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Nervous System Test Prep

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 9hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which sequence correctly lists the three primary functions of the nervous system in order of occurrence?

a)

Motor output, integration, sensory input

b)

Sensory input, integration, motor output

c)

Sensory input, motor output, integration

d)

Integration, motor output, sensory input

2.

What best describes sensory input in the nervous system?

a)

Deciding how to respond to information

b)

Sending commands to muscles or glands

c)

Detecting changes using receptors

d)

Balancing activities between organs

3.

What is integration in nervous system function?

a)

Releasing hormones into the bloodstream

b)

Contracting skeletal and smooth muscles

c)

Generating electrical impulses in receptors

d)

Processing and interpreting sensory data

4.

Which statement best defines motor output?

a)

Collecting stimuli from the environment

b)

Transmitting impulses along sensory neurons

c)

Sending signals to effectors for action

d)

Coordinating memory and learning processes

5.

In the scenario: You see a large puddle ahead and steer around it, which part is motor output?

a)

Recognizing it as a puddle

b)

Hands steering the bike to the side

c)

Your brain deciding to avoid it

d)

Light reflecting into your eyes

6.

Which structure combination forms the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

a)

Brain and cranial nerves

b)

Brain and spinal cord

c)

Spinal nerves and ganglia

d)

Autonomic and somatic

7.

Which best describes the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

a)

All nerves extending from brain or spinal cord

b)

Only the spinal cord and vertebrae

c)

Only cranial nerves inside the skull

d)

All neurons involved in endocrine glands

8.

Which nervous system division delivers messages from the brain to muscles and glands?

a)

Sensory division

b)

Motor division

c)

Central division

d)

Parasympathetic division

9.

Which division carries information from the senses to the brain?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Efferent (motor) division

c)

Sympathetic division

d)

Afferent (sensory) division

10.

The term efferent is another name for which division?

a)

Sensory division of PNS

b)

Motor division of PNS

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic system

11.

Which division is responsible for voluntary skeletal muscle movement?

a)

Sympathetic division

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Somatic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic division

12.

Which division regulates involuntary actions of smooth and cardiac muscle?

a)

Sensory division

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

13.

Which division activates the fight‑or‑flight response in stressful situations?

a)

Sensory division

b)

Somatic division

c)

Parasympathetic division

d)

Sympathetic division

14.

Which division promotes rest‑and‑digest responses, calming the body?

a)

Central division

b)

Sympathetic division

c)

Parasympathetic division

d)

Somatic division

15.

Which statement best distinguishes cranial nerves from spinal nerves?

a)

Cranial nerves are sensory; spinal nerves are motor

b)

Cranial nerves control legs; spinal nerves control arms

c)

Cranial nerves connect to the brain; spinal nerves connect to the cord

d)

Cranial nerves are autonomic; spinal nerves are somatic

16.

Which pair represents the two largest, most all‑encompassing divisions of the nervous system?

a)

Somatic and autonomic systems

b)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

c)

Central and peripheral systems

d)

Sensory and motor divisions

17.

A mosquito lands on your arm and you swat it. Which is the correct functional pathway?

a)

Motor output → integration → sensory input

b)

Integration → sensory input → motor output

c)

Sensory input → motor output → integration

d)

Sensory input → integration → motor output

18.

Which best explains the role of the sensory division in homeostasis?

a)

It interprets signals to make decisions

b)

It detects internal and external changes

c)

It contracts skeletal muscles directly

d)

It releases hormones during stress

19.

Damage to the autonomic nervous system would MOST directly affect which function?

a)

Knee‑jerk reflex of patellar tendon

b)

Conscious movement of fingers

c)

Heart rate and digestion control

d)

Touch sensation on the skin

20.

During a calm meal after exercise, which change is most likely due to parasympathetic activity?

a)

Decreased digestion and blood flow to gut

b)

Increased heart rate and pupil dilation

c)

Increased digestion and salivary secretion

d)

Increased sweating and blood glucose

21.

Which structure is the long projection that carries nerve impulses away from the soma toward the next cell?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrite

c)

Soma

d)

Axon terminal

22.

Which neuron part primarily receives incoming signals from other neurons?

a)

Synaptic cleft

b)

Myelin sheath

c)

Axon

d)

Dendrites

23.

What is the main role of the myelin sheath along an axon?

a)

Forms synaptic clefts

b)

Receives impulses first

c)

Produces neurotransmitters

d)

Insulates the axon

24.

Which cell type forms the myelin sheath around axons in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Microglia

25.

Which structure connects the soma to the axon and is the site where action potentials are initiated?

a)

Dendritic spine

b)

Node of Ranvier

c)

Axon hillock

d)

Synaptic end bulb

26.

Which structures at the end of an axon release neurotransmitters into a synapse?

a)

Synaptic end bulbs

b)

Axon hillock

c)

Dendritic spines

d)

Nodes of Ranvier

27.

Which neuron region is also known as the cell body and contains the organelles?

a)

Node

b)

Myelin

c)

Axon

d)

Soma

28.

What is the immediate effect of myelination on action potential conduction along an axon?

a)

Decreases signal strength

b)

Increases conduction speed

c)

Stops signal transmission

d)

Starts neurotransmitter release

29.

Which statement best describes dendrites?

a)

Terminal vesicle clusters

b)

Myelin-producing cells

c)

Long single projection

d)

Short branching processes

30.

Which structure stores neurotransmitters before they are released into the synaptic cleft?

a)

Myelin lamellae

b)

Synaptic vesicles in end bulbs

c)

Nodes of Ranvier

d)

Nucleus in soma

31.

Which location would you expect to find the highest density of voltage-gated sodium channels to trigger an action potential?

a)

Synaptic cleft

b)

Dendrite tips

c)

Soma cytoplasm

d)

Axon hillock

32.

In a myelinated axon, where do action potentials regenerate as they travel?

a)

Inside synaptic vesicles

b)

At nodes of Ranvier

c)

Within the nucleus

d)

Across dendrite shafts

33.

A drug that blocks Schwann cell function would most directly impair which process in peripheral nerves?

a)

Dendrite growth

b)

Neurotransmitter synthesis

c)

Nuclear transcription

d)

Myelin formation

34.

Which pair lists the two main ways neurons are classified?

a)

By age and by species

b)

By location and by shape

c)

By size and by color

d)

By structure and by function

35.

Which description best defines structural classification of neurons?

a)

Based on number of processes from soma

b)

Based on direction of impulse flow

c)

Based on organ they innervate

d)

Based on neurotransmitter released

36.

Which set lists the three structural neuron types?

a)

Myelinated, unmyelinated, mixed

b)

Sensory, motor, interneuron

c)

Afferent, efferent, association

d)

Unipolar, bipolar, multipolar

37.

Which description best defines functional classification of neurons?

a)

Based on direction of impulse flow

b)

Based on dendrite spine density

c)

Based on axon myelin thickness

d)

Based on soma organelle types

38.

Which set lists the three functional neuron types?

a)

Sensory, motor, interneuron

b)

Somatic, autonomic, central

c)

Unipolar, bipolar, multipolar

d)

Afferent, efferent, bipolar

39.

A neuron with many processes extending from the soma is classified structurally as

a)

Multipolar

b)

Bipolar

c)

Unipolar

d)

Pseudounipolar

40.

A neuron with two processes extending from the soma is

a)

Unipolar

b)

Bipolar

c)

Multipolar

d)

Tripolar

41.

One long axon and many dendrites extending from the soma describes a

a)

Bipolar neuron

b)

Myelinated neuron

c)

Multipolar neuron

d)

Unipolar neuron

42.

A neuron with only one process extending from the soma is

a)

Anaxonic

b)

Multipolar

c)

Bipolar

d)

Unipolar

43.

Which structural type is most common in the human body?

a)

Anaxonic neurons

b)

Bipolar neurons

c)

Unipolar neurons

d)

Multipolar neurons

44.

Which structural type is mainly found in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Bipolar neurons

b)

Unipolar neurons

c)

Anaxonic neurons

d)

Multipolar neurons

45.

Which structural type is found only in special sense organs like the retina and olfactory epithelium?

a)

Unipolar neurons

b)

Multipolar neurons

c)

Bipolar neurons

d)

Pyramidal neurons

46.

Which functional type is also called afferent neurons?

a)

Interneurons

b)

Efferent neurons

c)

Motor neurons

d)

Sensory neurons

47.

Which functional type is also called efferent neurons?

a)

Interneurons

b)

Association neurons

c)

Sensory neurons

d)

Motor neurons

48.

Which functional type is also called association neurons?

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Sensory neurons

c)

Efferent neurons

d)

Interneurons

49.

Carrying a message from skin receptors to the brain is the role of

a)

Sensory neurons

b)

Motor neurons

c)

Interneurons

d)

Efferent neurons

50.

Carrying a message from the brain to arm muscles is the role of

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Sensory neurons

c)

Afferent neurons

d)

Interneurons

51.

Carrying impulses within the central nervous system is the role of

a)

Sensory neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Motor neurons

d)

Afferent neurons

52.

Which functional type is most numerous in the human body?

a)

Efferent neurons

b)

Motor neurons

c)

Sensory neurons

d)

Interneurons

53.

What is the main cell of the nervous system?

a)

Muscle cell

b)

Epithelial cell

c)

Glial cell

d)

Neuron

54.

Which statement about neuron lifespan is correct?

a)

Neurons divide every week

b)

Neurons last your entire life

c)

Neurons are replaced monthly

d)

Neurons live only one year

55.

Do mature neurons typically undergo mitosis?

a)

Only during sleep cycles

b)

Yes, they divide often

c)

No, they are amitotic

d)

Only in the spinal cord

56.

Because neurons are generally amitotic, the consequence is that

a)

Lost neurons are rarely replaced

b)

Neurons quickly regenerate axons

c)

Brain size doubles after injury

d)

New neurons continually appear

57.

Which statement best describes the role of glial cells in the nervous system?

a)

Support neurons and maintain environment

b)

Transmit electrical signals between neurons

c)

Generate muscle contractions in organs

d)

Release hormones into the bloodstream

58.

Which group lists ONLY glial cells found in the central nervous system (CNS)?

a)

Oligodendrocytes, satellite cells, ependymal cells, Schwann cells

b)

Astrocytes, Schwann cells, satellite cells, microglia

c)

Schwann cells, satellite cells, microglia, astrocytes

d)

Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells

59.

Which glial cell forms the myelin sheath in the CNS?

a)

Oligodendrocyte

b)

Microglia

c)

Schwann cell

d)

Astrocyte

60.

Which glial cell forms the myelin sheath in the PNS?

a)

Schwann cell

b)

Oligodendrocyte

c)

Ependymal cell

d)

Microglia

61.

Which function is correctly matched to astrocytes?

a)

Anchor neurons to capillaries and regulate chemicals

b)

Phagocytose pathogens and clear debris

c)

Form cerebrospinal fluid with cilia movement

d)

Wrap axons with myelin in peripheral nerves

62.

Microglia are best known for which function?

a)

Produce myelin in spinal cord tracts

b)

Act as immune cells that engulf debris

c)

Provide insulation in peripheral nerves

d)

Line ventricles to move cerebrospinal fluid

63.

Ependymal cells primarily help with which task?

a)

Forming the myelin sheath on CNS axons

b)

Surrounding neuron cell bodies in peripheral ganglia

c)

Anchoring neurons to blood vessels for nutrient delivery

d)

Circulating cerebrospinal fluid in brain and spinal cord

64.

Which cells surround neuron cell bodies in peripheral ganglia and help regulate their environment?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Satellite cells

c)

Microglia

d)

Ependymal cells

65.

Which statement about neurons and glial cells is accurate?

a)

Neurons outnumber glial cells in brain tissue

b)

Neurons provide nutrition to glial cells

c)

Glial cells are more numerous than neurons

d)

Glial cells generate most action potentials

66.

What is the common nickname for neuroglia that reflects their supportive role?

a)

Signal wires

b)

Nerve glue

c)

Charge carriers

d)

Brain pumps

67.

Which scenario shows microglia responding appropriately to injury?

a)

They open channels to release cerebrospinal fluid

b)

They wrap a healthy axon with additional myelin layers

c)

They anchor axons to capillaries to get more oxygen

d)

They move toward a damaged neuron and engulf debris

68.

Which statement about membrane potential in resting cells is most accurate?

a)

There is no voltage difference across the membrane

b)

The outside is negative compared with the inside

c)

The inside and outside carry equal overall charges

d)

The inside of the cell is more negative than the outside

69.

Which term is another name for an action potential in a neuron?

a)

Resting gradient

b)

Nerve impulse

c)

Ion pump

d)

Muscle twitch

70.

What term describes the difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a cell membrane?

a)

Ionic resonance

b)

Neural polarity

c)

Membrane potential

d)

Voltage inertia

71.

Which two ions most directly establish a neuron's membrane potential at rest?

a)

Sodium and potassium

b)

Calcium and chloride

c)

Phosphate and bicarbonate

d)

Hydrogen and magnesium

72.

At resting potential, the inside of a typical axon is best described as:

a)

Alternating charge

b)

Negatively charged

c)

Positively charged

d)

Electrically neutral

73.

What is a concentration gradient in the context of ions across a membrane?

a)

Difference in membrane size

b)

Difference in ion charge

c)

Difference in ion amount

d)

Difference in channel shape

74.

Voltage-gated channels open in response to which change at the membrane?

a)

Change in pressure

b)

Change in voltage

c)

Change in temperature

d)

Change in pH

75.

Which best describes the function of the sodium–potassium pump?

a)

Moves ions down gradients without ATP

b)

Allows K+ to diffuse outward only

c)

Allows Na+ to diffuse inward only

d)

Moves Na+ out and K+ in using ATP

76.

Which sequence correctly lists the stages of an action potential?

a)

Resting, depolarization, repolarization, refractory

b)

Repolarization, depolarization, refractory, resting

c)

Refractory, resting, depolarization, repolarization

d)

Depolarization, resting, refractory, repolarization

77.

Before an action potential begins, the inside of the neuron is:

a)

Negative relative to outside

b)

Rapidly alternating

c)

Equal to outside

d)

Positive relative to outside

78.

During depolarization, what primarily causes the membrane potential to rise toward positive values?

a)

Efflux of K+ through opened channels

b)

Influx of Na+ through opened channels

c)

Efflux of Na+ through pumps

d)

Influx of K+ through pumps

79.

What happens to potassium during repolarization of an axon?

a)

K+ is pumped inward rapidly

b)

K+ enters through sodium channels

c)

K+ leaves through voltage-gated channels

d)

K+ binds to neurotransmitters

80.

The refractory period helps ensure nerve impulses:

a)

Travel faster than light

b)

Reverse immediately

c)

Travel in one direction

d)

Stop at every synapse

81.

At resting potential, which statement about Na+ and K+ distribution is most accurate?

a)

Equal Na+ and K+ everywhere

b)

No Na+ or K+ present

c)

More Na+ inside, more K+ outside

d)

More Na+ outside, more K+ inside

82.

Which channels are mostly open during resting potential to maintain charge separation?

a)

Leak channels for K+

b)

Voltage-gated Na+ channels

c)

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

d)

Ligand-gated Cl− channels

83.

When an impulse arrives at the axon hillock, which stage typically begins first?

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Refractory

c)

Repolarization

d)

Depolarization

84.

What immediately happens to voltage-gated Na+ channels once Na+ has rushed in and the membrane peaks positive?

a)

They pump Na+ out using ATP

b)

They convert to K+ channels

c)

They open wider and persist

d)

They inactivate then close

85.

Which statement best explains why the sodium–potassium pump is needed after an action potential?

a)

It restores ion gradients using ATP

b)

It accelerates neurotransmitter release

c)

It directly causes depolarization peaks

d)

It blocks all leak channels forever

86.

During the absolute refractory period, a second action potential:

a)

Cannot be started

b)

Moves backward

c)

Is much larger

d)

Is easily started

87.

Action potentials propagate along an axon by:

a)

Pumping ions ahead actively

b)

Shifting myelin toward the terminal

c)

Opening adjacent voltage-gated channels

d)

Diffusing neurotransmitter through axon

88.

As Na+ channels close and K+ channels remain open, the membrane potential typically:

a)

Becomes permanently zero

b)

Returns toward negative values

c)

Stays maximally positive

d)

Oscillates randomly

89.

Which brain region is the largest part of the brain by volume?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brainstem

90.

Which structure connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Pons bridge

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Thalamus relay

91.

Which region primarily coordinates balance and muscle coordination?

a)

Parietal lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Midbrain

d)

Cerebellum

92.

Which component contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata?

a)

Brainstem

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Limbic system

d)

Cerebral cortex

93.

Which structure contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland?

a)

Diencephalon

b)

Basal ganglia

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Occipital lobe

94.

Which lobe is most responsible for visual processing?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

95.

Broca’s area is most closely associated with which function?

a)

Heart rate control

b)

Visual processing

c)

Hearing perception

d)

Speech production

96.

Wernicke’s area helps mainly with which ability?

a)

Initiating movement

b)

Producing hormones

c)

Balancing posture

d)

Understanding speech

97.

Which lobe primarily receives and interprets auditory information?

a)

Temporal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

98.

Which lobe houses the primary motor cortex that starts voluntary movements?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Insular cortex

99.

Which limbic structure is most linked to forming long‑term memories?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Pons nucleus

100.

Which limbic structure most strongly triggers fear and anxiety responses?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Cerebellum

101.

Which area acts as the relay station that sorts sensory data to the cortex?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Pons tegmentum

102.

Which structure maintains homeostasis by regulating body temperature and hunger?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Midbrain

c)

Thalamus

d)

Cerebellum

103.

Which gland is called the master endocrine gland because it controls others?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Pineal gland

104.

Which brainstem part primarily regulates heart rate and breathing?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Corpus callosum

105.

Which brainstem structure serves as a bridge between cerebellum and cortex?

a)

Pons

b)

Thalamus

c)

Midbrain

d)

Medulla oblongata

106.

Damage to the corpus callosum would most directly affect which function?

a)

Communication between hemispheres

b)

Balance and posture control

c)

Hormone secretion regulation

d)

Visual field processing

107.

A student struggles to plan, organize, and make decisions after an injury. Which lobe is most likely affected?

a)

Parietal lobe

b)

Occipital lobe

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Temporal lobe