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Medical Terminology final exam review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The word part that has the main meaning is the​ ________.

a)

word root

b)

combining vowel

c)

suffix

d)

prefix

2.

The word part that may be attached to the beginning of a word and modifies the meaning of the word is the​ ________.

a)

word root

b)

combining vowel

c)

suffix

d)

prefix

3.

In a medical term that that contains two word​ roots, the roots are joined with a​ ________.

a)

hyphen, slant, or dash

b)

combining vowel

c)

suffix

d)

prefix

4.

The word part that describes a word root and comes at the end of the word is the​ ________.

a)

hyphen or slant

b)

combining vowel

c)

suffix

d)

prefix

5.

Ophthalmology is the study of the​ _______.

a)

ear

b)

small intestine

c)

blood

d)

eye

6.

The root word that refers to the lung is​ _______.

a)

pulmon/o

b)

rhin/o

c)

carcin/o

d)

ot/o

7.

The suffix that means​ "to surgically creating an​ opening" is​ _______.

a)

-ectomy

b)

-plasty

c)

-ostomy

d)

-otomy

8.

When interpreting a medical​ term, the first step is to​ ________. 

a)

divide the word into its word parts

b)

confirm for meaning in context

c)

combine the word part meanings

d)

define each word part

9.

The most important reason for proper spelling and pronunciation of medical terms is​ ________.

a)

it looks better in the medical record

b)

to sound more professional

c)

you have a better chance for promotion if you use proper spelling

d)

many terms sound and are spelled similarly but have completely different meanings

10.

Acceptable abbreviations that you can use at the hospital where you work would be found by​ ________. 

a)

looking up Appendix I in your textbook

b)

making them​ up, as long as they make sense

c)

asking your friend who works there

d)

referring to that​ hospital's listing of acceptable abbreviations

11.

The combining form​ cephal/o means​ ________. 

a)

cranium

b)

head

c)

away from

d)

tail

12.

The proper spelling for the membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is​ ________.

a)

peratoneum

b)

peritonaoom

c)

peritoneum

d)

paratoneum

13.

The fundamental unit of all living things is the​ ________.

a)

system

b)

tissue

c)

cell

d)

organ

14.

In the​ body, tissues function together to form​ ________.

a)

structures

b)

organs

c)

cells

d)

systems

15.

Organs that work together to accomplish similar functions are called​ ________.

a)

systems

b)

cells

c)

components

d)

tissues

16.

Cells exhibit the properties of being alive by engaging in metabolic​ activities, responding to​ stimuli, and​ ________. 

a)

conducting electrical impulses

b)

becoming increasingly specialized

c)

reproducing themselves

d)

photosynthesizing

17.

Smooth muscle tissues are found in the​ ________. 

a)

heart

b)

biceps

c)

tongue

d)

intestines

18.

When standing in anatomical​ position, the hands are​ ________. 

a)

straight out at shoulder level with palms facing upward

b)

at the sides with palms facing forward

c)

at the sides with palms facing backward

d)

above the head

19.

The anatomical position is used because it​ _______.

a)

is easy to photograph

b)

establishes a common position and relationships of body parts

c)

shows the most body parts for reference

d)

is comfortable to stand in for long periods of time

20.

The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the​ ________ plane.

a)

coronal

b)

horizontal

c)

medial

d)

sagittal

21.

The primary function of the skin is to​ ________.

a)

protect the​ body, especially by keeping out pathogens and harmful chemicals

b)

provide sensory stimulation

c)

moisturize the skin to keep it soft and pliable

d)

regulate body temperature

22.

Hair follicles and sweat glands are located in the​ ________. 

a)

hypodermis

b)

dermis

c)

subcutaneous

d)

epidermis

23.

The​ _______ is often checked for color as an indicator of oxygen saturation in the peripheral tissues.

a)

cuticle

b)

nail plate

c)

lunula

d)

nail bed

24.

An ointment or cream would be placed on the​ ________ layer.

a)

intradermal

b)

hypodermic

c)

subcutaneous

d)

epidermal

25.

A person born without functioning sweat glands would have​ ________.

a)

anhidrosis

b)

diaphoresis

c)

hyperhidrosis

d)

hirsutism

26.

Athlete's foot refers to a fungal infection called​ ________.

a)

verruca

b)

impetigo

c)

urticaria

d)

tinea pedis

27.

Growing a culture of bacteria from the skin to identify the strain and what antibiotics it is resistant to is​ a(n) ________.

a)

culture and sensitivity

b)

frozen section

c)

biopsy

d)

exfoliative cytology

28.

A patient fell on a gravel​ pathway, resulting in small stones embedded in his wound. This would be treated with​ ________.

a)

curettage

b)

debridement

c)

electrocautery

d)

dermabrasion

29.

The combining form​ melan/o means​ ________. 

a)

fungus

b)

pus

c)

black

d)

dead

30.

A person having a severe inflammatory dermatitis would most likely be directed to apply​ ________ over the skin

a)

hydrocortisone cream

b)

Neosporin ointment

c)

Kwell

d)

Novocain

31.

The combining form​ chondr/o refers to​ ________.

a)

collarbone

b)

cartilage

c)

ribs

d)

bone marrow

32.

________ are the tissues that hold muscle to bone.

a)

Tendons

b)

Periosteum

c)

Ligaments

d)

Fascia

33.

The axial skeleton includes the​ _________. 

a)

innominate bone

b)

ox coxae

c)

rib cage

d)

tarsals

34.

An example of a long bone is the​ _________.

a)

sternum

b)

vertebra

c)

femur

d)

tarsal

35.

A synovial​ ball-and-socket joint is found at the​ _________.

a)

hip

b)

elbow

c)

wrist

d)

ankle

36.

In addition to movement and holding the body​ erect, the muscles also​ ________.

a)

regulate blood volume

b)

generate heat

c)

activate kidney function

d)

trigger hormonal secretions

37.

When standing on​ one's tiptoes, the foot is in a​ ________ position.

a)

plantar flexed

b)

inverted

c)

dorsiflexed

d)

everted

38.

The term​ _____ means​ "pertaining to between the​ vertebrae."

a)

suprapubic

b)

intracranial

c)

submandibular

d)

intervertebral

39.

A patient with lordosis has a​ ________. 

a)

lateral bend in the spinal column

b)

whiplash type injury

c)

congenital anomaly where the vertebrae fail to fully form around the spinal cord

d)

swayback or forward curvature of the lumbar spine

40.

Medrol, dexamethasone, and Decadron are types of​ ________.

a)

bone reabsorption inhibitors

b)

nonsteroidal​ anti-inflammatory drugs

c)

skeletal muscle relaxants or antispasmodics

d)

corticosteroids

41.

The combining form​ embol/o means​ ________.

a)

hardened

b)

plug

c)

pulse

d)

to hold back

42.

The purpose of the arteries is to​ ________.

a)

carry oxygenated blood toward the heart

b)

carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart to the systemic circulation

c)

carry blood away from the heart

d)

carry deoxygenated blood toward the heart

43.

The largest artery in the body coming from the left ventricle is the​ ________.

a)

pulmonary artery

b)

aorta

c)

inferior vena cava

d)

superior vena cava

44.

The​ _____ is the hollow channel in a blood vessel through which blood flows.

a)

smooth muscle

b)

lumen

c)

endothelium

d)

pericardium

45.

__________ return blood to the heart.

a)

Veins

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arterioles

d)

Arteries

46.

When palpating or feeling a​ pulse, the pulse is a direct measure of the​ ________.

a)

rate of capillary gas exchange

b)

diastolic blood pressure

c)

heart rate

d)

flow velocity across the heart valves

47.

The device used to measure the blood pressure is the​ ________.

a)

sphygmomanometer

b)

tonometer

c)

Doppler ultrasound

d)

stethoscope

48.

A patient stands up quickly and is​ light-headed, experiencing a significant drop in blood pressure. This condition is called​ ________.

a)

orthostatic hypotension

b)

hypertension

c)

regurgitation

d)

arteriosclerosis

49.

A backwash or backflow of blood back up the valve into the previous chamber is a​ ________.

a)

patent ductus arteriosus

b)

flutter

c)

regurgitation

d)

thrombus

50.

A blood test that would indicate that a myocardial infarction might have occurred is​ ________.

a)

Holter monitoring

b)

cardiac biomarkers

c)

serum lipoprotein level

d)

Doppler ultrasonography

51.

The suffix meaning​ "swelling" is_________.

a)

-apheresis

b)

-cytosis

c)

​-stasis

d)

-edema

52.

Blood components that are not actually cells but are fragments of whole cells are the​ _________.

a)

platelets

b)

erythrocytes

c)

agranulocytes

d)

plasma

53.

The part of the red blood cell that picks up oxygen from the lungs for delivery to the body tissues is​ _________.

a)

bilirubin

b)

albumin

c)

hemoglobin

d)

potassium

54.

A universal donor is a person who has type​ ________ blood.

a)

AB

b)

O

c)

B

d)

A

55.

A universal recipient is someone with type​ _________ blood.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

56.

Innate immunity is also known as​ _________.

a)

natural immunity

b)

active acquired immunity

c)

passive acquired immunity

d)

vaccinations

57.

Enlarged axillary lymph nodes are located in the​ _________.

a)

spleen

b)

thymus

c)

armpit

d)

groin

58.

A condition in which there is a lack of all types of cells is​ _________.

a)

septicemia

b)

dyscrasia

c)

pancytopenia

d)

erythrocytosis

59.

If a patient is snoring and has nasal congestion due to hypertrophied lymphoid tissue in the​ nasopharynx, the physician might recommend​ a(n) _________.

a)

lymphadenectomy

b)

adenoidectomy

c)

thymectomy

d)

tonsillectomy

60.

An agent to prevent blood clot formation is​ a(n) ________, and is also sometimes referred to as a blood thinner.

a)

thrombolytic

b)

antiplatelet

c)

anticoagulant

d)

hematinic

61.

The suffix ​-osmia refers to​ ________.

a)

voice

b)

breathing

c)

paralysis

d)

smell

62.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occurs at the​ ________.

a)

hilum

b)

respiratory membrane

c)

bronchioles

d)

bronchi

63.

The nasal cavity has mucous membranes that produce mucus. The purpose of mucus is to​ ________.

a)

provide resonance to the voice

b)

deliver oxygen to the pulmonary capillaries

c)

dry air for greater comfort

d)

help cleanse the air by collecting​ dust, pollen, and bacteria

64.

With forceful inhalation or​ exhalation, additional muscles of the​ ________ become active.

a)

stomach

b)

back

c)

shoulders

d)

chest and neck

65.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult is​ ________.

a)

20 to 30

b)

8 to 12

c)

30 to 60

d)

12 to 20

66.

Inserting a tube into the windpipe is​ a(n) ________ intubation.

a)

antitracheal

b)

endotracheal

c)

polybronchial

d)

hyperepiglottic

67.

The term for a nosebleed is​ ________.

a)

anosmia

b)

hemoptysis

c)

epistaxis

d)

aphonia

68.

A device that is placed on the​ patient's fingertip or earlobe that measures the oxygen level in blood is​ a(n) ________.

a)

oximeter

b)

ventilation-perfusion scan

c)

pulmonary function test

d)

spirometer

69.

The test used to indicate if the patient has cystic fibrosis is​ ________.

a)

polysomnography

b)

a sweat test

c)

bronchoscopy

d)

sputum culture and sensitivity

70.

A patient who has nighttime dyspnea due to a deviated septum would likely have a​ ________.

a)

pleurocentesis

b)

rhinoplasty

c)

bronchoplasty

d)

laryngoplasty

71.

The suffix ​-emesis means​ to:

a)

eat and swallow

b)

digest

c)

appetites

d)

vomit

72.

Digestion of food begins in the:

a)

ascending colon

b)

duodenum

c)

stomach

d)

mouth

73.

Bile is stored in​ the:

a)

salivary glands.

b)

pancreas

c)

gallbladder

d)

liver

74.

The organ that also helps detoxify harmful substances in the body is​ the:

a)

salivary gland

b)

liver

c)

pancreas

d)

gallbladder

75.

When testing for blood​ glucose, if blood was taken after the patient had​ eaten, this would be a​ ________ reading.

a)

postprandial

b)

postpepsial

c)

preprandial

d)

preorexic

76.

An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is​ called:

a)

melena

b)

enteritis

c)

hematochezia

d)

ascites

77.

The laboratory test of feces where a gastrointestinal bleed is suspected but not readily visualized in the stool is​ a(n):

a)

lower gastrointestinal series.

b)

stool culture.

c)

ova and parasites.

d)

fecal occult blood test. 

78.

A patient who is suspected of having peptic ulcer disease would likely undergo​ a(n):

a)

esophagogastroduodenoscopy.

b)

lower gastrointestinal series. 

c)

colonoscopy.

d)

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography.

79.

A patient who is temporarily unable to eat for several days may be treated​ with:

a)

bariatric surgery.

b)

total parenteral nutrition

c)

gastrostomy.

d)

gastric lavage.

80.

A patient who is to undergo surgery tomorrow would likely be made​ ________ to reduce the chance of emesis triggered by anesthesia.

a)

BE

b)

TPN

c)

pc

d)

NPO

81.

The suffix ​-tripsy refers to​ ________.

a)

surgical crushing

b)

drooping

c)

condition of the urine

d)

stone

82.

The tube from the urinary bladder to the meatus is the​ ________.

a)

descending loop

b)

ureter

c)

urethra

d)

convoluted tubule

83.

In the final stages of urine​ production, waste products such as uric acid and​ ________ flow into the collecting tubule to be excreted.

a)

ammonia

b)

glucose

c)

electrolytes

d)

amino acids

84.

A fruity odor to the urine might indicate​ ________.

a)

a bacterial infection

b)

anemia

c)

bladder cancer

d)

diabetes mellitus

85.

A patient with painful urination is experiencing​ _____.

a)

enuresis

b)

glycosuria

c)

diuresis

d)

dysuria

86.

This laboratory test analyzes the​ chemical, physical, and microscopic characteristics of urine.

a)

urinalysis

b)

cystoscopy

c)

KUB

d)

intravenous pyelography

87.

An​ X-ray of the urinary system without use of contrast dye is​ a(n) ________

a)

pyelogram

b)

voiding cystourethrography

c)

KUB (kidneys, ureters, bladder)

d)

excretory urography

88.

The process of inserting a tube into the urinary bladder to allow for flow of urine is a​ ________.

a)

catheterization

b)

nephrotomy

c)

cystostomy

d)

meatotomy

89.

Medications used in the treatment of​ edema, heart​ failure, and hypertension are​ ________.

a)

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

b)

antispasmodics

c)

diuretics

d)

antibiotics

90.

A nurse documenting the amount of fluid a patient drinks and the volume of urine produced during a shift has recorded the​ patient's _____.

a)

C&S

b)

I&O

c)

CC

d)

BUN

91.

One combining form for uterus is​ ________.

a)

men/o

b)

salping/o

c)

cervic/o

d)

hyster/o

92.

The suffix ​-gravida refers to​ ________.

a)

uterine tube

b)

childbirth

c)

childbirth

d)

pregnant person

93.

In​ males, the gland at the base of the bladder surrounding the proximal part of the urethra is the​ ________.

a)

bulbourethral gland

b)

seminal vesicles

c)

prostate gland

d)

Bartholin gland

94.

The area between the scrotum and the rectum is called the​ ________.

a)

symphysis pubis

b)

glans penis

c)

perineum

d)

vas deferens

95.

Length of human gestation is generally​ ________ weeks.

a)

32

b)

52

c)

60

d)

40

96.

A fetus who is breech will present​ ________.

a)

with umbilical cord first

b)

buttocks or feet first

c)

head first but facing upward

d)

with placenta detaching and coming out first 

97.

The evaluation of a​ neonate's performance status immediately after birth at 1 and 5 minutes is​ ________.

a)

the Apgar score

b)

chorionic villi sampling

c)

fetal monitoring 

d)

amniocentesis

98.

A lab test to screen for prostate cancer in men is​ ______

a)

prostate-specific antigen

b)

a digital rectal exam

c)

cystoscopy

d)

semen analysis

99.

A woman who has had a miscarriage​ (also known as a spontaneous​ abortion) may undergo​ a(n) ________.

a)

hysteropexy

b)

conization 

c)

oophorectomy

d)

dilation and curettage

100.

The enlargement of the veins of the spermatic cord is called​ a(n) ________.

a)

testicular torsion 

b)

epididymitis 

c)

hydrocele

d)

varicocele

101.

The suffix ​-dipsia refers to​ ________.

a)

relating to a meal

b)

stimulation

c)

minerals and electrolytes

d)

thirst

102.

The gland that is located in the mediastinal area is the​ ________ gland.

a)

adrenal 

b)

pineal

c)

thymus

d)

thyroid

103.

The hormone epinephrine acts to regulate​ ________.

a)

calcium levels in the blood

b)

electrolytes and fluid volumes

c)

the​ "fight-or-flight" response

d)

pigmentation of the skin

104.

The enlargement of the thyroid gland is called​ ________.

a)

a thymoma

b)

Graves' disease

c)

goiter

d)

myxedema

105.

A patient having a low serum sodium level has​ ________.

a)

hyponaturia

b)

hypokalemia

c)

hypocalcemia

d)

hyponatremia

106.

The test done to analyze for parathyroid and bone disorders is​ ________.

a)

total calcium

b)

radioimmunoassay

c)

protein-bound iodine test

d)

thyroid function test

107.

This test includes measurements of the​ thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and TSH levels in the blood.

a)

thyroid function test

b)

radioimmunoassay

c)

fasting blood sugar

d)

total calcium

108.

A patient with​ non-insulin-dependent (Type​ 2) diabetes mellitus would likely be treated with​ ________.

a)

corticosteroids

b)

oral hypoglycemic agents

c)

antithyroid agents

d)

insulin

109.

A patient with a chronic inflammatory disease​ (such as rheumatoid arthritis or inflammatory bowel​ disease) would likely be treated with​ ________.

a)

thyroid replacement therapy 

b)

corticosteroids

c)

aquaretics

d)

insulin 

110.

Development and growth of eggs in the female and sperm in the male are stimulated by​ ________.

a)

FSH

b)

MSH

c)

LH

d)

GH

111.

The suffix ​-taxia refers to​ ________.

a)

walking

b)

weakness

c)

muscular coordination

d)

paralysis

112.

The middle layer of the meninges is the​ _______.

a)

central canal

b)

pia mater

c)

arachnoid layer

d)

dura mater

113.

Cranial nerve​ I, known as the olfactory​ nerve, is active in the sense of​ ________.

a)

sight

b)

smell

c)

hearing 

d)

taste

114.

By analyzing word​ parts, you recognize that the​ _____ fluid gets its name because it surrounds the brain and spinal cord.

a)

encephalic

b)

cerebrospinal

c)

cerebellar

d)

neuroglial

115.

The term for fainting is​ ________.

a)

coma

b)

syncope

c)

palsy

d)

transient ischemia attack

116.

The medical term for a headache is​ ________.

a)

cephalalgia

b)

encephalitis

c)

cerebellitis

d)

hyperesthesia

117.

A diagnostic test that records electrical activity in the brain is​ ________.

a)

electroencephalography

b)

myelography

c)

cerebrospinal fluid analysis

d)

cerebral angiography

118.

This surgical procedure is used to remove an obstruction within a major artery of the neck.

a)

carotid endarterectomy

b)

laminectomy

c)

neurectomy

d)

tractotomy

119.

Patients with epilepsy may be prescribed​ a(n) ________.

a)

sedative

b)

anticonvulsant

c)

analgesic

d)

hypnotic

120.

A​ neuron's axon is covered with​ ________.

a)

electrical impulses

b)

myelin

c)

cerebrospinal fluid

d)

neurotransmitters

121.

The combining form​ phac/o refers to​ ________.

a)

light

b)

lens

c)

false 

d)

pupil

122.

The white part of the eyeball is the​ ________.

a)

conjunctiva

b)

sclera

c)

choroid

d)

iris

123.

Cerumen is a substance that helps moisturize and clean the​ ________.

a)

middle ear

b)

auditory canal

c)

eustachian tube

d)

conjunctiva

124.

The proper order of light entering the eye to reach the retina is​ _________.

a)

cornea, sclera,​ pupil, lens, and vitreous humor

b)

​lens, pupil,​ cornea, and aqueous humor

c)

pupil, cornea, vitreous​ humor, lens, and aqueous humor

d)

cornea, pupil, aqueous​ humor, lens, and vitreous humor

125.

The correct order of sound conduction in the middle ear is tympanic​ membrane, _______________.

a)

stapes, incus,​ malleus, round window

b)

​malleus, stapes,​ incus, oval window

c)

​incus, malleus,​ stapes, oval window

d)

malleus, incus,​ stapes, oval window

126.

A patient who has difficulty seeing at night has​ __________.

a)

diplopia

b)

amblyopia

c)

papilledema

d)

nyctalopia

127.

The term for ringing or buzzing in the ears is​ _________.

a)

myringitis

b)

tinnitus

c)

otosclerosis

d)

otalgia

128.

The complete removal of the eyeball is called​ ________.

a)

cryoextraction

b)

phacoemulsification

c)

enucleation

d)

keratoplasty

129.

A patient who has total sensorineural hearing loss may be treated with a​ _______.

a)

stapedectomy

b)

otoplasty

c)

myringectomy

d)

cochlear implant

130.

A patient with Ménière disease would likely be prescribed​ ________.

a)

Debrox

b)

Neomycin

c)

Murine ear drops

d)

Antivert

131.

The combining form​ schiz/o means​ ________.

a)

irrational fear

b)

split

c)

mind

d)

frenzy

132.

A​ _____ is a condition in which a particular drug should not be used.

a)

side effect

b)

placebo

c)

habituation

d)

contraindication

133.

To take a medication orally is​ _______.

a)

parenterally

b)

topically

c)

PO

d)

IV

134.

This procedure uses electromagnetic energy to produce images of soft tissues in the body.

a)

positron emission topography

b)

nuclear medicine

c)

magnetic resonance imaging

d)

fluoroscopy

135.

A device such as a splint or a brace is a type of​ ________.

a)

phonophoresis

b)

orthotic

c)

prosthetic

d)

traction

136.

A medication designed to relieve pain is​ a(n) ________.

a)

analgesic

b)

anesthetic

c)

hemostatic

d)

cauterization agent

137.

The extent to which a medication has a poisonous effect on organ systems is its​ _______.

a)

potentiation

b)

toxicity

c)

drug tolerance

d)

antidote

138.

A cognitive disorder with progressive disorientation and confusion is​ ________.

a)

autism

b)

​obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

dementia

d)

schizoaffective disorder

139.

This procedure involves excising a small piece of tissue for examination under a microscope.

a)

biopsy

b)

positron emission tomography

c)

magnetic resonance imaging

d)

staging laparotomy

140.

Treatment that does not correct or cure but aims to relieve symptoms is​ ________.

a)

chemotherapy

b)

radiation therapy

c)

immunotherapy

d)

palliative