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Cerdas Cermat Bulan K3 Nasional 2026

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An electrical cable lies across a pedestrian walkway without protection. This is classified as ...

a)

Unsafe Action

b)

Unsafe Condition

c)

Near miss

d)

Unsafe act

2.

A chemical cabinet in the laboratory has no label. This is classified as ...

a)

Unsafe Action

b)

Unsafe Condition

c)

Unsafe act

d)

Administrative violation

3.

The primary purpose of implementing 5R is to ...

a)

Speed up work

b)

Create a safe and orderly work area

c)

Reduce the number of workers

d)

Increase work targets

4.

Separating damaged and unfit-for-use tools is the 5R element of ...

a)

Rapi

b)

Ringkas

c)

Resik

d)

Rawat

5.

Work accidents generally occur due to ...

a)

Weather

b)

Equipment factors only

c)

A combination of KTA and TTA

d)

Fate

6.

An inspector performs testing without complete PPE because the job is brief. This is classified as ...

a)

Unsafe Condition

b)

Unsafe Action

c)

Unsafe condition

d)

Near miss

7.

Insufficient lighting in a field inspection area is classified as ...

a)

Unsafe Condition

b)

KTA

c)

Unsafe act

d)

Pelanggaran SOP

8.

Arranging PPE on a labeled rack is application of 5R in the part ...

a)

Ringkas

b)

Rapi

c)

Resik

d)

Rajin

9.

Reporting Unsafe action and Unsafe condition aims to ...

a)

Determine fault

b)

Impose sanctions

c)

Prevent recurring accidents

d)

Formality

10.

A worker climbing scaffolding without a work permit is classified as ...

a)

Unsafe Condition

b)

Unsafe Action

c)

Unsafe condition

d)

Near miss

11.

Removing test-machine guarding because it is considered to hinder work is classified as ...

a)

Unsafe Action

b)

Unsafe Condition

c)

Human error

d)

Near miss

12.

What is the main factor causing unsafe acts (TTA) at sites and laboratories?

a)

Environmental conditions

b)

Lack of awareness and a safety culture (K3)

c)

Lack of equipment

d)

Weather

13.

Cleaning up chemical spills immediately after testing is part of which element of the 5R principle?

a)

Ringkas (Sort)

b)

Rapi (Set in order)

c)

Resik (Clean)

d)

Rawat (Standardize/Maintain)

14.

Routine checks of work tools to keep them fit for use belong to which 5R element?

a)

Resik (Clean)

b)

Ringkas (Sort)

c)

Rawat (Standardize/Maintain)

d)

Rajin (Sustain/Discipline)

15.

Active reporting of KTA (unsafe conditions) and TTA (unsafe acts) reflects which type of Occupational Health and Safety (K3) management?

a)

Reactive

b)

Individual

c)

Professional, reliable, and collaborative

d)

Temporary

16.

According to Manpower Regulation PER-02/MEN/1993, what is meant by Zero Accident?

a)

The absence of work accidents that lead to outpatient treatment and a one-day loss of work time

b)

The absence of work accidents at certain workplaces or high-risk areas that cause loss of workdays

c)

The absence of work accidents that cause worker death, permanent disability, or loss of workdays for a certain period

d)

The absence of minor incidents regardless of lost workdays

17.

Article 13 of Law No. 1 of 1970 states, “Anyone who will enter a place is required to comply with all safety instructions and wear the required personal protective equipment.” To whom does this provision apply?

a)

Only people directly tied to jobs at the workplace

b)

Only installations considered high‑risk areas

c)

Uninvolved people who enter the work area

d)

All personnel entering the work area without exception

18.

Government Regulation No. 50 of 2012 mandates that every company must:

a)

Prepare an annual safety‑training schedule

b)

Conduct periodic environmental audits

c)

Submit OHS reports every three months to the provincial labor office

d)

Implement an Occupational Safety and Health Management System (SMK3)

19.

What is the main title or topic of Law No. 1 of 1970?

a)

Labor Unions

b)

Occupational Health

c)

Occupational Safety

d)

Work Environment

20.

According to Law No. 1 of 1970, which three key elements must be present for a location to be called a “Workplace”?

a)

Business permit, capital, and profit

b)

Business activity, workers, and sources of hazards

c)

Work area, sources of hazards, and risk assessment

d)

Work building, work machines, and personnel

21.

Article 3 of Law No. 1 of 1970 lists occupational safety requirements. Which of the following is one of its objectives?

a)

Maximizing company profits

b)

Preventing and reducing accidents

c)

Reducing overtime hours

d)

Reducing the number of workers

22.

What must management (the company) do with Law No. 1 of 1970 and its implementing regulations at the workplace?

a)

Store them in a document room

b)

Print and display them at the company so they are easy to see

c)

Memorize them without informing workers

d)

Give hard copies to all personnel

23.

Who is protected by Law No. 1 of 1970 at the workplace?

a)

Visitors who come to the work area

b)

Everyone who enters the work area

c)

The company’s top management

d)

Employees with permanent employment status (PKWTT)

24.

National K3 Month is commemorated each year on what dates?

a)

January 1 to January 31

b)

January 12 to February 12

c)

January 13 to February 13

d)

January 15 to February 15

25.

Before Law No. 1 of 1970, which occupational safety regulation was used in Indonesia (a Dutch legacy)?

a)

Dienst Van het Stoomwezen

b)

Veiligheids Reglement (VR) 1910

c)

Gezondheid op het werk

d)

Openbaar Ministerie (OM) 1960

26.

What legal basis specifically sets the shape, colors, and dimensions of the K3 Emblem and Flag currently in use?

a)

Minister of Manpower Regulation No. 05 of 1996

b)

Minister of Manpower Decree No. 1135 of 1987

c)

Law No. 1 of 1970

d)

Law No. 32 of 2009

27.

On the K3 emblem there is a gear. How many teeth does it have and what is their historical meaning?

a)

9 teeth, symbolizing 9 prevention principles

b)

11 teeth, symbolizing the 11 chapters in Law No. 1 of 1970

c)

10 teeth, symbolizing 10 founders of K3 origins

d)

12 teeth, symbolizing 12 personnel on the K3 Steering Committee

28.

Government Regulation (PP) No. 50 of 2012 regulates what?

a)

Occupational safety

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Management System (SMK3)

c)

Environmental impact assessment (AMDAL)

d)

Industrial relations dispute settlement

29.

Who has the authority and obligation to sign the company’s OHS Policy?

a)

General OHS expert in the company

b)

Employer or top management of the company

c)

Head of the local provincial manpower office

d)

The company’s OHSMS auditor

30.

According to Minister of Manpower Regulation No. 5 of 2018, workplace OHS factors are categorized into which factors?

a)

Physical, chemical, biological, ergonomics, psychotropics and other addictive substances

b)

Physical, chemical, biological, ergonomics, psychology

c)

Physical, chemical, biological, economics, psychology

d)

Physical, chemical, sanitation, ergonomics, psychology

31.

When preparing an OHS Plan, which document must be used as the primary basis?

a)

Company profit figures

b)

Initial review results and identification of potential hazards

c)

Top management instructions

d)

Directions from the company’s general OHS expert

32.

The OHS emblem (gear wheel) assigns a specific philosophical meaning to each color. What is the meaning of the GREEN color on the emblem?

a)

Clean and pure

b)

Safe, healthy, and prosperous

c)

Free from accidents and occupational diseases

d)

Vigilance toward risk

33.

Why was Law No. 1 of 1970 issued to replace the earlier regulation?

a)

The earlier regulation did not yet regulate workers’ social security

b)

The earlier regulation was repressive, whereas Law No. 1 of 1970 is preventive

c)

The earlier regulation was still written in Dutch and thus hard to understand

d)

The earlier regulation applied only to the sugar industry

34.

What is the main purpose of holding the National K3 Month every year?

a)

To provide workplace safety education

b)

To increase awareness and institutionalize K3 at the workplace

c)

To prevent work accidents and occupational diseases

d)

To enliven the month with various competitions

35.

The common color of a fire extinguisher (APAR) cylinder is

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Purple

36.

In first aid (P3K), the primary principle “ABC” stands for

a)

Tools, Assistance, Injury

b)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

c)

Safe, Clean, Fast

d)

Direction, Shape, Injury

37.

Fires caused by flammable liquids such as gasoline are classified as

a)

Class B

b)

Class C

c)

Class 1

d)

Class 3

38.

The safe distance when using a fire extinguisher (APAR) to start spraying the fire is approximately

a)

50 cm

b)

1 meter

c)

2–3 meters

d)

5 meters

39.

When a fire has grown large and is producing thick smoke, the best action is

a)

Keep trying to extinguish it

b)

Get an additional fire extinguisher

c)

Protect yourself and evacuate

d)

Wait for instructions

40.

For an unconscious but breathing victim, the correct first aid position is

a)

Recovery position

b)

Supine (lying on the back)

c)

Sitting

d)

Prone (face down)

41.

A first aid kit must be inspected periodically to ensure

a)

The color of the box still looks good

b)

Supplies are complete and not expired

c)

The quantity matches personal preference

d)

It is stored in a locked cabinet

42.

A worker has a metal splinter in the eye and complains of pain. The most appropriate first aid action is

a)

Rub the eye to help the splinter come out

b)

Apply eye drops

c)

Cover the eye and promptly refer to medical personnel

d)

Remove the splinter with fingers

43.

If the primary evacuation route is blocked by thick smoke, the correct action is

a)

Return to the work area

b)

Find an alternative evacuation route

c)

Wait in place

d)

Break the glass

44.

During a fire evacuation in a multistory building, the use of elevators is

a)

Recommended

b)

Prohibited

c)

Only for persons with disabilities

d)

Safer than using stairs

45.

A Dry Chemical Powder fire extinguisher is NOT recommended for

a)

Electrical fires

b)

Gas fires

c)

Flammable liquid fires

d)

Rooms with equipment

46.

After arriving at the assembly point, employees must

a)

Go home immediately

b)

Wait for instructions and be accounted for

c)

Disperse

d)

Re-enter the building

47.

The main purpose of having evacuation wardens in every work area is to

a)

Replace the leader

b)

Direct traffic

c)

Ensure the evacuation proceeds in an orderly and safe manner

d)

Ensure asset security

48.

An emergency is considered under control when

a)

Work activities are stopped

b)

All employees panic

c)

The risk can be controlled and does not escalate

d)

The alarm is turned off

49.

The primary role of the company's Emergency Response Team is to

a)

Stop production

b)

Handle emergencies in accordance with procedures

c)

Prepare monthly reports

d)

Guard the entrance

50.

One indicator of good emergency preparedness is

a)

A large number of fire extinguishers

b)

Regular training and simulation drills are conducted

c)

The building is new

d)

Working hours have increased

51.

During an earthquake while inside a building, the correct initial action is

a)

Immediately run outside

b)

Take cover, protect your head, and stay away from glass

c)

Call your family

d)

Use the elevator

52.

The purpose of a post-emergency evaluation (emergency drill) is to

a)

Impose sanctions

b)

Provide food

c)

Fulfill obligations superficially

d)

Assess weaknesses and improve the OHS (K3) system

53.

Evacuation signs are usually colored

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Black

d)

Green

54.

The following equipment is mandatory in a first aid kit (P3K)

a)

Bandages and sterile gauze

b)

Paracetamol tablets

c)

Motion sickness medicine

d)

Antibiotics

55.

A preparator works in a preparation area and rarely uses a respirator mask for about 6 years; in the seventh year the preparator experiences impaired lung function. This condition is called:

a)

Work-related negligence

b)

Incident

c)

Occupational disease

d)

Near miss

56.

Why must every new employee attend K3L induction?

a)

To know and understand the technical details of the job

b)

To know and understand the hazards and risks present in the job

c)

To know and understand who their supervisor is

d)

To know and understand the amount of salary and any fee survey received

57.

A leader sees their team working without complete PPE. As a leader, what should be done?

a)

Let it continue as is

b)

Reprimand only when an incident happens

c)

Reprimand and direct them to use complete PPE while working

d)

All answers are wrong

58.

Which of the following is not a hazard in the preparation work area?

a)

Dust exposure

b)

Radiation

c)

Noise

d)

Vibration

59.

One way to prevent eye strain from staring at a monitor or gadget screen for too long is the 20-20-20 method. What does the 20-20-20 method mean?

a)

20 seconds looking at the screen, 20 meters looking at an object, and 20 minutes resting the eyes

b)

20 hours looking at the screen, 20 kilometers looking at an object, and 20 seconds resting the eyes

c)

20 minutes looking at the screen, 20 feet (6 meters) looking at an object, and 20 seconds resting the eyes

d)

20 minutes looking at the screen, 20 feet (6 centimeters) looking at an object, and 20 seconds resting the eyes

60.

A leader sees the team working under hazardous conditions and immediately stops the operation. This action is called:

a)

Educational

b)

Persuasive

61.

A technician begins repairing damaged equipment without isolating energy. This is incorrect. Before starting the job, what step must be done?

a)

Put up a sign and start working

b)

Start immediately to meet the target

c)

Leave and ignore the damaged equipment

d)

Isolate energy, lock out, tag LOTO, then work

62.

While performing work, an incident occurs. As a coworker, what should you do?

a)

Carry out evacuation even without competence, then contact the emergency team

b)

Ignore and hide the information

c)

Do not report and evacuate secretly

d)

Carry out evacuation only if you have competence, then contact the emergency team

63.

What is meant by a Confined Space?

a)

Designed for long-term work, with air circulation, and narrow room

b)

Small room with many access points and good air circulation

c)

Not intended for work, limited access, and no air circulation

d)

All answers are correct

64.

During sampling work, a sampler is not using a body harness. This is categorized as:

a)

Unsafe Condition

b)

Incident

c)

Nearmiss

d)

Unsafe Action

65.

The stages of the risk control hierarchy are:

a)

Elimination – Substitution – Administration – Engineering – PPE

b)

Elimination – Substitution – Engineering – PPE – Administration

c)

Elimination – Substitution – Engineering – Administration – PPE

d)

No correct answer

66.

Which of the following is an example of unsafe action, except:

a)

Not using PPE

b)

Excessive joking while working

c)

Not reporting hazardous conditions

d)

None of the answers are correct

67.

A job in a barge area has higher risk. A leader observes this and moves the work location to a safer place. This action represents which risk control:

a)

Engineering control

b)

Elimination

c)

Substitution

d)

All answers are correct

68.

A technician repairs a crusher that generates high noise and vibration during operation by installing a damping cover. By installing the cover, noise and vibration can be reduced. This action represents which control:

a)

Substitution

b)

Elimination

c)

Engineering control

d)

All answers are correct

69.

Which of the following is a method of risk assessment:

a)

Likelihood × consequence

b)

Number of accidents × hours worked

c)

Incident log

d)

Fate × destiny

70.

Which of the following are sources of hazards, except:

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

c)

Ergonomic

d)

Fire

71.

A worker operates in an area close to hazardous and toxic materials. This condition has hazards originating from:

a)

Physical

b)

Ergonomic

c)

Chemical

72.

A worker operates in an area with noise, vibration, and dampness. These conditions present hazards originating from:

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

c)

Biological

d)

Work area

73.

A surveyor works in an area with many wild animals; this source of hazard is:

a)

Biological

b)

Chemical

c)

Ergonomic

d)

Physical

74.

A worker who nearly experiences or successfully avoids an event that could cause an occupational accident is termed:

a)

Incident

b)

Accident

c)

Lucky/fortunate

d)

Near miss

75.

Work accidents are contributed by two causes, direct and indirect. An example of an indirect cause is:

a)

Witchcraft

b)

Unsafe condition

c)

Unsafe act

d)

Lack of knowledge about hazard sources

76.

Medical Check Up (MCU) is:

a)

A health examination when a worker is ill

b)

A periodic health examination to determine workers’ health status

c)

A special examination after a workplace accident

d)

An administrative check of employees

77.

The MCU conducted before someone starts working is called...

a)

MCU Annual

b)

MCU Periodic

c)

MCU Special

d)

MCU Recruitment

78.

The primary purpose of MCU Recruitment is...

a)

Determining a worker’s starting salary

b)

Assessing the health eligibility of a prospective worker

c)

Determining a worker’s job position

d)

Reducing working hours

79.

MCU Annual is conducted with the aim of...

a)

Evaluating employee performance

b)

Early detection of occupational diseases

c)

Determining disciplinary sanctions

d)

Terminating employment

80.

A Special MCU is required when a worker...

a)

Works in an office room

b)

Experiences or is at risk of exposure to specific hazards

c)

Works less than 4 hours

d)

Works without PPE

81.

The appropriate health examination for workers exposed to noise is...

a)

Spirometry

b)

Audiometry

c)

Visual acuity testing

d)

Electrocardiography (ECG)

82.

Ergonomics is the science that studies...

a)

The relationship between humans and chemicals

b)

The adaptation of work to human capabilities

c)

Company management systems

d)

Techniques for controlling physical hazards

83.

Ergonomic risk most often arises from...

a)

Exposure to chemicals

b)

Awkward posture and repetitive motion

c)

High noise levels

d)

Radiation

84.

An example of an ergonomic risk in laboratory work is...

a)

Exposure to toxic gases

b)

Sitting or standing for long periods in a non-ergonomic position

c)

Exposure to high temperatures

d)

Explosion risk

85.

One effort to prevent ergonomic risks is...

a)

Extend working hours

b)

Reduce rest time

c)

Arrange working posture and rest in a balanced manner

d)

Eliminate work aids

86.

The purpose of applying ergonomics in the workplace is...

a)

Increase workload

b)

Reduce work comfort

c)

Prevent musculoskeletal disorders and increase productivity

d)

Restrict workers’ movement space

87.

Lung function testing (spirometry) is generally needed for workers who...

a)

Work in administration rooms

b)

Are exposed to dust, smoke, or airborne chemicals

c)

Work with computers

d)

Work with noise

88.

One benefit of periodic MCU (medical check-up) for workers is...

a)

Reduce working hours

b)

Know health conditions early

c)

Change the type of job

d)

Accident Prevention

89.

Color blindness screening is especially important for workers who…

a)

work outdoors

b)

use color codes in their job

c)

handle heavy loads

d)

are exposed to loud noise

90.

Which ergonomic factor is specifically related to work tools?

a)

lighting

b)

room temperature

c)

design and size of equipment

d)

working hours

91.

Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) can be caused by…

a)

exposure to chemicals

b)

high levels of noise

c)

awkward posture and repetitive movements

d)

radiation

92.

A good body position when lifting a load is to…

a)

bend forward with straight legs

b)

lift with a rounded back

c)

lift with knees bent and back straight

d)

lift while twisting the body

93.

One early sign of an ergonomics-related disorder is…

a)

High fever

b)

Muscle pain or soreness after working

c)

Hearing impairment

d)

Shortness of breath

94.

Good ergonomics in the workplace can lead to…

a)

A decrease in work quality

b)

Increased fatigue

c)

Increased comfort and work productivity

d)

A higher risk of accidents