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Introduction to Health and Lifestyle

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines health in a fitness training context?

a)

Ability to complete daily tasks without fatigue

b)

Having strong muscles and fast reaction time

c)

Complete physical, mental, social wellbeing

d)

Absence of pain or visible injury only

2.

Which component is NOT explicitly part of the health definition here?

a)

Economic wellbeing

b)

Physical wellbeing

c)

Social wellbeing

d)

Mental wellbeing

3.

Lifestyle in this unit refers to which set of behaviours?

a)

Physical, psychological, social, economic

b)

Physical, mental, social, spiritual

c)

Dietary, medical, genetic, cultural

d)

Professional, academic, recreational, familial

4.

Why do athletes across different sports need similar programming knowledge?

a)

To avoid mental and social wellbeing altogether

b)

To plan fitness training programmes correctly

c)

To ensure every workout is identical

d)

To select expensive equipment for training

5.

Which lifestyle factor most directly affects both health and well-being as presented in Aim A?

a)

Combined daily choices such as diet and activity

b)

Occasional medical check-ups once a year

c)

Only exercise routines every weekend

d)

Genetic traits inherited at birth

6.

A student wishes to improve overall well-being. Which plan aligns with the definition of health?

a)

Increase bench press and ignore stress

b)

Balance training, manage stress, strengthen social ties

c)

Train daily whilst skipping meals for weight loss

d)

Focus on grades and ignore physical activity

7.

Which lifestyle factor is classified as positive because it offers multiple health benefits across physical, psychological, social, and economic domains?

a)

Smoking as a social activity

b)

Alcohol in moderation daily

c)

Exercise and physical activity

d)

Skipping breakfast regularly

8.

Identify a disadvantage most strongly associated with a sedentary lifestyle for long-term health.

a)

Increased risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes

b)

Improved insulin sensitivity and control

c)

Enhanced muscular strength and endurance

d)

Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease

9.

Which two items from the list are lifestyle factors that can negatively impact health when mismanaged?

a)

Team sports and coaching

b)

Exercise and balanced diet

c)

Smoking and alcohol

d)

Hydration and stretching

10.

Select the best example of a psychological benefit from regular physical activity.

a)

Enhanced economy of movement

b)

Increased bone mineral density

c)

Improved mood and reduced anxiety

d)

Lower resting heart rate

11.

For a 15–17-year-old, which statement aligns with UK Government guidance on daily activity?

a)

Strength training once per week only

b)

At least 60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous activity

c)

No structured activity is necessary daily

d)

Ten minutes of light walking after dinner

12.

Which scenario best applies the concept of breaking up sedentary time to reduce health risk?

a)

Studying for six hours nonstop

b)

Watching films with no intermissions

c)

Sitting through classes without breaks

d)

Standing and stretching every 30 minutes

13.

A student wants social benefits from exercise. Which choice most directly targets that aim?

a)

Solo high-intensity treadmill intervals

b)

Joining a community sports club

c)

Private strength sessions alone

d)

Individual flexibility routines at home

14.

You have five minutes to plan a short presentation on one benefit of exercise. Which benefit would be most persuasive to a school board deciding on PE funding?

a)

Eliminates the need for sleep in teenagers

b)

Mainly increases screen time and gaming ability

c)

Only helps elite athletes with performance gains

d)

Improves economic productivity through reduced absenteeism

15.

Which component best defines exercise intensity in fitness programming?

a)

How long the session lasts each day

b)

Which body parts are trained most often

c)

How many exercises are performed weekly

d)

How hard the body works during activity

16.

For children and young people aged 5–18, which activity type most directly supports bone health?

a)

Slow cycling on flat terrain

b)

Light stretching and yoga flows

c)

Low-intensity balance exercises

d)

Weight-bearing jumping and running

17.

Which measure is most appropriate for monitoring moderate-intensity exercise in adults?

a)

Talk test with slightly faster breathing

b)

Daily flexibility sit-and-reach score

c)

Resting heart rate once per week

d)

One-repetition max strength testing

18.

Older adults (64+) should prioritise which added activity domain to reduce fall risk?

a)

High-impact plyometrics only

b)

Extended static stretching

c)

Balance and functional training

d)

Maximal sprint intervals

19.

Which statement best distinguishes vigorous from moderate intensity?

a)

Vigorous sessions last longer than moderate sessions

b)

Vigorous limits talking; moderate allows sentences

c)

Vigorous uses less oxygen than moderate work

d)

Vigorous requires more rest days than light work

20.

For adults aged 19–64, which combination illustrates variety in weekly physical activity?

a)

Daily static stretching only

b)

Maximal lifts every single day

c)

Only light housework all week

d)

Brisk walking plus resistance training

21.

Which activity would most likely count towards vigorous-intensity minutes?

a)

Gentle gardening pulling small weeds

b)

Casual stroll around the neighbourhood

c)

Slow tai chi with deep breathing

d)

Running uphill at a sustained pace

22.

Under-5s benefit most from which daily activity pattern?

a)

Structured heavy weightlifting sessions

b)

Sedentary screen time with snacks

c)

One long workout without breaks

d)

Frequent active play spread throughout the day

23.

When planning for different life stages, which factor should be adjusted first?

a)

Type and intensity matched to age

b)

Gym location and music volume

c)

Shoelace colour and clothing style

d)

Post-workout smoothie ingredients

24.

Which example best fits muscle-strengthening activity for teens?

a)

Bodyweight circuits with proper form

b)

Extended quiet reading at home

c)

Slow walking on level ground

d)

Light stretching before bedtime

25.

For adults, which cue indicates you have reached vigorous intensity using the talk test?

a)

You can speak a few words only

b)

You can sing comfortably throughout

c)

You can easily chat in full sentences

d)

You can whisper long stories calmly

26.

Which planning step improves adherence across age groups?

a)

Choose enjoyable, sustainable activities

b)

Eliminate all rest days each week

c)

Avoid goal setting and monitoring

d)

Select only complex, technical drills

27.

Which statement best explains the purpose of the Eatwell Guide in planning meals?

a)

Ranks foods from best to worst

b)

Shows portions for each food group daily

c)

Calculates calories for every ingredient

d)

Lists recipes for athletes only

28.

Which food group should make up the largest proportion on the Eatwell Guide plate?

a)

Dairy and alternatives mostly

b)

Protein sources primarily

c)

Oils and spreads mainly

d)

Fruit and vegetables overall

29.

What immediate effect can a poor diet have on the immune system?

a)

Makes vaccines unnecessary for protection

b)

Prevents minor illnesses entirely

c)

Automatically strengthens antibody production

d)

Forces it to work without adequate support

30.

Which health outcome is directly supported by a balanced diet that includes varied food groups?

a)

Maintenance of healthy body weight

b)

Instant increase in muscle size

c)

Elimination of all genetic diseases

d)

Zero need for physical activity

31.

Which recommendation aligns with the Eatwell Guide for drinks?

a)

Aim for around six to eight glasses daily

b)

Limit all fluids to one cup per day

c)

Only drink fruit juice with every meal

d)

Avoid water when eating carbohydrates

32.

Which chronic condition risk is reduced by healthy dietary patterns?

a)

Type 2 diabetes development

b)

Acute sprains from sport

c)

Immediate viral infections

d)

Genetic blood disorders

33.

Why can loss of appetite occur when the immune system is stressed by poor nutrition?

a)

Higher illness risk disrupts normal eating

b)

Fat stores block hunger hormones

c)

Protein intake becomes instantly toxic

d)

Carbohydrates stop digesting entirely

34.

Which simple strategy best supports immune function through diet?

a)

Relying solely on supplements daily

b)

Doubling sugar intake during training

c)

Eliminating all fats from meals

d)

Consistently eating a balanced, varied diet

35.

On the Eatwell Guide, which food group should be eaten less often and in small amounts?

a)

Beans, pulses, fish, eggs

b)

Whole grains and potatoes

c)

High-fat, salt, sugar foods

d)

Fruit and vegetables variety

36.

Which benefit is commonly associated with long-term healthy eating habits?

a)

Permanent elimination of hypertension

b)

Immediate cure for osteoporosis

c)

Reduced risk of high cholesterol

d)

Guaranteed absence of colds forever

37.

Which statistic best describes childhood overweight and obesity in 2012 in England?

a)

About 28% of ages 2–15 were overweight or obese

b)

About 24% of ages 2–15 were overweight or obese

c)

About 18% of ages 2–15 were overweight or obese

d)

About 34% of ages 2–15 were overweight or obese

38.

What is the primary cardiovascular condition directly linked to diet and obesity discussed here?

a)

Anaemia as a diet-related condition

b)

Appendicitis as a diet-related condition

c)

Asthma as a diet-related condition

d)

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) as a diet-related condition

39.

Which statement accurately contrasts HDL and LDL cholesterol?

a)

HDL is good cholesterol; LDL is bad cholesterol

b)

HDL is bad cholesterol; LDL is good cholesterol

c)

HDL and LDL are identical cholesterol types

d)

HDL and LDL do not affect blood flow

40.

How can a healthy diet influence blood pressure and heart disease risk?

a)

Has no effect on blood lipoproteins or blood flow

b)

Raises HDL and lowers LDL to support smooth blood flow

c)

Raises LDL and lowers HDL to support smooth blood flow

d)

Eliminates all cholesterol to support smooth blood flow

41.

Which chronic conditions, besides CHD, can be helped by a healthy diet?

a)

Diabetes, depression, cancer, osteoporosis

b)

Migraine, dermatitis, scoliosis, gout

c)

Tuberculosis, HIV, malaria, measles

d)

Fractures, sprains, concussions, bruises

42.

When debating responsibility for excess bodyweight, which factors should be weighed?

a)

Only genetic factors without environment

b)

Only personal willpower without external factors

c)

Only exercise habits without diet or policy

d)

Individual choices versus government and societal roles

43.

Which external influences are specifically suggested for evaluating accountability in obesity?

a)

Food and drink companies and exercise opportunities

b)

Home gardening and pet ownership

c)

Air travel policies and parking fees

d)

Weather forecasts and school bell times

44.

Which statement best describes water’s role in transporting substances in the body?

a)

Water stores energy for muscular contractions

b)

Water blocks hormones from moving in blood

c)

Water is the main transport for nutrients and wastes

d)

Water dissolves gases for lung exchange

45.

During exercise, what is a primary function of water?

a)

Increases joint lubrication rapidly

b)

Regulates body temperature efficiently

c)

Builds muscle tissue directly

d)

Raises blood pressure consistently

46.

Approximately what proportion of an adult’s body is made up of water in body fluids?

a)

65–70 per cent of total mass

b)

55–60 per cent of total mass

c)

30–35 per cent of total mass

d)

45–50 per cent of total mass

47.

Which process depends on adequate fluid to move food through the body?

a)

Nutrient storage in adipose

b)

Pancreatic enzyme synthesis

c)

Digestive system passage of food

d)

Gastric acid production only

48.

Which description accurately defines caffeine’s primary classification?

a)

A fat-soluble vitamin supplement

b)

A high-calorie carbohydrate source

c)

A central nervous system stimulant

d)

A slow-acting anabolic hormone

49.

Which statement about caffeine’s nutritional value is correct?

a)

Provides essential amino acids

b)

Supplies complex dietary fibre

c)

Offers minerals and electrolytes

d)

Contains no nutritional value

50.

For most adults, what intake is considered moderate caffeine consumption?

a)

Around 400 mg or four to five cups

b)

Around 100 mg or one small cup

c)

Around 300 mg or three large cups

d)

Around 200 mg or two small cups

51.

Which potential performance effect is linked to caffeine use in sports requiring speed and strength?

a)

Lowered anaerobic power output

b)

Reduced neuromuscular recruitment

c)

Decreased reaction time consistency

d)

Improved physical performance

52.

Which concern could support adding caffeine back to a banned substance list under WADA criteria?

a)

It is widely available in supermarkets

b)

It can pose health risks at high doses

c)

It is difficult to detect in urine tests

d)

It tastes bitter in many beverages

53.

Which statement best describes a common argument in favour of allowing caffeine use in sport?

a)

It is an everyday substance found in many foods

b)

It never affects athlete routines or diet

c)

It always decreases endurance performance in events

d)

It is banned by all sports organisations worldwide

54.

Which is a listed concern against caffeine use related to fairness in competition?

a)

It blocks carbohydrate absorption during races

b)

It lowers speed and stamina in endurance

c)

It reduces hydration and causes muscle cramps

d)

It increases reaction time creating unfair advantage

55.

Which health risk is noted when consuming an overdose of caffeine?

a)

It prevents any elevation of blood pressure

b)

It can cause stress on the body

c)

It cures narcolepsy permanently

d)

It eliminates all sleep disturbances

56.

Which potential ergogenic effect of caffeine is cited by supporters?

a)

It increases speed and stamina

b)

It fuels muscles without carbohydrates

c)

It guarantees perfect pacing strategies

d)

It eliminates the need for hydration

57.

Meal timing guidance recommends eating approximately how often during the day?

a)

Whenever hunger is completely absent

b)

Every one to two hours

c)

Only once late in the evening

d)

Every three to four hours

58.

Eating too close to bedtime most likely leads to which outcome?

a)

Improved sleep quality and deep rest

b)

Enhanced recovery through slower digestion

c)

Raised temperature and higher blood sugar

d)

Lower appetite and reduced stress hormones

59.

According to dietary balance advice, about two thirds of the diet should consist mainly of which foods?

a)

Fruit/vegetables and carbohydrates

b)

High-caffeine beverages and supplements

c)

Red meat and saturated fats

d)

Processed sugars and salty snacks

60.

Which recommendation is given for managing salt intake?

a)

Salt every meal heavily to prevent cramps

b)

Avoid eating too much salt in the diet

c)

Ignore salt because athletes need more

d)

Replace salt entirely with added sugars

61.

A 40-year-old office worker skips breakfast and relies on sugary drinks and coffee to avoid fatigue, eating dinner at 9 pm. Which single change would most directly improve energy regulation?

a)

Schedule regular meals every three to four hours

b)

Increase late-night snacks after dinner

c)

Eliminate vegetables while keeping sugary drinks

d)

Add more salty processed foods to lunch

62.

Which rationale supports medical use of caffeine for certain athletes?

a)

Doctors recommend it for athletes with narcolepsy

b)

It guarantees no health risks in all doses

c)

It violates the spirit of sport under all rules

d)

It was never banned and fully unrestricted

63.

Which benefit best explains why eating five portions of fruit and vegetables daily supports overall health?

a)

Increases added sugars for rapid energy bursts

b)

Delivers saturated fats for hormone production

c)

Supplies high protein to build skeletal muscles

d)

Provides vitamins and minerals for body functions

64.

What is the primary role of dietary fibre highlighted in the guidance?

a)

Enhances blood clotting during heavy exercise

b)

Maximises muscle hypertrophy after workouts

c)

Raises metabolic rate for faster fat burning

d)

Supports digestive system function and gut health

65.

According to the advice, what daily salt target should an adult aim to stay below?

a)

Less than 6 grammes per day

b)

Exactly 10 grammes per day

c)

More than 12 grammes per day

d)

Around 8 grammes per day

66.

Why is reducing salt intake emphasised in the guidance?

a)

High salt contributes to high blood pressure

b)

Extra salt prevents muscle cramps in games

c)

Low salt limits endurance performance

d)

Salt deficiency causes immediate dehydration

67.

Which substitution strategy aligns with using nutrition label colours to improve diet quality?

a)

Select more red labels and increase pastries

b)

Avoid labels entirely and eat processed snacks

c)

Ignore amber labels and prioritise sweets

d)

Choose more green labels and add vegetables

68.

A youth footballer feels tired after training and eats little fruit. Which immediate dietary change is most likely to help energy and recovery?

a)

Skip dinner to reduce total daily calories

b)

Replace water with sugary energy drinks

c)

Increase added salt on post-training meals

d)

Add fruit portions and high-fibre vegetables

69.

According to the guidance, where do most adults in the UK reportedly get a large portion of their daily salt intake?

a)

Bread and breakfast cereals

b)

Plain water and herbal tea

c)

Fresh fruit and vegetables

d)

Lean poultry and legumes

70.

In the sports scientist case study, which duty best supports players’ long-term health and performance?

a)

Negotiating player transfer market deals

b)

Designing stadium seating for spectators

c)

Scheduling social media posts for the academy

d)

Monitoring height and weight throughout the season

71.

Which tobacco component is a fast-acting addictive drug that elevates heart rate and blood pressure?

a)

Cadmium in batteries

b)

Tar from tobacco smoke

c)

Nicotine in cigarettes

d)

Radon radioactive gas

72.

Which harmful gas in tobacco smoke interferes with the function of the heart and blood vessels by reducing oxygen delivery?

a)

Methanol rocket fuel

b)

Acetone nail remover

c)

Hydrogen cyanide poison

d)

Carbon monoxide gas

73.

Which sticky substance from tobacco smoke collects in the lungs and contributes to cancer risk?

a)

Ammonia cleaning fumes

b)

Butane lighter fluid

c)

Toluene solvent vapours

d)

Tar residue build-up

74.

Smoking increases the risk of atherosclerosis primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Damaging endothelium and promoting plaque

b)

Elevating HDL cholesterol levels

c)

Expanding lung alveolar surface

d)

Stimulating insulin release in pancreas

75.

Which health condition listed is a direct respiratory consequence of smoking?

a)

Kidney failure

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Type 2 diabetes

d)

Coronary heart disease

76.

From a fitness perspective, which performance effect is most likely in a regular smoker during aerobic exercise?

a)

Enhanced lung elasticity and volume

b)

Lower perceived exertion during running

c)

Reduced oxygen transport efficiency

d)

Improved VO2 max capacity

77.

Which reproductive impact is associated with tobacco use?

a)

Enhanced foetal growth patterns

b)

Reduced miscarriage likelihood

c)

Infertility risk elevation

d)

Increased fertility rates

78.

Which carcinogen category best describes the 60 known cancer-causing substances present in tobacco smoke?

a)

Proven human carcinogens

b)

Benign metabolic by-products

c)

Harmless combustion additives

d)

Neutral atmospheric particulates

79.

Which strategy would most effectively reduce cardiovascular risk for a smoker beginning a fitness programme?

a)

Increase caffeine before workouts

b)

Combine smoking with interval training

c)

Quit smoking and monitor blood pressure

d)

Switch to low-tar cigarette brands

80.

Which chemical listed in tobacco smoke is a radioactive element contributing to cancer risk?

a)

Butane gas propellant

b)

Toluene solvent compound

c)

Hexamine fuel tablet

d)

Polonium-210 isotope

81.

Which disease outcome is most consistent with long-term tar accumulation in the lungs?

a)

Enhanced respiratory immunity

b)

Improved mucociliary clearance

c)

Appendicitis flare-ups

d)

Throat cancer development

82.

A student claims switching to brands with less nicotine makes smoking safe. What is the best correction?

a)

Lower nicotine prevents all carcinogens

b)

Tar and other chemicals remain harmful

c)

Reduced nicotine stops carbon monoxide

d)

Brand changes eliminate atherosclerosis

83.

Which mechanism most directly explains why smoking increases respiratory infections?

a)

Alveoli thickening enhancing gas exchange

b)

Increased white blood cell production

c)

Bronchi dilation improving airflow removal

d)

Cilia damage reducing mucus clearance

84.

What is emphysema primarily characterised by in smokers?

a)

Acute inflammation curing bronchitis quickly

b)

Excess mucus increasing carbon dioxide removal

c)

Chronic tissue damage reducing lung efficiency

d)

Temporary airway spasm improving oxygen uptake

85.

Which statement best describes atherosclerosis in the context of smoking?

a)

Arteries expand to increase blood flow

b)

Fatty deposits build up and narrow arteries

c)

Blood thins and clots less frequently

d)

Heart muscle grows to pump more efficiently

86.

Smoking combined with high blood pressure and inactivity most likely leads to which outcome?

a)

Greater risk of heart attack

b)

Immediate improvement in circulation

c)

Lower cholesterol levels over time

d)

Decreased chance of clot formation

87.

Which cancer is most strongly linked to smoking and is most common worldwide?

a)

Bone cancer in teenagers

b)

Skin cancer in non-smokers

c)

Lung cancer among major cancers

d)

Thyroid cancer in athletes

88.

How does smoking contribute to bronchitis development?

a)

Reduces mucus, preventing bacterial growth

b)

Damages cilia, increasing infection susceptibility

c)

Strengthens bronchi against pathogens

d)

Promotes rapid cilia regrowth after illness

89.

In emphysema, what gas-exchange consequence occurs?

a)

Impaired CO2 and O2 handling by lungs

b)

Enhanced O2 absorption despite damage

c)

Reduced CO2 production in tissues

d)

Increased alveolar surface without harm

90.

Which reproductive effect is associated with smoking?

a)

Female ovulation issues and male erectile dysfunction

b)

Enhanced fertility in both sexes

c)

Higher sperm count in male smokers

d)

Improved menstrual regularity in females

91.

What is the recommended weekly alcohol limit in the United Kingdom to keep health risks low?

a)

No more than 12 units weekly

b)

No more than 10 units weekly

c)

No more than 14 units weekly

d)

No more than 16 units weekly

92.

Which health risk is directly associated with chronic heavy alcohol use causing scar tissue to replace healthy liver tissue?

a)

Angina episodes

b)

Cirrhosis of the liver

c)

Hypertension development

d)

Acute heart attack

93.

Stroke risk increases with heavy alcohol use because it can lead to which immediate brain event?

a)

Gradual nerve growth

b)

Slow hormone reduction

c)

Sudden blood flow disruption

d)

Progressive immune decline

94.

Hypertension is typically identified when systolic pressure exceeds 140 mmHg and diastolic pressure exceeds which value?

a)

85 mmHg threshold

b)

80 mmHg threshold

c)

90 mmHg threshold

d)

95 mmHg threshold

95.

Which set lists health risks linked to excessive drinking as shown?

a)

Cirrhosis, depression, stroke, hypertension

b)

Angina, diabetes, asthma, migraine

c)

Anemia, obesity, arthritis, eczema

d)

Bronchitis, tinnitus, ulcers, cataracts

96.

Stress is described as the feeling of being under too much mental or emotional pressure that leads to what when coping fails?

a)

Motivation increases

b)

Pressure turns into stress

c)

Recovery becomes instant

d)

Sleep becomes deeper

97.

Which condition listed is a potential negative impact of stress on health?

a)

Enhanced immunity

b)

Lower blood pressure

c)

Improved reflexes

d)

Angina symptoms

98.

Depression can be linked with alcohol consumption primarily because heavy use can cause what?

a)

Immediate brain healing

b)

Physical dependence

c)

Rapid muscle growth

d)

Permanent immunity

99.

A training client reports drinking well above 14 units weekly and has elevated blood pressure. Which immediate lifestyle advice aligns with UK guidelines?

a)

Increase alcohol to reduce stress

b)

Stop drinking above 14 units weekly

c)

Replace alcohol with energy drinks

d)

Ignore consumption if exercising

100.

Which statement best connects stress with cardiovascular risk?

a)

Stress can contribute to hypertension

b)

Stress lowers stroke likelihood

c)

Stress cures angina symptoms

d)

Stress prevents heart attacks

101.

Which physiological sign is commonly examined in suspected liver cirrhosis cases?

a)

Yellowing of the eyes

b)

Blue fingernail beds

c)

Uneven hair growth

d)

Dilated pupils overnight

102.

A student aims to minimise alcohol-related health risk. Which weekly pattern is most consistent with the safest recommendation?

a)

Alternate 0 and 18 units weekly

b)

Binge 20 units once monthly

c)

Drink under 14 units consistently

d)

Compensate with high-intensity training