonitis?

a)

Fever and headache

b)

Dizziness and vomiting

c)

Abdominal pain and tenderness

d)

Nausea and loss of appetite

52.

Which character of abdominal pain is not observed in peritonitis

a)

Constant and diffuse

b)

Intermittent

c)

More intense near the site of inflammation

d)

Movement aggravates pain

53.

Which assessment is not priority in diagnostic of peritonitis

a)

Blood cell count

b)

Abdominal x-ray

c)

CT scan of the abdomen

d)

Peritoneal lavage

54.

Nursing intervention for the patient with peritonitis preoperatively don’t include

a)

Give broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Give foods when the patient arrive at hospital

c)

Place the patient on bed rest

d)

Obtain a history and assess the abdomen

55.

Nursing intervention for the patient with peritonitis postoperatively don’t include

a)

Assess vital signs

b)

Monitor the fluid and electrolyte balance

c)

Immobilize the patient on the bed

d)

Report any manifestation of sepsis

56.

The nurse is instructing the patient about home care after an exploratory laparotomy for peritonitis. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective?

a)

“It is normal for the incision site to be warm”

b)

“I will stop taking the antibiotics if diarrhea develops”

c)

“I will call the health care provider for a temperature greater than 38°C”

d)

“I will resume activity with my bowling league this week for exercise”

57.

The patient is a 65-years-old man who sustained a neck injury during a fall. He has a medical diagnosis of anterior cord syndrome and a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Sensory Perception. The nurse assesses the patient expecting to observe which type of motor and sensory findings below the level of injury?

a)

No motor functions; no sensation to touch, position, and vibration.

b)

Partial motor function; full sense of pain and temperature.

c)

Independent movement; no sense of pain or touch.

d)

No independent movement; full sense of touch or position.

58.

The patient with a cervical neck injury is able to spontaneously move the legs when attempting to move himself in bed, but he is not using or moving his arms or hands. What is this observation consistent with?

a)

Anterior cord syndrome.

b)

Posterior cord syndrome.

c)

Central cord syndrome.

d)

Brown-Sequard syndrome.

59.

The patient involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident with sustained multiple injuries and active bleeding is transported to the emergency departement by ambulance with immobilization devices in place. There is a high probability of cervical spine fracture; the patient has altered mental status and extremities are flaccid. What is the priority assessment for this patient?

a)

Check the mental status using the Glasgow Coma scale.

b)

Assess the respiratory pattern and ensure a patent airway.

c)

Observe for intra-abdominal bleeding and homorrhage.

d)

Assess for loss of motor function and sensation.

60.

The emergency departement nurse is assessing and monitoring the patient with a gunshot wound to the middle of the back. Because the patient is at risk for spinal shock, what does the nurse monitor for?

a)

Decreased blood pressure, bradycardia, and flaccid paralysis.

b)

Tachycardia and a change in the level of consciousness.

c)

Decreased respiratory rate and loss of sensation to pain and touch.

d)

Paralytic ileus and loss of bowel and bladder function.

61.

Which neurologic assessment technique does the nurse use to test the patient for proprioceptive function?

a)

Touch the skin with a clean safety pin and ask whether it is a sharp or dull sensation.

b)

Ask the patient to elevate both arms off the bed and extend wrists and fingers.

c)

Have the patient close the eyes and move the toes up or down; the patient identifies the positions.

d)

Have the patient sit with the legs dangling; use a reflex hammer to test reflex responses.

62.

The patient with an upper spinal cord injury is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this patient?

a)

Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion, Cerebral.

b)

Nausea.

c)

Acute Pain, Headache.

d)

Impaired Physical Mobility.

63.

The nurse is caring for the patient with a recent spinal cord injury (SCI). Which intervention does the nurse use to target and prevent the potential SCI complication of autonomic dysreflexia?

a)

Frequently perform passive ROM exercises.

b)

Keep the room warm and control environmental stimuli.

c)

Keep the patient immobilizied with neck back braces.

d)

Monitor urinary output and check for bladder distention.

64.

What is the potential adverse outcome of autonomic dysreflexia in the patient with a spinal cord injury?

a)

Heat stroke.

b)

Paralytic ileus.

c)

Hypertensive crisis.

d)

Aspiration and pneumonia.

65.

After suffering an SCI, the patient develops autonomic dysfunction, including a neurogenic bladder. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this condition?

a)

Risk for Infection: urinary tract.

b)

Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit: polyuria.

c)

Risk for Self-Care Deficit: toileting.

d)

Risk for Urinary Incontinence: urge.

66.

The nurse and the nursing assistant are working together to bathe and reposition the patient who is in a halo fixator device. Which action by the nursing student causes the supervising nurse to intervene?

a)

Uses the log roll technique to clean the patient’s back and buttocks.

b)

Turns the patient by pulling on the top of the halo device.

c)

Positions the patient with the heah and neck in alignment.

d)

Supports the head and neck area during the repositioning.

67.

The nurse is caring for several patients with SCIs. Which task is best to delegate to the nursing assistant?

a)

Encourage use of incentive spirometry; evaluate the patient ‘s ability to use it correctly.

b)

 Log roll the patient; maintain proper body alignment and place a bedpan for toileting.

c)

Check for skin breakdown under the immobilization devices during bathing.

d)

Insert a Foley catheter and report the amount and color of the urine.

68.

The patient with an SCI has paraplegia and paraparesis. The nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Physical Mobility. The nurse assesses the calf area of both legs for swelling, tenderness, redness, or possible to the patient’s increased risk for which condition?

a)

Contractures of joints.

b)

Bone fractures.

c)

Pressure ulcers.

d)

Deep vein thrombosis.

69.

The nurse is caring for the patient who has been in a long-term care facility for several months following an SCI. The patient has had issues with urinary retention and subsequent overflow incontinence, and a bladder retraining program was recently initiated. Which is an expected outcome of the training program?

a)

Demonstrates a predictable pattern of voiding.

b)

Is able to independently catheterize himself.

c)

Pours warm water over perineum to stimulate voiding.

d)

Takes bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) 1 hour before voiding.

70.

Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve

a)

II

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

VI

71.

A primary brain injury is caused by

a)

ICP

b)

An external force

c)

An abnormal growth of brain tissue

d)

An internal force

72.

A 16 year-old football player is confused after being struck in the head by another player. He states he does not remember much of what happened, just waking up in the hospital about two hours after being hit. This client most likely is suffering from:

a)

Concussion

b)

Moderate brain injury

c)

Severe brain injury

d)

Locked-in syndrome

73.

The nurse is education a group of 7 year old children on preventing brain injury. One of the most important things to tell them is to:

a)

Always wear a helmet when riding your bike, skateboard or inline skates.

b)

Always wear knee and arm pads when riding your bike, skateboard or inline skates.

c)

Look both ways before crossing the street

d)

Always wear supportive shoes when playing outdoors.

74.

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit following a fall down a flight. Upon assessment, the client responds only to pain by withdrawing his hand, and he curses frequently. Using the Glassgow Coma Scale, the nurse rates this patient as a:

a)

15

b)

4

c)

12

d)

9

75.

A common medication given to help decrease ICP is:

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Lasix

d)

Mannitol

76.

The most important nursing diagnosis when caring for a client with an open skull fracture is

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Risk for impaired skin integrity

c)

Risk for impaired physical mobility

d)

Risk for impaired swallowing: aspiration

77.

The consensual pupillary response is tested by:

a)

Asking the client if he or she has trouble closing his or her eyes

b)

Directing a light toward one eye and observing the pupil on the opposite side

c)

Instructing the client to cover one while you observe the opposite eye for extraocular movements

d)

Evaluating the ability of the client’s eyes to converge

78.

Which factor is most likely to depress nerve cell activity in the patient with a neurologic disorder?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

IV infusion of theophylline

c)

Drinking too much coffee

d)

Low oxygen saturation and hypoxia

79.

Which statement about the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is correct?

a)

It is a thorough neurologic assessment tool.

b)

It establishes a baseline for eye opening and motor and verbal response.

c)

It establishes a baseline cognitive function.

d)

A score of 15 indicates serious neurologic impairment with poor prognosis

80.

The nurse is assessing several patients using the GCS. Which factors indicate the most serious neurologic presentation based on the GCS information?

a)

Eye opening to sound, localizes pain, confused conversation

b)

Eye opening to sound, obeys commands, inappropriate words

c)

Eye opening spontaneous, obeys commands, confused conversation.

d)

Eye opening to pain, abnormal flexion, incomprehensible sounds