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Exam Overview and Basic Pathophysiology

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Bloom’s Taxonomy purpose is most relevant for categorizing nursing exam questions by cognitive demand?

a)

To calculate percentage grading curves

b)

To schedule weekly lecture hours

c)

To outline legal scope of practice

d)

To classify cognitive levels of learning

2.

Within the NCLEX Client Needs framework, which area includes Safe & Effective Care environment items such as management of care and safety/infection control?

a)

Safe and Effective Care Environment

b)

Physiological Adaptation Domain

c)

Psychosocial Integrity Section

d)

Health Promotion and Maintenance

3.

Which statement best defines pathophysiology at a foundational level?

a)

Listing of hospital billing procedures

b)

Enumeration of public health policies

c)

Study of functional changes in disease

d)

Catalog of normal anatomy structures

4.

A client with chronic myelocytic leukemia is noted to have a Philadelphia chromosome. This finding represents which genetic alteration category?

a)

Epigenetic change unrelated to cancer

b)

Mitochondrial DNA variant of aging

c)

Single-gene mutation without phenotype

d)

Chromosomal aberration linked to disease

5.

Which example best illustrates a protein synthesis defect leading to disease?

a)

Recombinant DNA used for insulin production

b)

Trisomy 21 causing cognitive delays

c)

Sickle cell anemia due to hemoglobin mutation

d)

Gene amplification without clinical effect

6.

Which statement best distinguishes mitochondrial DNA disorders from nuclear DNA disorders?

a)

Nuclear DNA disorders never cause multisystem involvement

b)

Nuclear DNA disorders cannot be inherited from the mother

c)

Mitochondrial disorders always affect chromosome number only

d)

Mitochondrial disorders involve only a small amount of DNA

7.

Trisomy 21, also called Down syndrome, is best classified as which type of chromosomal abnormality?

a)

Aneuploidy due to an extra chromosome

b)

Duplication of mitochondrial DNA

c)

Deletion involving a single gene

d)

Translocation reducing chromosome size

8.

A child has a recessive genetic disease. Which parental genotype combination is most consistent with this outcome?

a)

One parent is homozygous recessive only

b)

Both parents are heterozygous carriers

c)

One parent is homozygous dominant

d)

Both parents are homozygous dominant

9.

Which feature most accurately characterizes autosomal dominant inheritance?

a)

Mitochondrial DNA is always involved

b)

Two mutant alleles are always required

c)

One mutant allele can cause the phenotype

d)

Only males manifest the phenotype

10.

In sickle cell disease, which mechanism most directly leads to ischemic pain crises?

a)

Sickled erythrocytes obstruct capillaries

b)

Excess white cells destroy endothelium

c)

Platelet deficiency causes vessel rupture

d)

Hyperoxia reduces vascular tone

11.

Which scenario best illustrates a structural chromosomal aberration?

a)

Translocation forming the Philadelphia chromosome

b)

Point mutation altering beta‑globin

c)

Nondisjunction adding an extra chromosome 21

d)

Triploidy involving an entire extra set

12.

A couple asks about risks when both are heterozygous carriers for an autosomal recessive disease. Which Punnett square outcome is correct for each pregnancy?

a)

75% affected, 25% unaffected, 0% carriers

b)

0% affected, 50% carriers, 50% unaffected

c)

50% affected, 50% unaffected, 0% carriers

d)

25% affected, 50% carriers, 25% unaffected

13.

Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is cited as an autosomal dominant condition. Which genotype can express PKD?

a)

Homozygous recessive only

b)

Heterozygous recessive only

c)

Heterozygous or homozygous dominant

d)

Homozygous dominant only

14.

Which pathway converts stored glycogen to glucose during fasting or increased demand?

a)

Beta-oxidation in mitochondria

b)

Gluconeogenesis in adipose tissue

c)

Glycogenesis in liver and muscle

d)

Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle

15.

During prolonged fasting when glycogen stores are depleted, which process primarily produces new glucose from noncarbohydrate substrates?

a)

Glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

b)

Glycolysis in red blood cells

c)

Gluconeogenesis in liver and kidney

d)

Lipogenesis in adipose tissue

16.

Which statement best describes anaerobic glycolysis?

a)

Yields two ATP per glucose without oxygen

b)

Yields thirty-two ATP with abundant oxygen

c)

Produces acetyl-CoA for the Krebs cycle

d)

Consumes lactate to generate pyruvate

17.

A direct metabolic consequence of cellular hypoxia is best described as:

a)

Activation of gluconeogenesis in muscle

b)

Decreased ATP and increased lactic acid

c)

Increased ATP and decreased pyruvate

d)

Enhanced oxidative phosphorylation efficiency

18.

Which finding most strongly indicates metabolic acidosis rather than respiratory acidosis?

a)

Low pH with normal HCO3 level

b)

Low pH with low HCO3 level

c)

Normal pH with high HCO3 level

d)

Low pH with elevated CO2 level

19.

Normal arterial pH range for the human body is:

a)

7.15 to 7.25

b)

7.45 to 7.55

c)

7.25 to 7.35

d)

7.35 to 7.45

20.

Which alteration commonly contributes to metabolic acidosis in kidney failure?

a)

Overproduction of bicarbonate in renal tubules

b)

Retention of carbon dioxide from hypoventilation

c)

Accumulation of hydrogen ions due to impaired excretion

d)

Excessive loss of hydrogen ions due to hyperventilation

21.

In thiamine deficiency, ATP production decreases primarily because:

a)

Insulin secretion completely halts glucose uptake

b)

Pyruvate cannot efficiently enter the Krebs cycle

c)

Anaerobic glycolysis yields thirty-two ATP

d)

Glycogen stores rapidly expand in the liver

22.

Which clinical pattern best matches respiratory acidosis?

a)

High pH with high HCO3 due to diuretics

b)

Low pH with low HCO3 due to diarrhea

c)

High pH with low HCO3 due to vomiting

d)

Low pH with normal HCO3 due to CO2 retention

23.

Which sequence reflects normal postprandial carbohydrate handling?

a)

Carb absorption, gluconeogenesis, protein catabolism

b)

Carb absorption, ketone production, acidosis occurs

c)

Carb absorption, glucagon release, lipolysis begins

d)

Carb absorption, insulin release, cellular uptake

24.

A patient with Type 1 diabetes develops ketonemia and acetone breath during insulin deficiency because cells:

a)

Oxidize amino acids producing excess bicarbonate

b)

Prefer anaerobic glycolysis producing no acids

c)

Increase glycogenesis leading to hypoketonemia

d)

Use fatty acids generating ketones for energy

25.

Which electrolyte-related consequence is most likely when solute status changes in the plasma compartment first?

a)

Permanent expansion of extracellular fluid only

b)

Domino shifts leading to intracellular alterations

c)

Immediate hyperventilation preventing fluid shifts

d)

No change because compartments are independent

26.

Which change to resting membrane potential is expected when more cations enter a neuron at rest?

a)

RMP stays unchanged and excitability decreases

b)

RMP oscillates unpredictably and excitability varies

c)

RMP shifts more negative and cell hyperpolarizes

d)

RMP shifts more positive and cell hypopolarizes

27.

Hypocalcemia has a special effect on cell membranes primarily by causing which change?

a)

Increases Na+ permeability and excitability

b)

Blocks Cl− channels and depolarization

c)

Decreases Na+ permeability and excitability

d)

Increases K+ permeability and hyperpolarization

28.

Hypercalcemia typically causes which membrane effect and symptom pattern?

a)

Decreased Cl− influx with tremors

b)

Increased K+ efflux with muscle twitching

c)

Decreased Na+ permeability with sluggish weakness

d)

Increased Na+ permeability with tetany signs

29.

The term describing the concentration of solutes per kilogram of solvent is best defined as

a)

Osmolality of a solution

b)

Oncotic pressure of plasma

c)

Osmotic pressure across tissue

d)

Tonicity of an infusion

30.

Which statement best explains the direction of water movement by osmosis between two compartments?

a)

Water moves toward the higher hydrostatic pressure

b)

Water moves toward the lower solute concentration

c)

Water moves toward the larger fluid volume

d)

Water moves toward the higher solute concentration

31.

Normal serum osmolality is closest to which range?

a)

3.5–5.0 mEq/L potassium

b)

7.35–7.45 arterial pH

c)

120–135 mEq/L sodium

d)

280–295 mOsm/kg water

32.

A patient with vomiting and diarrhea loses water more than solutes. Which plasma change is most likely?

a)

Hyperosmolar plasma with high osmotic pressure

b)

Hypoosmolar plasma with low osmotic pressure

c)

Hyperoncotic plasma with high protein levels

d)

Isotonic plasma with normal oncotic pressure

33.

With hyperosmolar plasma, the expected net fluid shift is most likely

a)

From tissue to blood causing dehydration signs

b)

From blood to tissue causing edema formation

c)

Between cells with no compartment change

d)

Into cells causing cellular swelling only

34.

In response to hyperosmolar plasma, which compensatory system primarily activates to retain water and sodium?

a)

Hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid axis

b)

Renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system

c)

Natriuretic peptide system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

35.

Excessive water intake or SIADH most directly leads to which plasma state?

a)

Isotonic plasma with stable tonicity

b)

Hyperoncotic plasma with increased proteins

c)

Hyperosmolar plasma with concentration

d)

Hypoosmolar plasma with dilutional effects

36.

Loss of plasma proteins in nephrotic syndrome mainly reduces which pressure, promoting edema?

a)

Alveolar osmotic pressure

b)

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

c)

Hydrostatic pressure in capillaries

d)

Oncotic pressure within plasma

37.

Cirrhosis with impaired protein synthesis most likely produces which lab finding and fluid status?

a)

Normal osmolality with euvolemia

b)

Low serum osmolality with fluid overload

c)

High serum osmolality with dehydration

d)

High oncotic pressure with diuresis

38.

Which summary statement correctly pairs plasma osmolar status with clinical outcome?

a)

Hyperosmolar plasma draws water into blood, causing dehydration

b)

Hypoosmolar plasma draws water into blood, causing dehydration

c)

Hypoosmolar plasma pulls water into cells, causing dehydration

d)

Hyperosmolar plasma pushes water to tissues, causing edema

39.

Edema can result from osmolar changes or increased hydrostatic pressure. Which example best represents the latter?

a)

SIADH increases water and dilutes plasma

b)

Pathologically increased blood pressure mechanically pushes fluid

c)

Proteinuria reduces oncotic pull within vessels

d)

Vomiting decreases water and concentrates plasma

40.

Which nursing intervention best addresses symptomatic hypoosmolar plasma with pulmonary edema?

a)

Encourage rapid oral free water intake

b)

Restrict sodium while increasing fluids

c)

Initiate hypotonic IV solution bolus

d)

Administer hypertonic IV solution as ordered

41.

Which process describes programmed cell death that is normal and controlled?

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Necrosis

c)

Autolysis

d)

Gangrene

42.

A hallmark difference between benign and malignant neoplasms is best described as which feature?

a)

Lack of any mass effect

b)

Encapsulation with slow growth

c)

Well-differentiated anaplasia

d)

Inability to form new vessels

43.

During cellular injury from ischemia, which immediate energy change occurs first?

a)

Mitochondria increase ATP production

b)

Protein synthesis accelerates rapidly

c)

ATP depletion reduces Na⁺/K⁺ pump

d)

Cell membrane gains integrity quickly

44.

Free radicals primarily injure cells because they

a)

steal electrons causing oxidation

b)

supply extra electrons to DNA

c)

stabilize membranes with peroxides

d)

increase ATP by phosphorylation

45.

Which antioxidant enzyme directly detoxifies superoxide in cells?

a)

Caspase 3

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Superoxide dismutase

d)

Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase

46.

Which change is most consistent with anaplasia in malignant tumors?

a)

Stable specialized functions

b)

Uniform nuclei and polarity

c)

Orderly maturation and size

d)

Loss of differentiation and atypia

47.

Activation of an oncogene most directly promotes which cellular effect?

a)

Enhanced DNA repair fidelity

b)

Apoptotic signaling increase

c)

Uncontrolled clonal proliferation

d)

Permanent cell cycle arrest

48.

Which best defines the T in the TNM cancer staging system?

a)

Histologic cell appearance

b)

Number of involved nodes

c)

Presence of distant spread

d)

Primary tumor size or extent

49.

A patient with CO poisoning improves with 100% oxygen because carboxyhemoglobin

a)

prevents any ATP use in cells

b)

binds O₂ more strongly than CO

c)

cannot be measured by tests

d)

releases CO when O₂ is high

50.

Which pattern best distinguishes necrosis from apoptosis?

a)

Cell swelling with membrane rupture

b)

Cell shrinkage with intact membrane

c)

Caspase-dependent nuclear laddering

d)

Phagocytosis without inflammation

51.

Which laboratory rise best indicates leakage of intracellular enzymes from injured muscle?

a)

Increased CK and troponin

b)

Decreased serum albumin

c)

Elevated bilirubin fraction

d)

Low blood glucose level

52.

Which cellular target is a primary site of free radical damage leading to leaky cells?

a)

Centrioles via depolymerization

b)

Ribosomal RNA via alkylation

c)

Lipid membranes via peroxidation

d)

Lysozymes via neutralization

53.

Which term describes tumor-driven new blood vessel growth that supports rapid proliferation?

a)

Angiogenesis

b)

Lymphangiitis

c)

Hemostasis

d)

Vasculitis

54.

Which cancer marker is most commonly associated with prostate tissue?

a)

Prostate-specific antigen

b)

Alpha-fetoprotein

c)

Carcinoembryonic antigen

d)

CA-125 glycoprotein

55.

Chronic myelogenous leukemia is classically linked to which genetic change?

a)

Philadelphia chromosome translocation

b)

Whole genome duplication event

c)

Point mutation in tumor suppressor

d)

Mitochondrial DNA deletion

56.

In an autosomal recessive disease, which genotype results in having the disease?

a)

AA genotype present

b)

Aa genotype present

c)

A-only allele present

d)

aa genotype present

57.

In an autosomal dominant disease, which genotype indicates a carrier without disease?

a)

Aa genotype only

b)

No carrier exists

c)

aa genotype only

d)

AA genotype only

58.

Two carrier parents (Aa × Aa) for an autosomal recessive trait have a child. What is the probability the child will have the disease?

a)

25 percent chance

b)

50 percent chance

c)

75 percent chance

d)

33 percent chance

59.

One parent is heterozygous affected (Aa) and the other is homozygous normal (aa) for an autosomal dominant disease. What percent of children will be affected?

a)

0 percent affected

b)

100 percent affected

c)

25 percent affected

d)

50 percent affected

60.

Which statement best differentiates genotype from phenotype in clinical genetics?

a)

Phenotype is gamete type

b)

Phenotype is DNA sequence

c)

Genotype is allele combination

d)

Genotype is observable traits

61.

A diagram shows water moving from tissue into plasma when plasma osmolality increases. Which principle explains this shift?

a)

Capillary leak prevents osmotic

b)

Concentration calls osmotic

c)

Oncotic pressure ignores

d)

Hydrostatic pressure calls

62.

Severe watery diarrhea removes water from the plasma compartment. What immediate effect does this have on plasma compared to tissue?

a)

Both compartments stay equal

b)

Tissue becomes more concentrated

c)

Plasma becomes less concentrated

d)

Plasma becomes more concentrated

63.

Following plasma hyperosmolality, water shifts from tissue to blood. What cellular change is expected in tissues?

a)

Cells remain unchanged

b)

Cells shrink and dehydrate

c)

Cells swell and lyse

d)

Cells gain glycogen

64.

Which bedside assessment most directly reflects tissue dehydration after fluid shifts from tissue to blood during diarrhea?

a)

Jugular venous distension

b)

Bounding peripheral pulses

c)

Moist oral mucosa

d)

Poor skin turgor noted

65.

When evaluating acid–base and electrolytes using quick cues, which pairing is most appropriate?

a)

pH questions—think sodium movement

b)

Potassium questions—think acid or base

c)

Sodium chloride questions—think osmolality

d)

Calcium questions—think stool osmolality