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Worksheets

pharmacy

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What drug classification is Polycillin - N / ampicillin?

a)

antibiotic

b)

anti-epileptic

c)

sedative

d)

decongestant

2.

Which of the following is considered a drug's official name?

a)

the generic name

b)

the trade name

c)

the international nonproprietary name

d)

the chemical name

3.

The study of drugs is called

a)

pharmacognosy

b)

pharmacology

c)

pharmacodynamics

d)

pharmacokinetics

4.

Which of the following refers to the study of characteristic of natural drugs and their sources?

a)

pharmacodynamics

b)

pharmacotherapies

c)

pharmacognosy

d)

pharmacotherapeutics

5.

The study of what drugs do to the body is called

a)

pharmacodynamics

b)

pharmacokinetics

c)

pharmacognosy

d)

pharmacotherapeutics

6.

What the body does to a drug is called

a)

pharmacotherapeutics

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

pharmacognosy

7.

Which of the following is the study of poisons or the poisonous effects of drugs?

a)

pharmacodynamics

b)

pharmacognosy

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

toxicology

8.

Which of the following is the study of how drugs are used to treat disease?

a)

pharmacodynamics

b)

pharmacokinetics

c)

pharmacognosy

d)

pharmacotherapeutics

9.

Which of the following are examples of plant-derived drugs?

a)

potassium-chloride and mineral oil

b)

thyroid hormone and insulin

c)

digitoxin and quinine

d)

cephalosporin and penicillin

10.

Which of the following drugs are derived from animal substances?

a)

thyroid hormone and insulin

b)

digitoxin and quinine

c)

potassium-chloride and mineral oil

11.

Which of the following drugs are derived from a mineral source?

a)

penicillin

b)

quinine

c)

cod-liver oil

d)

potassium chloride

12.

Which of the following drugs are made from bacteria and fungi?

a)

cephalosporin and penicillin

b)

digitoxin and quinine

c)

pancreatin and pepsin

d)

potassium chloride and mineral oil

13.

The abbreviation used to indicate that a medication should be given four times a day is

a)

tid

b)

ftd

c)

qid

d)

bid

14.

If the label or a multi-dose vial of medication reads 80mg. per cc. and you were to prepare a 20mg. injection, you would draw up

a)

0.2 cc

b)

0.5 cc

c)

0.25 cc

d)

0.8 cc

15.

Prednisone is a drug used in the treatment of

a)

bacterial infections

b)

inflammatory conditions

c)

depression

d)

hypertension

16.

The abbreviation for IMMEDIATELY is

a)

RX

b)

IMM

c)

IMT

d)

STAT

17.

The abbreviation for EVERY HOUR is

a)

Q.H.

b)

E.hr

c)

E.H.

d)

E.er

18.

The abbreviation for EVERY TWO HOURS is

a)

Q.2h

b)

E.T.H.

c)

E. hr 2

d)

E. 2h

19.

The initials PDR stand for

a)

physician's desk reference

b)

predetermined reference

c)

physician doctor report

d)

pituitary disease report

20.

The initials DEA stand for

a)

during each admittance

b)

drug enforcement agency

c)

doctor employment agency

d)

drug enactment act

21.

Which of the following refers to the interaction between the drug and target cells or tissues and body's response?

a)

pharmacognosy

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

pharmacotherapeutics

22.

Which of the following must you understand to explain to a patient the reasons for taking a particular drug with food or plenty of water?

a)

pharmacognosy

b)

pharmacotherapeutics

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

pharmacodynamics

23.

The process by which drug molecules are transformed into simpler products is called

a)

metabolism

b)

absorption

c)

distribution

d)

excretion

24.

How the body absorbs, metabolizes, distributes, and excretes a drug is called

a)

pharmacokinetics

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacognosy

d)

pharmacotherapeutics

25.

Intradermal drugs are absorbed through the

a)

stomach and intestines

b)

skin

c)

muscle

d)

vein

26.

Which of the following is affected by disease, a patient's age, genetic makeup, and characteristics of a drug?

a)

absorption of a drug

b)

metabolism of a drug

c)

distribution of a drug

d)

excretion of a drug

27.

Drugs that are administered intramuscularly are absorbed through the

a)

skin

b)

muscle

c)

stomach

d)

intestine

28.

Most drugs are metabolized in

a)

brain

b)

muscles

c)

nerve cells

d)

liver

29.

Which of the following is the process of transporting a drug from its administration site to its site of action?

a)

metabolism

b)

distribution

c)

absorption

d)

excretion

30.

Which of the following describes the manner in which a drug is eliminated from the body?

a)

distribution

b)

absorption

c)

metabolism

d)

excretion

31.

Which area of pharmacology is also called clinical pharmacology?

a)

pharmacognosy

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

pharmacotherapeutics

32.

Which of the following drugs are Schedule II of controlled substances?

a)

Heroin and marijuana

b)

Didrex and Butisol

c)

Talwin and Valium

d)

Demerol and Morphine

33.

Drugs that belong to which schedule of controlled substances have a low abuse potential and are dispensed like other nonopioid prescription drugs?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule V

34.

Which of the following drugs are Schedule III of controlled substances?

a)

Valium, Talwin, and Chloral Hydrate

b)

Didrex, Butisol, and Virolon

c)

Heroin, Marijuana, and LSD

d)

Demerol, Morphine, and Seconal

35.

Antitussives and antidiarrheals that contain small amounts of opioids, such as codeine, belong to which schedule?

a)

Schedule II

b)

Schedule III

c)

Schedule IV

d)

Schedule V

36.

What part of a prescription includes the name of the drug and the amount?

a)

the inscription

b)

the superscription

c)

the subscription

d)

the transcription

37.

Which part of the prescription contains the patient's instructions?

a)

the inscription

b)

the subscription

c)

the transcription

d)

the superscription

38.

What would you do to secure the handling of prescription pads?

a)

place the prescription pad on the physician's desk

b)

ask the physician to sign prescription pads in advance

c)

suggest that the physician write prescribed amounts of medication in both numerals and words

d)

use prescription blanks as notepaper

39.

Which of the following would you include when educating patients about drugs?

a)

tell patients whether the drug should be taken with or without food

b)

tell patients to save old medications or share them with someone else to avoid disposing of them

c)

instruct patients to store all drugs in hot, damp areas such as a bathroom

d)

tell patients to discontinue taking antibiotics when they feel better

40.

The action of an antihypertensive drug is to

a)

reduce blood pressure

b)

reduce inflammation

c)

kill or inhibit the growth of fungi

d)

reduce fever

41.

The action of an antipyretic medication is

a)

inhibit the cough reflex

b)

reduce fever

c)

induce defecation

d)

relax skeletal muscles

42.

Examples of drugs that belong to the drug category of cathartics are

a)

Benadryl, Claritin, and Seldane

b)

Mellaril and Haldol

c)

Dulcolax and Milk of Magnesia

d)

Decadron, Deltasone, Naprosyn

43.

Which drugs belong to the drug category of diuretics?

a)

Tenormin, Cardura, Aldomet

b)

Compazine, Dramamine, and Tigan

c)

Hydrodiuril, Lasix, Mannitol

d)

Afrin, Neo-synephrine, and Sudafed

44.

A & P means

a)

anterior and posterior

b)

accept and project

c)

auxiliary and papular

d)

astinum and periosteum

45.

CA means

a)

cancer

b)

chief complaint

c)

calcium

d)

coronary bypass

46.

Oxygen is abbreviated

a)

Ogy

b)

Ox

c)

Oz

d)

Oy

47.

FBS

a)

full bladder syndrome

b)

fasting blood sugar

c)

follicular byer's sarcoma

d)

fulminating basic series

48.

QID is an abbreviation for

a)

4 times a day

b)

quietly in daylight

c)

6 times hourly

d)

as needed

49.

TID means

a)

3 times hourly

b)

3 times daily

c)

immediately

d)

several

50.

BID means

a)

twice hourly

b)

after each meal

c)

as soon as possible

d)

2 times a day

51.

QD means

a)

every day

b)

every other day

c)

alternating Mondays

d)

once an hour

52.

PRN means

a)

practical registered nurse

b)

as needed

c)

immediately

d)

only in the morning

53.

PC means

a)

personal computer

b)

after meals

c)

as soon as possible

d)

before bedtime

54.

What is the abbreviation for last menstrual period?

a)

LMP

b)

EP

c)

1 pm

d)

MP

55.

What is the abbreviation for subcutaneously?

a)

s.b.c

b)

s.t.

c)

subc.

d)

s.c.

56.

What is the abbreviation for right eye?

a)

O.D.

b)

O.S.

c)

O.U.

d)

L.E.

57.

What is the abbreviation for every?

a)

q

b)

evr

c)

EY

d)

ER

58.

What is the abbreviation for left eye?

a)

O.D.

b)

O.S.

c)

O.U.

d)

L.E.

59.

What is the abbreviation for blood pressure?

a)

TRP

b)

BLP

c)

B/P

d)

BRP

60.

What is the abbreviation for chief complaint?

a)

CC

b)

C/C

c)

C/O

d)

None of these choices

61.

What is the abbreviation for cardiovascular?

a)

AC

b)

CV

c)

CDV

d)

CVSD

62.

What is the abbreviation for hematocrit blood test?

a)

hgb

b)

cbc/hgt

c)

hct

d)

hrt

63.

What is the abbreviation for hemaglobin blood test?

a)

hct

b)

cbc/hgh

c)

hln

d)

hgb

64.

What is the abbreviation for carcinoma?

a)

CCA

b)

CAN

c)

CRA

d)

CA

65.

What is the abbreviation for incision and drainage?

a)

INC/DRN

b)

I & D

c)

ID

d)

C.R.

66.

What is the abbreviation temperature when recording vital signs?

a)

T

b)

TE

c)

TP

d)

TEMP

67.

What is the abbreviation for water?

a)

AQ

b)

HQ

c)

QH

d)

WT

68.

What is the abbreviation for every other day?

a)

o.d.

b)

q.d.

c)

q.o.d.

d)

e.o.d.

69.

What is the abbreviation for microgram?

a)

mcg

b)

mog

c)

mmg.

d)

mc.

70.

What is the abbreviation for gonorrhea?

a)

GON

b)

GEA

c)

GC

d)

GRI

71.

What is the abbreviation for as needed or when needed?

a)

a.n.

b)

r.x.

c)

p.p.n.

d)

p.r.n.

72.

What is the abbreviation for nothing by mouth or take nothing by mouth?

a)

NBM

b)

NO

c)

NM

d)

NPO

73.

What is the abbreviation for DRAM?

a)

dr.

b)

dm.

c)

dd.

d)

drm.

74.

What is the abbreviation for prothrombin time?

a)

PTT

b)

PMT

c)

PT

d)

PRT

75.

What is the abbreviation for papanicolaou smear?

a)

P.S.

b)

PS

c)

pap

d)

pps

76.

What drug classification is Demerol/meperidine hydrochloride?

a)

antidepressant

b)

sedative, analgesic

c)

hypnotic

d)

laxative

77.

What drug classification is Dulcolax/bisacodyl?

a)

anti-fungal

b)

laxative

c)

anti-depressant

d)

anti-vomiting

78.

What drug classification is Cyanocobalamin/Vit B 12?

a)

stool softener

b)

anemia

c)

anti-allergic

d)

vitamin supplement

79.

What drug classification is Librax/chlordiazepoxide HCL and clidinium bromide?

a)

anticholinergic

b)

antihypertensive

c)

GI disorder

d)

antianxiety

80.

What drug classification is Ferra-TD/ferrous sulfate?

a)

muscle relaxant

b)

anti-nauseant

c)

anti-inflammatory

d)

iron supplement

81.

What drug classification is Erythrocin/erythromycin stearate?

a)

diuretic

b)

antibiotic

c)

anticoagulant

d)

GI disorder medication

82.

What drug classification is Lanoxin/digoxin?

a)

muscle relaxant

b)

heart medication

c)

tranquilizer

d)

gas relief

83.

What drug classification is Liquaemin Sodium/heparin sodium?

a)

tranquilizer

b)

antacid

c)

anticoagulant

d)

GI disorder

84.

What drug classification is Tetralan/tetracycline?

a)

antibiotic

b)

heart medication

c)

vitamin supplement

d)

GI disorder medication

85.

What drug classification is Pen-Vee-K/penicillin V potassium?

a)

analgesic

b)

tranquilizer

c)

antibiotic

d)

cough medication

86.

What drug classification is Parafan Forte/chlorzoxazone?

a)

muscle relaxant

b)

antibiotic

c)

analgesic

d)

tranquilizer

87.

What drug classification is Indocin/indomethacin?

a)

tranquilizer

b)

antibiotic

c)

antifungal

d)

anti-inflammatory

88.

What drug classification is Inderal/propranolol HCL?

a)

antacid

b)

heart medication

c)

diuretic

d)

gas relief

89.

What drug classification is Dantrion/dantrolene sodium?

a)

heart medication

b)

analgesic

c)

skeletal muscle relaxant

d)

antibiotic

90.

What drug classification is Tylenol/acetaminophen?

a)

urinary problem medication

b)

analgesic

c)

antidepressant

d)

cough medication

91.

What drug classification is Vicon-C/Vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, and C?

a)

anti-inflammatory

b)

vitamin supplement

c)

heart medication

d)

tranquilizer

92.

What drug classification is Actfed/triprolidine HCL and pseudoephedrine HCL?

a)

antihistamine

b)

anti-hypertensive

c)

anemia

d)

antiasthmatic

93.

What drug classification is Aldoril/methyldopa-hydrochlorazide?

a)

antidepressant

b)

laxative

c)

anti-hypertensive

d)

anticoagulant

94.

What drug classification is Benadryl/diphenhydramine hydrochloride?

a)

cough medicine

b)

antihistamine

c)

anti-vomiting

d)

heart medication

95.

What drug classification is Mylicon/simethicone?

a)

heart medication

b)

anticoagulant

c)

antibiotic

d)

gas relief

96.

What drug classification is Lomotil/diphenoxylate HCL?

a)

GI disorder medication

b)

antibiotic

c)

antidiarrheal

d)

anti-nauseant

97.

What drug classification is Peri-Colace/casanthronol and docusate sodium?

a)

gout

b)

sedative

c)

anti-nauseant

d)

stool softener

98.

What drug classification is Septra/bactrim?

a)

antibiotic

b)

analgesic

c)

muscle relaxant

d)

heart medication

99.

What drug classification is Talwin/pentazocine hydrochloride?

a)

antihistamine

b)

antispasmodic, ulcers

c)

analgesic

d)

anemia

100.

What drug classification is Terramycin/oxytetracycline?

a)

potassium replacement

b)

gout

c)

antidepressant

d)

antibiotic

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