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HBS Midyear Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the front or stomach side of the body?

a)

Ventral

b)

Dorsal

c)

Cranial

d)

Vertebral

2.

Which term refers to toward the midline of the body?

a)

Lateral

b)

Deep

c)

Medial

d)

Superficial

3.

Which term refers to away from the point of attachment?

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Inferior

d)

Superior

4.

Using the labeled body-cavity image, what is labeled as Number 1?

a)

cranial cavity

b)

pelvic cavity

c)

thoracic cavity

d)

pleural cavity

5.

Using the labeled body-cavity image, what is labeled as Number 4?

a)

cranial cavity

b)

pelvic cavity

c)

thoracic cavity

d)

pleural cavity

6.

The reference position for all body directional terms is the?

a)

Sitting position

b)

Anatomical position

c)

Prone position

d)

Supine position

7.

What type of plane/cut divides the body into upper and lower portions?

a)

Transverse

b)

Sagittal

c)

Coronal

d)

Midsagittal/median

8.

Structurally there are many levels to the human body. List all of the levels in the sequence from smallest to largest.

a)

tissue, cell, organelle, organ, organ system, organism

b)

organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle

c)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

d)

Organ system, organelle, organism, tissue

9.

From ankle to toe, what is the order of bones?

a)

tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges

b)

phalanges, metatarsals, tarsals

c)

metatarsals, phalanges, tarsals

d)

tarsals, phalanges, metatarsals

10.

When the joint is extended beyond anatomical position it is called?

a)

Abduction

b)

Extension

c)

Hyperextension

d)

Medial rotation

11.

Which of the following is a long bone?

a)

Patella

b)

Carpal

c)

Femur

d)

Vertebrae

12.

Which part of the muscle is the part that moves?

a)

Origin

b)

Ligament

c)

Bone

d)

Insertion

13.

What kind of fracture is seen in the X Ray to the right?

a)

Traverse

b)

Spiral

c)

Comminuted

14.

For question 14 use the following image below: Which of these images shows a 'transverse, extra-articular, femoral neck' fracture?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

15.

Which of the following options is the correct order of fracture healing? I) Hematoma Formation II) Bone Remodeling III) Bony Callus Formation IV) Fibrocartilage Callus Formation

a)

IV,III,II,I

b)

I,IV,III,II

c)

III,IV,II,I

d)

I,IV,III,II

16.

Identify the joint action being performed.

a)

Flexion

b)

Abduction

c)

Adduction

d)

Extension

17.

Use the image to the right to answer: Number 18 is sometimes called the kneecap, but what is its scientific name?

a)

ulna

b)

patella

c)

scapula

d)

femur

18.

Use the image to the right to answer: Number 2 is referring to which bone?

a)

Zygomatic

b)

Mandible

c)

Parietal

d)

Nasal

19.

Use the image to the right to answer: Identify bone C in the image.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Phalanges

c)

Metacarpals

d)

Carpals

20.

Use the image to the right to answer: Identify bone F in the image.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

c)

Ulna

d)

Cervical Vertebrae

21.

Orbicularis Oris…

a)

Surrounds the neck

b)

Surrounds the eyes

c)

Surrounds the mouth

d)

Surrounds the ears

22.

Case study: A 48-year-old man comes into your office complaining of severe right knee pain for 8 hours; the knee became warm, swollen and tender by morning. In what region is the man's pain?

a)

Lumbar

b)

Patellar

c)

Buccal

d)

Coxal

23.

Case study: Imaging of the knee joint is ordered for cell count, culture and crystal analysis, and a CT scan is requested to take a look at the cartilage, ligaments and tendons in the joint. What type of tissue are you interested in seeing on the scan?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscular

d)

Nervous

24.

Case study: A year ago, he had some pain and swelling at the base of his big toe on the left foot. A year ago, he experienced pain in which of these?

a)

His most medial toe on his left foot.

b)

His most lateral toe on his left foot.

c)

His proximal toe on his left foot.

d)

His distal toe on his left foot.

25.

How many bones does an adult skeleton possess?

a)

106

b)

156

c)

206

d)

256

26.

Region referring to the belly button?

a)

Digital

b)

Axillary

c)

Umbilical

d)

Inguinal

27.

Region referring to the armpit?

a)

Digital

b)

Axillary

c)

Umbilical

d)

Inguinal

28.

Region referring to the ankle?

a)

Antecubital

b)

Calcaneal

c)

Cephalic

d)

Occipital

29.

Region referring to the cheek?

a)

Buccal

b)

Lumbar

c)

Orbital

d)

Sternal

30.

Which lower leg bone is found on the medial side of the body?

a)

femur

b)

humerus

c)

fibula

d)

tibia

31.

Smooth, skeletal and cardiac are examples of

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Muscle tissue

c)

Nervous tissue

d)

Connective tissue

32.

What is the major muscle on the posterior arm?

a)

Bicep

b)

Tricep

c)

Brachi

d)

Deltoid

33.

The deltoid muscle has a _____________ shape.

a)

Trapezoid

b)

Circle/orb

c)

Triangle

d)

Square

34.

During contraction, cross bridges form between?

a)

Fascicles

b)

Actin and myosin

c)

Sarcomeres

d)

Acetylcholine

35.

After the powerstroke, the actin-myosin cross-bridge remains intact until ____ binds to the myosin head. After this, the myosin will detach from actin.

a)

Calcium

b)

ATP

c)

ADP

d)

Troponin

36.

Which of the following lists the structures in order from smallest to largest?

a)

muscle, myofibril, fascicle, myofilament

b)

myofilament, muscle, myofibril, fascicle

c)

myofibril, myofilament, muscle, fascicle

d)

myofilament, myofibril, fascicle, muscle

37.

Muscle Rule 2: Muscles always ______ to get shorter.

a)

lengthen/elongate

b)

pull/contract

c)

push/force

d)

pull/lengthen

38.

Muscle Rule 3: The attachment that is stationary is known as the …

a)

Origin

b)

Insertion

39.

Muscle Rule 4: Muscles that increase ventral angles are known as…

a)

Flexors

b)

Extensors

40.

Use the labeled muscle cross-section image to answer: What is the structure labeled A?

a)

Perimysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Fascicle

d)

Myofilament

41.

Use the labeled muscle cross-section image to answer: What is the structure labeled C?

a)

Perimysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Fascicle

d)

Myofilament

42.

Refer to the labeled long-bone diagram: Letter D represents the covering of the ends of the bone at the joint. What is this known as?

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Medullary cavity

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Articular cartilage

43.

Refer to the labeled long-bone diagram: Which letter represents the periosteum of the bone?

a)

A

b)

H

c)

B

d)

E

44.

Refer to the labeled long-bone diagram: Letter E of the long bone is made up of what?

a)

Spongy bone

b)

Compact bone

c)

Chondrocytes

d)

Yellow bone marrow

45.

Refer to the labeled long-bone diagram: The epiphysis of the bone is represented by what letter?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

46.

Refer to the labeled long-bone diagram: What letter represents the diaphysis/shaft of a long bone?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

The ACL, PCL, and patellar tendon all attach to which bone?

a)

Fibula

b)

Tibia

c)

Humerus

d)

Ulna

48.

Using the knee image, identify the ligament where the injury mark is located.

a)

ACL

b)

PCL

c)

MCL

d)

LCL

49.

What three long bones are associated with the patellar joint?

a)

Humerus, radius, ulna

b)

Humerus, tibia, fibula

c)

Tibia, fibula, femur

d)

Femur, radius, tibia

50.

Which of the following is the goniometer used to measure?

a)

BMI

b)

Range of motion at a joint

c)

Urine concentration

d)

Muscle Mass

51.

How many ureters does a person typically have?

a)

One

b)

Four

c)

Three

d)

Two

52.

Filtering blood to remove excess water and waste products is the job of the:

a)

Urinary bladder

b)

Kidneys

c)

Ureters

d)

Intestine

53.

Transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder is the job of the:

a)

Kidneys

b)

Ureters

c)

Urethra

d)

Intestine

54.

Normal urine color is:

a)

Clear/Pale yellow

b)

Amber

c)

Green/Bright yellow

d)

Red

55.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system?

a)

Osmoregulation

b)

Absorb nutrients

c)

Filter blood

d)

Regulate blood volume

56.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?

a)

Red blood cell production

b)

Regulate pH

c)

Absorption of fatty acids

d)

Regulate ion concentrations

57.

Blood flows out of the kidneys to the inferior vena cava via the...

a)

Renal pelvis

b)

Renal vein

c)

Renal artery

d)

Renal plexus

58.

Using the labeled diagram of the urinary system, what is D pointing to?

a)

Kidney

b)

Bladder

c)

Ureter

d)

Urethra

59.

The ____ is a sac-like muscular organ that stores urine until it is ready to be released from the body.

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Stomach

c)

Urethra

d)

Bladder

60.

The triangular divisions of the medulla of the kidney are called?

a)

renal papilla

b)

renal cortex

c)

renal pyramid

d)

renal pelvis

61.

The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called the?

a)

renal pyramid

b)

Nephron

c)

Glomerulus

d)

calyx

62.

Which renal tubule structure consists of a straight descending limb, a hairpin turn, and a straight ascending limb?

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Proximal convoluted tubule

63.

Use the labeled nephron diagram (structures A–E) to identify the part indicated: Name structure A.

a)

Distal convoluted tubule

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Glomerulus

64.

Use the labeled nephron diagram (structures A–E) to identify the part indicated: Name structure B.

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Bowman's capsule

d)

Collecting duct

65.

Use the labeled nephron diagram (structures A–E) to identify the part indicated: Name structure C.

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Glomerulus

66.

Use the labeled nephron diagram (structures A–E) to identify the part indicated: Name structure D.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Bowman's capsule

d)

Collecting duct

67.

Use the labeled nephron diagram (structures A–E) to identify the part indicated: Name structure E.

a)

Distal convoluted tubule

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting duct

68.

What is "filtrate"?

a)

pre-urine filtered by the glomerulus

b)

blood entering the nephron via the afferent arteriole

c)

blood in the capillaries

d)

urine filtered by the bladder

69.

Which of the following is reabsorbed in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule?

a)

water, salts, and glucose

b)

medication, urea, and water

c)

proteins, glucose, filtrate

d)

water, salts, and urea

70.

Which of the following would you NOT expect to find in urine?

a)

Salts

b)

Glucose

c)

Urea

d)

Medication

71.

About how many nephrons are in each kidney?

a)

10 nephrons

b)

1 nephron

c)

1 million nephrons

d)

100 nephrons

72.

In urinalysis, the ______ test measures the concentration of particles in the urine.

a)

specific gravity

b)

pH

c)

ketones

d)

protein

73.

What is the name of the enzyme found in the digestive system that plays a huge role in digestion?

a)

Catalase

b)

Polysaccharides

c)

Proteases

d)

lipases

74.

Protein digestion begins in the

a)

Liver

b)

Esophagus

c)

Stomach

d)

Mouth

75.

Digestion is COMPLETED in the (site of major absorption)

a)

Large intestine

b)

Small intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Liver

76.

Which enzyme below is involved in the following chemical digestion process? FATS ----> FATTY ACIDS/GLYCEROL (think back to bio what is the macromolecule that makes up fats, that term is similar to one below)

a)

Amylase

b)

Pepsin

c)

Lipase

d)

Trypsin

77.

What carries food from the pharynx to the stomach?

a)

Trachea

b)

Esophagus

c)

Larynx

d)

Bronchioles

78.

What type of digestion takes place in the stomach?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

c)

Both mechanical and chemical

79.

Where does the process of digestion begin?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Esophagus

c)

Stomach

d)

Mouth

80.

Where does the absorption of nutrients from food take place?

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

large intestine

d)

small intestine

81.

What part of the digestive system mechanically and chemically breaks down food?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Both the mouth and stomach

82.

What chemically breaks down food into smaller molecules?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Muscles of the stomach

c)

Teeth

83.

Proteins are broken down into _______.

a)

Amino acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Glycerol

d)

Fatty acids

84.

Using the image below answer the following questions (84-86). Which digestive organ is represented by the number 4?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Liver

c)

Mouth

d)

Pancreas

85.

Using the image below answer the following questions (84-86). Which digestive organ is represented by number 10?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Liver

c)

Mouth

d)

Pancreas

86.

Using the image below answer the following questions (84-86). Which digestive organ is represented by number 2?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Trachea

c)

Mouth

d)

Stomach

87.

Which of the following answers correctly sequences the pathway food takes from the beginning to end?

a)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus

b)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus

c)

mouth, rectum, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, anus

d)

mouth, stomach, esophagus, rectum, small intestine, large intestine, anus

88.

What is the primary purpose of an upper endoscopy (EGD)?

a)

To screen for colorectal cancer

b)

To examine the large intestine

c)

To examine the upper digestive tract

d)

To treat digestive tract problems without surgery

89.

During a colonoscopy procedure, through which body opening is the colonoscope inserted?

a)

Mouth

b)

Nose

c)

Anus

d)

Ear

90.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform an upper endoscopy?

a)

Investigating abdominal pain

b)

Evaluating trouble swallowing

c)

Screening for colorectal cancer

d)

Investigating heartburn

91.

What is the correct sequence of anatomical structures that a colonoscope passes through during a colonoscopy?

a)

Anus, sigmoid colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

b)

Anus, rectum, sigmoid colon, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon

c)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, duodenum

d)

Anus, rectum, descending colon, sigmoid colon, transverse colon

92.

Which of the following statements about endoscopic procedures is TRUE?

a)

Both colonoscopy and upper endoscopy use non-invasive imaging techniques

b)

Both procedures use a flexible tube with a light and camera

c)

Upper endoscopy is primarily used to screen for colorectal cancer

d)

Colonoscopy examines the upper portion of the digestive tract

93.

What is the primary mechanism by which celiac disease damages the small intestine?

a)

Direct bacterial infection of intestinal cells

b)

Accumulation of gluten proteins in the intestinal wall

c)

Immune system attack on the intestinal lining in response to gluten

d)

Overproduction of digestive enzymes that erode the intestinal surface

94.

What is the cause of polycystic kidney disease?

a)

Bacterial overgrowth

b)

Environmental factors

c)

Mutations of genes

d)

Viral infection

95.

What is the significance of kidney size in diagnosing PKD?

a)

Kidneys are irregular in shape due to infection

b)

Kidneys are shrunken due to excessive scarring

c)

Kidneys are enlarged due to multiple cysts that formed

d)

The kidneys appear to be normal

96.

The mode of inheritance for PKD is considered autosomal dominant. Suppose a man is heterozygous for PKD, and a woman does not have PKD. What is the probability that their child would have PKD?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

97.

What is Chronic Kidney Disease?

a)

Inability of the kidneys to filter blood

b)

Inability of the ureters to transport urine

c)

Inability of the kidney to circulate blood

d)

Inability of the bladder to store urine

98.

What would be the best treatment option for someone who has Chronic Kidney Disease?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

Kidney Transplant

c)

Biopsy

d)

Endoscopy

99.

Use the Pedigree below to answer the following questions (99 and 100). How many children do the couple in generation I have together?

a)

6

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

100.

Use the Pedigree below to answer the following questions (99 and 100). How many females are carriers in the pedigree?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

7