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Ch.5 Tissue Quiz

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines why cells are considered the functional units of life?

a)

They exist in large numbers within organisms

b)

They perform essential processes sustaining organisms

c)

They house all vital organelles for metabolism

d)

They form tissues by simply adhering together

2.

Approximate how many cells make up the human body.

a)

Ten to twenty million cells

b)

One to two quadrillion cells

c)

Fifty to one hundred trillion cells

d)

Five to ten billion cells

3.

Choose the principle that links anatomy and physiology.

a)

Varied structure determines corresponding function

b)

Function persists despite structural differences

c)

Structure varies yet function remains identical

d)

Function dictates structure in organ systems

4.

Identify the cell shape most suited for lining and absorption in the intestine, based on the diagram.

a)

Cylindrical skeletal muscle cells

b)

Irregular nerve cell bodies

c)

Spherical cartilage cells

d)

Column-shaped epithelial cells

5.

Which part of a generalized cell acts as a selective barrier separating internal contents from the environment?

a)

Cytoplasm and cytosol

b)

Plasma membrane bilayer

c)

Golgi and endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Nucleus with nuclear envelope

6.

What role does the nucleus primarily serve in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Energy production via mitochondria

b)

Control center housing genetic material

c)

Protein modification and trafficking

d)

Structural support through cytoskeleton

7.

Where do most cellular activities occur within a generalized cell?

a)

Inside lysosomes and peroxisomes

b)

Across the plasma membrane exterior

c)

Inside the nucleus and nucleolus

d)

Within cytoplasm inside the membrane

8.

Which component correctly pairs with its key content: deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

a)

Plasma membrane contains DNA

b)

Nucleus contains DNA

c)

Golgi apparatus encodes DNA

d)

Cytoplasm stores most DNA

9.

Which statement best defines a tissue in the human body as depicted in the diagram showing stomach wall layers?

a)

A single cell specialized for electrical signaling

b)

A fluid mixture of proteins circulating in blood

c)

An organ formed by multiple distinct organ systems

d)

A group of similar cells performing shared functions

10.

In the labeled stomach wall diagram, which layer represents epithelial tissue?

a)

Nerves embedded within connective tissue

b)

Smooth muscle composed of three layers

c)

Dense irregular connective tissue beneath mucosa

d)

Simple columnar epithelium lining the mucosa

11.

Select the primary function most associated with connective tissue in the depicted wall organization.

a)

Initiation and propagation of action potentials

b)

Secretion forming a protective luminal barrier

c)

Rapid contraction generating mechanical force

d)

Support and structural integration of other tissues

12.

The diagram identifies nerves within the stomach wall. Which tissue type do nerves primarily belong to?

a)

Epithelial tissue specialized for secretion

b)

Connective tissue specialized for support

c)

Nervous tissue specialized for signaling

d)

Muscle tissue specialized for contraction

13.

Reasoning with the organization shown, which sequence correctly orders the major tissue types from lumen outward in the mucosa of the stomach wall?

a)

Epithelium → connective tissue → muscle → serous membrane

b)

Muscle → epithelium → connective tissue → serous membrane

c)

Connective tissue → muscle → epithelium → serous membrane

d)

Epithelium → muscle → connective tissue → serous membrane

14.

Which feature best defines epithelial tissue at a cellular level?

a)

Cells widely separated by abundant matrix

b)

Cells loosely arranged with many fibers

c)

Cells closely packed with minimal matrix

d)

Cells embedded in fluid-filled lacunae

15.

What does it mean that epithelial tissue is avascular?

a)

It cannot regenerate after injury

b)

It lacks nerve endings entirely

c)

It has no direct blood supply

d)

It stores blood within its matrix

16.

Identify the surface of epithelial cells that faces the body exterior or lumen.

a)

Basal surface facing basement membrane

b)

Apical surface facing free space

c)

Lateral surface contacting neighbors

d)

Deep surface facing connective tissue

17.

Which statement correctly describes the basement membrane?

a)

A vascular layer within epithelium

b)

A protein-rich anchor for basal surface

c)

A loose connective tissue layer

d)

A fluid barrier inside blood vessels

18.

Epithelial sheets typically have which arrangement of surfaces?

a)

Only lateral surfaces with junctions

b)

Multiple basal surfaces facing lumen

c)

One free apical and one basal anchored

d)

Two free surfaces without anchoring

19.

Which function exemplifies epithelial selective permeability?

a)

Storing ions within cytoplasmic granules

b)

Permitting water while blocking pathogens

c)

Blocking gases and allowing proteins

d)

Allowing all solutes to diffuse freely

20.

Which protective role is characteristic of epithelium?

a)

Protection from dehydration and abrasion

b)

Protection by forming muscle fibers

c)

Protection by producing red blood cells

d)

Protection by mineralizing collagen

21.

A gland primarily composed of epithelial cells is performing which function?

a)

Secretion of products like enzymes

b)

Generation of contractile force

c)

Formation of bone tissue matrix

d)

Conduction of electrical impulses

22.

Why can epithelial tissues regenerate efficiently when well nourished?

a)

They avoid mitosis to reduce damage

b)

They are mostly acellular and inert

c)

They receive oxygen directly from vessels

d)

They have abundant stem cells at basal layers

23.

In the diagram, which layer lies immediately beneath the epithelium and contains blood vessels?

a)

Basement membrane with capillary beds

b)

Apical surface containing hemoglobin

c)

Connective tissue supporting vasculature

d)

Lateral surface forming vessel walls

24.

Which criterion classifies epithelium as simple rather than stratified?

a)

Presence of alternating thick layers

b)

Presence of one continuous layer

c)

Presence of folded multilayered sheets

d)

Presence of multiple scattered layers

25.

Which epithelial shape is best described as flattened like fish scales at the free surface?

a)

Squamous shape cells

b)

Columnar shape cells

c)

Transitional shape cells

d)

Cuboidal shape cells

26.

Cells that are about as tall as they are wide correspond to which epithelial type?

a)

Pseudostratified shape

b)

Squamous cell shape

c)

Columnar cell shape

d)

Cuboidal cell shape

27.

Which surface of an epithelial sheet faces the lumen or external environment?

a)

Lateral surface region

b)

Apical surface region

c)

Basal surface region

d)

Basement membrane region

28.

Which statement correctly distinguishes stratified epithelium?

a)

Single layer only throughout

b)

Cells anchored without basement membrane

c)

Cells taller than they are wide

d)

More than one stacked layer

29.

Which epithelial type is most suited for rapid diffusion across thin barriers, such as in alveolar walls?

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Keratinized stratified squamous

d)

Simple columnar epithelium

30.

In the small intestine, microvilli and goblet cells are typical of which epithelial type?

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

31.

Which epithelium lines kidney tubules and specializes in absorption and secretion of filtrate?

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Keratinized stratified squamous

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

32.

Which epithelial type protects most of the upper respiratory tract by moving mucus with cilia?

a)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

b)

Transitional epithelium

c)

Simple squamous epithelium

d)

Keratinized stratified squamous

33.

Which stratified epithelial type forms the epidermis and resists abrasion with a tough surface?

a)

Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Keratinized stratified squamous

d)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

34.

Which epithelial type lines the urinary bladder and can distend to accommodate volume changes?

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

35.

Which pair correctly matches cell shape with typical function emphasis seen in epithelia?

a)

Squamous—diffusion; Columnar—absorption and secretion

b)

Squamous—secretion; Columnar—gas exchange

c)

Columnar—urine storage; Cuboidal—keratin production

d)

Cuboidal—abrasion resistance; Squamous—mucus propulsion

36.

Which epithelium best permits rapid diffusion across its surface?

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

37.

A single layer of cells that are as tall as they are wide typically lines which structure?

a)

Kidney tubules

b)

Air sacs of lungs

c)

Small intestine

d)

Tracheal mucosa

38.

Which description correctly characterizes pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

a)

Two or more layers with cuboidal surface cells

b)

Single layer ideal for absorptive functions

c)

Multiple layers with dead superficial cells

d)

Appears multilayered but all cells touch basement

39.

Where is simple columnar epithelium most suited for absorption and secretion?

a)

Urinary bladder

b)

Sweat gland ducts

c)

Alveolar walls

d)

Small intestine

40.

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is most likely found where?

a)

Salivary gland ducts

b)

Trachea lining

c)

Skin epidermis

d)

Oral cavity

41.

Which statement differentiates keratinized from nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Keratinized has dead superficial layers

b)

Nonkeratinized has columnar surface cells

c)

Nonkeratinized has cilia on apical cells

d)

Keratinized has all cells alive and moist

42.

Which stratified epithelial type has columnar surface cells and commonly occurs in salivary glands?

a)

Stratified columnar epithelium

b)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

c)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

d)

Transitional epithelium

43.

Transitional epithelium is specialized to accommodate which functional demand?

a)

Variable stretching in urinary bladder

b)

Rapid gas diffusion in alveoli

c)

Mucus clearance in trachea

d)

Enzyme-mediated absorption in intestine

44.

Which feature best distinguishes simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli micrograph?

a)

Cube-shaped cells with central nuclei

b)

Multiple layers with keratinized surface

c)

Tall cells with apical cilia

d)

Single flat cells with thin cytoplasm

45.

In the kidney tubule image, the lining epithelium is primarily responsible for which function?

a)

Absorption and secretion in tubules

b)

Propulsion of mucus by cilia

c)

Rapid diffusion across air sacs

d)

Protection from surface abrasion

46.

Which location matches ciliated simple columnar epithelium shown in the uterine tube micrograph?

a)

Esophagus and oral cavity lining

b)

Kidney glomerular capsules

c)

Epidermis of skin exclusively

d)

Uterine tubes and larger bronchioles

47.

What cell type secretes mucin in the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium of the nasal cavity?

a)

Keratinized superficial cells

b)

Basal cells at the basement

c)

Goblet cells within the epithelium

d)

Squamous cells of the surface

48.

Which structural characteristic identifies pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium?

a)

Multiple layers of dead keratinized cells

b)

All cells reach basement membrane

c)

Cube-shaped cells equal height and width

d)

Flat single layer lining serous membranes

49.

Which statement correctly contrasts simple cuboidal and simple squamous epithelia in the provided images?

a)

Cuboidal cells are as tall as wide; squamous are thin

b)

Cuboidal cells form epidermis; squamous lines trachea

c)

Squamous cells have cilia; cuboidal cells are keratinized

d)

Squamous cells have central spherical nuclei; cuboidal lack nuclei

50.

In ciliated simple columnar epithelium of the uterine tube, what is the role of cilia?

a)

Form tight junctions to prevent leak

b)

Move oocyte along apical surface

c)

Store glycogen for energy

d)

Secrete keratin to waterproof

51.

Which epithelial type provides abrasion resistance without keratin and lines the vagina?

a)

Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

c)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

52.

Which feature differentiates epidermis from oral cavity lining in the images?

a)

Abundant goblet cells and cilia

b)

Single layer of flat squamous cells

c)

Cube-shaped cells forming ducts

d)

Presence of dead keratinized superficial cells

53.

Which epithelial subtype is optimized for rapid diffusion and filtration across thin barriers?

a)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

b)

Ciliated simple columnar

c)

Keratinized stratified squamous

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

54.

During bladder distension, which epithelial characteristic allows expansion without damage?

a)

Simple columnar epithelium with cilia

b)

Simple squamous epithelium rigid

c)

Transitional epithelium with domed superficial cells

d)

Keratinized stratified epithelium thin

55.

Which component lies directly beneath epithelial cells and is labeled in multiple images?

a)

Adventitia anchoring organs

b)

Basement membrane supporting epithelium

c)

Stratum corneum storing keratin

d)

Smooth muscle controlling airflow

56.

Which combination defines the extracellular matrix in connective tissue?

a)

Protein fibers plus ground substance

b)

Cells plus blood vessels

c)

Collagen plus mesenchyme origin

d)

Elastic fibers plus resident cells

57.

Which protein fiber primarily provides tensile strength to connective tissues?

a)

Myosin filaments

b)

Collagen fibers

c)

Elastic fibers

d)

Reticular fibers

58.

What is the embryonic origin common to all connective tissues?

a)

Mesenchyme

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Yolk sac

59.

Which set lists the shared components of connective tissues?

a)

Axons, dendrites, synapses

b)

Keratin, desmosomes, stratification

c)

Cells, basement membrane, lumen

d)

Cells, protein fibers, ground substance

60.

Which description best matches loose connective tissue?

a)

More fibers, less ground substance

b)

Solid matrix with osteons

c)

Fewer fibers, more ground substance

d)

Semisolid matrix with chondrocytes

61.

Which category is part of connective tissue proper?

a)

Dense regular connective tissue

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Compact bone

d)

Blood plasma

62.

Which tissue is classified as supporting connective tissue with a solid matrix?

a)

Bone

b)

Areolar

c)

Elastic dense

d)

Reticular

63.

Which option correctly pairs fiber type with a typical function?

a)

Keratin fibers form basement membranes

b)

Elastic fibers enable stretch and recoil

c)

Collagen fibers support electrical signaling

d)

Reticular fibers drive muscle contraction

64.

Which trio belongs to the loose connective tissue subtypes?

a)

Areolar, adipose, reticular

b)

Regular, irregular, elastic

c)

Compact, spongy, lamellar

d)

Hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

65.

Which statement best distinguishes dense from loose connective tissue?

a)

Dense contains a semisolid matrix with lacunae

b)

Dense has more fibers and less ground substance

c)

Dense develops exclusively from ectoderm

d)

Dense has fewer fibers and more ground substance

66.

Which tissue type is classified as connective tissue proper and functions to bind structures together?

a)

Blood plasma formed elements

b)

Compact bone osteon lamellae

c)

Dense regular connective tissue bundles

d)

Hyaline cartilage matrix zones

67.

Which feature best distinguishes loose connective tissue from dense connective tissue?

a)

Circulating cells in liquid matrix

b)

Mineralized matrix with osteocytes

c)

More chondrocytes in lacunae

d)

Fewer fibers, more ground substance

68.

Areolar connective tissue is most accurately described as:

a)

Parallel collagen for high tension

b)

Energy storage with triglycerides

c)

Packing material widely distributed

d)

Semisolid cartilage with flexibility

69.

Adipose tissue primarily serves which function?

a)

Framework for soft body tissues

b)

Transport of gases and wastes

c)

Energy storage and insulation

d)

Shock absorption in joints

70.

Reticular connective tissue is typically found forming stroma in which locations?

a)

Dermis and joint capsules

b)

Spleen, liver, kidney organs

c)

Tendons and ligaments

d)

Aortic elastic walls

71.

Dense regular connective tissue is best characterized by:

a)

Parallel collagen bundles resisting tension

b)

Random meshwork resisting distortion

c)

Chondrocytes within lacunae clusters

d)

Mineralized concentric lamellae rings

72.

Dense irregular connective tissue is commonly located in which region?

a)

Within blood vessels lumen

b)

Dermis of the skin layers

c)

External ear elastic cartilage

d)

Bone marrow trabeculae spaces

73.

Elastic connective tissue allows stretching and recoil. Where is it prominently found?

a)

Costal cartilage near ribs

b)

Intervertebral disc fibrocartilage

c)

Compact bone diaphysis cortex

d)

Walls of large arteries like aorta

74.

Which cartilage type provides support with more flexibility than bone and is found in costal cartilages?

a)

Elastic cartilage in ear

b)

Fibrocartilage in discs

c)

Hyaline cartilage in rib cartilage

d)

Spongy bone in epiphyses

75.

Fibrocartilage is specialized to withstand compression and often acts as a shock absorber. Where is it commonly located?

a)

External ear pinna structures

b)

Intervertebral discs between vertebrae

c)

Articular cartilage of long bones

d)

Costal cartilages of ribs area

76.

Elastic cartilage maintains shape while permitting extensive flexibility. Which location matches this function?

a)

Epiphyseal plate in bone

b)

External ear structures pinna

c)

Menisci of the knee joint

d)

Tracheal rings of hyaline

77.

Compact bone is organized into osteons primarily providing:

a)

Transport of nutrients and wastes

b)

Semisolid support with chondrocytes

c)

Strong structural support and protection

d)

Energy storage and thermal insulation

78.

Compared to compact bone, spongy bone is characterized by:

a)

Flexible semisolid matrix zones

b)

Trabeculae network with marrow spaces

c)

Parallel bundles of collagen fibers

d)

Liquid matrix of plasma proteins

79.

Blood, a fluid connective tissue, primarily functions to:

a)

Form supportive organ stroma

b)

Store calcium and phosphorus

c)

Bind muscles to bones firmly

d)

Transport nutrients, gases, and wastes

80.

Connective tissue proper, supporting connective tissue, and fluid connective tissue share a common embryonic origin. What is it?

a)

Ectoderm neural crest lineage

b)

Mesenchyme embryonic connective tissue

c)

Endoderm gut tube epithelium

d)

Myotome somite muscle cells

81.

Which cartilage type provides strong but flexible support and forms costal cartilages between ribs and sternum?

a)

Fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs

b)

Compact cartilage in osteons

c)

Hyaline cartilage at costal cartilages

d)

Elastic cartilage forming ear pinna

82.

Which feature best distinguishes elastic cartilage from the other cartilage types?

a)

Flexible tissue returning to original shape

b)

Highly mineralized extracellular matrix

c)

Greatest resistance to compression

d)

Forms articular surfaces of long bones

83.

Fibrocartilage is characterized by which combination of properties?

a)

Durable, resists compression, least flexible

b)

Highly elastic, easily deformed, very flexible

c)

Weak support, high vascularity, rapid turnover

d)

Soft matrix, abundant adipocytes, energy storage

84.

Mature bone cells housed within lacunae are called what?

a)

Chondroblasts within perichondrium

b)

Osteoclasts at Howship lacunae

c)

Fibroblasts in dense regular

d)

Osteocytes residing in lacunae

85.

Which statement correctly contrasts bone with cartilage?

a)

Both have equal rigidity and identical flexibility

b)

Bone is more solid, offers greater support, less flexible

c)

Cartilage contains calcium salts while bone does not

d)

Bone is less solid, offers weaker support, more flexible

86.

Which pairing correctly matches bone component with category?

a)

Glycoproteins as mineral components

b)

Collagen fibers as inorganic components

c)

Water as primary mineral component

d)

Calcium salts as inorganic components

87.

Which description accurately differentiates compact and spongy bone?

a)

Compact bone has cylindrical osteons; spongy bone is latticework

b)

Compact bone is latticework; spongy bone forms cylindrical osteons

c)

Compact bone is only in epiphyses; spongy bone only in shafts

d)

Both consist mainly of elastic cartilage structures

88.

Which statement about blood as a connective tissue is accurate?

a)

Cells are in plasma; fibers appear during clotting

b)

Cells are in lacunae; fibers constantly visible

c)

Matrix is solid; inorganic salts dominate

d)

Primary role is shock absorption in joints

89.

Which muscle tissue is primarily responsible for voluntary movement of body parts?

a)

Smooth muscle tissue

b)

Cardiac muscle tissue

c)

Visceral muscle tissue

d)

Skeletal muscle tissue

90.

Which feature distinguishes cardiac muscle cells from skeletal muscle cells?

a)

Presence of intercalated discs

b)

Multiple peripheral nuclei

c)

Absence of striations

d)

Long cylindrical fibers

91.

Which muscle tissue is found only in the heart and pumps blood through vessels?

a)

Cardiac muscle tissue

b)

Visceral muscle tissue

c)

Skeletal muscle tissue

d)

Smooth muscle tissue

92.

Which statement correctly compares voluntary and involuntary control in muscle tissues?

a)

Smooth muscle operates under voluntary control

b)

Cardiac muscle contracts under conscious control

c)

Skeletal muscle is typically under voluntary control

d)

Skeletal muscle acts involuntarily during reflexes

93.

Which structural characteristic is typical of skeletal muscle fibers?

a)

Lack of visible striations

b)

Long cylindrical multinucleated fibers

c)

Single central nucleus

d)

Short branching cells

94.

Which component facilitates rapid synchronized contraction in cardiac muscle?

a)

Myofibril bundles

b)

Peripheral nuclei

c)

Intercalated discs

d)

Endomysium sheaths

95.

Which muscle tissue commonly propels materials through the digestive and urinary tracts?

a)

Cardiac muscle tissue

b)

Skeletal muscle tissue

c)

Smooth muscle tissue

d)

Striated muscle tissue

96.

Which term describes the striped appearance seen in skeletal and cardiac muscle?

a)

Fascicles

b)

Striations

c)

Sarcomeres

d)

Intercalations

97.

Which statement best identifies a key difference between neurons and glial cells?

a)

Neurons provide structural support only

b)

Glial cells generate electrical impulses

c)

Neurons transmit signals via axons and dendrites

d)

Glial cells form muscle fibers

98.

A muscle cell with one nucleus, short branching shape, and striations is most likely which type?

a)

Smooth muscle cell

b)

Skeletal muscle fiber

c)

Myofibroblast cell

d)

Cardiac muscle cell

99.

Which cellular extension carries signals away from the neuron’s cell body?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Cilium

d)

Microvillus

100.

Which property describes muscle tissue being able to respond to stimuli?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Irritability

c)

Conductivity

d)

Plasticity

101.

Which feature best distinguishes smooth muscle cells from skeletal muscle cells?

a)

Single centrally located nucleus

b)

Striated cylindrical fibers

c)

Branched fibers with intercalated discs

d)

Multiple peripheral nuclei per cell

102.

Where is smooth muscle most commonly located?

a)

Attached to bones via tendons

b)

Walls of hollow organs

c)

Alveoli of the lungs

d)

Dermis of the skin

103.

Which statement about smooth muscle control is accurate?

a)

Voluntary via somatic motor neurons

b)

Involuntary regulated by autonomic input

c)

Voluntary using motor end plates

d)

Involuntary but always rhythmic

104.

Which cellular structure receives incoming signals in a neuron?

a)

Node of Ranvier

b)

Dendrite

c)

Axon terminal

d)

Axon hillock

105.

Glial cells primarily function to:

a)

Generate action potentials

b)

Form contractile myofilaments

c)

Provide protection and nourishment

d)

Store calcium for contraction

106.

Which tissue type is characterized by tightly packed cells with minimal extracellular matrix?

a)

Nervous tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Muscle tissue

107.

Which pairing of tissue and primary function is correct?

a)

Muscle tissue—binds and supports organs

b)

Epithelial tissue—stores triglycerides

c)

Connective tissue—propels materials through organs

d)

Nervous tissue—relays electrical signals

108.

Which connective tissue component is part of its composition?

a)

Keratinized stratified cells

b)

Neurons and dendritic spines

c)

Protein fibers and ground substance

d)

Myofilaments forming striations

109.

Which epithelial subtype is correctly classified as simple epithelium?

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

c)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

d)

Stratified squamous epithelium

110.

Which muscle tissue subtype is responsible for moving blood through the cardiovascular system?

a)

Reticular muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Smooth muscle

111.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Stratified Squamous
112.
Identify:
a)
Columnar
b)
Cuboidal
c)
Pseudostratified
d)
Transitional
113.
Identify:
a)
Smooth Muscle
b)
Columnar
c)
Transitional
d)
Pseudostratified
114.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
115.
Identify:
a)
Columnar
b)
Cuboidal
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
116.

Name the type of epithelium

a)

simple cuboidal

b)

simple squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

stratified squamous

117.
Identify:
a)
Smooth Muscle
b)
Columnar
c)
Transitional
d)
Pseudostratified
118.
Identify:
a)
Smooth Muscle
b)
Columnar
c)
Transitional
d)
Pseudostratified
119.
Identify:
a)
Areolar
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
120.

Name the type of epithelium

a)

simple squamous

b)

stratified squamous

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple columnar

121.
Identify:
a)
Simple squamous
b)
Stratified squamous
c)
Transitional
d)
Pseudostratified
122.
Identify:
a)
Simple squamous
b)
Cuboidal
c)
Transitional
d)
Pseudostratified
123.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Stratified Squamous
124.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Stratified Squamous
125.
Name the tissue
a)
Areolar
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
126.
a)

simple columnar

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

simple squamous

d)

stratified cuboidal

127.
a)

pseudostratified columnar

b)

stratified columnar

c)

simple columnar

d)

basic columnar

128.
a)

simple cuboidal

b)

simple columnar

c)

stratified squamous

d)

stratified columnar

129.
Identify this tissue!
a)
Simple squamous 
b)
Stratified columnar
c)
Simple columanr
d)
Pseudostratified
130.

Identify the image:

a)

Columnar

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Squamous

131.

Identify the image:

a)

Columnar

b)

Squamous

c)

Cuboidal

132.
Identify this tissue!
a)
Simple cuboidal
b)
Simple columnar epithelium
c)
Stratified squamous
d)
Transitional epithelium
133.
Identify:
a)
Areolar
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
134.

Identify the image:

a)

Cuboidal

b)

Columnar

c)

Squamous

135.
Identify this tissue!
a)
Stratified cuboidal
b)
Stratified squamous epithelium
c)
Simple columnar epithelium
d)
Simple squamous