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Osteology and Skeletal Divisions

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many primary bones compose the adult human skeleton?

a)

196 primary bones total

b)

200 primary bones total

c)

210 primary bones total

d)

206 primary bones total

2.

Which division includes bones that lie on or near the central axis of the body?

a)

Axial skeleton division

b)

Upper limb division

c)

Appendicular skeleton division

d)

Pelvic girdle division

3.

Which statement best describes the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Upper and lower limbs with shoulder and pelvic girdles

b)

Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum only

c)

Only lower limbs without shoulder girdle

d)

Only upper limbs attached to the axial skeleton

4.

What is the total number of bones in the adult axial skeleton?

a)

80 bones in axial skeleton

b)

126 bones in axial skeleton

c)

64 bones in axial skeleton

d)

88 bones in axial skeleton

5.

Which function is NOT listed as a function of bones?

a)

Conduction of nerve impulses directly

b)

Attachment for muscles

c)

Protection of internal organs

d)

Storage for calcium, phosphorus, and salts

6.

Which set correctly pairs a region of the axial skeleton with its bone count?

a)

Ribs—20 bones; sternum—1 bone

b)

Ribs—24 bones; sternum—1 bone

c)

Ribs—12 bones; sternum—2 bones

d)

Ribs—28 bones; sternum—3 bones

7.

Ligaments primarily serve which role in the skeletal system?

a)

Generate red blood cells directly

b)

Articulate synovial fluid production

c)

Attach muscles to bones

d)

Unite the bones of the skeleton

8.

Which list correctly matches appendicular regions with their typical paired counts?

a)

Clavicles—2; scapulae—2; femora—2

b)

Clavicles—2; scapulae—2; femora—1

c)

Clavicles—1; scapulae—2; femora—2

d)

Clavicles—2; scapulae—1; femora—2

9.

Which term refers to the centermost portion of the x‑ray beam that has the least divergence?

a)

Central ray

b)

Image receptor

c)

Projection path

d)

Anatomic position

10.

Which statement best defines radiography?

a)

The view of a body part as seen by the IR

b)

The centermost portion of the x‑ray beam

c)

The process and procedures of producing a radiograph

d)

The material that stores a latent image

11.

What does x‑ray film specifically refer to?

a)

General discussion of finished images

b)

Digital acquisition device for imaging

c)

Physical piece of material storing a latent image

d)

Recording medium and image together

12.

Which device captures the radiographic image that exits the patient?

a)

X‑ray tube

b)

Image receptor

c)

Central ray

d)

Projection cassette

13.

In radiographic positioning, what does projection describe?

a)

Direction or path of the central ray

b)

View as seen by the image receptor

c)

Overall posture of the patient

d)

Specific placement of body part to IR

14.

Which term identifies the overall posture of the patient or general body position?

a)

View

b)

Position

c)

Projection

d)

Method

15.

Which term is used to describe the body part as seen by the image receptor and is restricted to general discussion of a finished image?

a)

Method

b)

View

c)

Position

d)

Projection

16.

Which description fits the anatomic position?

a)

Upright with arms abducted slightly and palms forward

b)

Seated with hands on knees and gaze downward

c)

Prone with arms at sides and palms down

d)

Supine with head turned and feet together

17.

What does caudad indicate in directional terminology?

a)

Away from the head of the body

b)

Toward the median plane

c)

Toward the head of the body

d)

Nearer the surface or above

18.

Which term means toward the head of the body?

a)

Cephalad

b)

Contralateral

c)

Peripheral

d)

Inferior

19.

Which term refers to nearer the feet or situated below?

a)

Medial

b)

Inferior

c)

Superior

d)

Deep

20.

Ipsilateral is best defined as referring to parts on which side of the body?

a)

Near the skin or surface

b)

Same side of the body

c)

Away from the median plane

d)

Opposite side of the body

21.

Which term means toward the median plane of the body?

a)

Medial

b)

Peripheral

c)

Central

d)

Lateral

22.

Which term is correctly paired with its definition: lateral?

a)

Toward the median plane

b)

Away from the median plane or from the middle

c)

At or near the surface or outside

d)

Near the skin or surface

23.

Which plane divides the body into right and left portions and runs vertically through the body from front to back?

a)

Coronal plane dividing anterior and posterior

b)

Horizontal plane separating upper and lower

c)

Sagittal plane splitting right and left

d)

Oblique plane transecting at varied angles

24.

What is unique about the midsagittal plane (MSP)?

a)

It intersects perpendicular to the longitudinal axis

b)

It divides the body into equal anterior and posterior halves

c)

It forms the base plane of the skull

d)

It divides the body into equal right and left halves

25.

Which plane separates the anterior and posterior segments of the body?

a)

Oblique plane at three described angles

b)

Coronal plane separating front and back

c)

Sagittal plane separating left and right

d)

Horizontal plane creating upper and lower

26.

The horizontal (axial) plane primarily does which of the following?

a)

Divides a body into equal right and left halves

b)

Intersects a body part perpendicular to the longitudinal axis

c)

Centers the body part on the image receptor

d)

Runs vertically from one side to the other

27.

In radiographic positioning, why are planes used?

a)

To align body elements with transverse processes

b)

To orient and align the body part with the IR or central ray

c)

To measure cranial topography with orthodontic devices

d)

To classify organs into thoracic or abdominal cavities

28.

Which statement best describes an oblique plane in positioning?

a)

Can transect a body element at various angles

b)

Is synonymous with the midcoronal plane

c)

Creates equal anterior and posterior halves

d)

Perpendicular to sagittal and coronal planes

29.

Which anatomical structures are contained in the thoracic cavity?

a)

Peritoneum, liver, gallbladder

b)

Lumbar spine, sacrum, coccyx

c)

Pleural membranes, lungs, heart and great vessels

d)

External auditory meatus, infraorbital margins

30.

The interiliac plane is used to position which level for correct alignment?

a)

Central ray through the midcoronal plane

b)

Superior margin of the external auditory meatus

c)

Top of the iliac crests at the fourth lumbar spinous process

d)

Biting surfaces of upper and lower teeth with jaws closed

31.

Which statement best defines the abdomen for radiographic positioning?

a)

Area below diaphragm to pubic symphysis

b)

Area from xiphoid to umbilicus only

c)

Area between rib margin and iliac crest

d)

Area between diaphragm and pelvic inlet

32.

At the umbilicus, which planes intersect to create abdominal quadrants?

a)

Transverse and coronal plane

b)

Midsagittal and a horizontal plane

c)

Midcoronal and oblique plane

d)

Parasagittal and axial plane

33.

Which organ is most commonly associated with the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

a)

Liver and gallbladder primarily

b)

Spleen and stomach primarily

c)

Left kidney primarily

d)

Sigmoid colon primarily

34.

Which abdominal region lies directly around the navel?

a)

Umbilical region centrally

b)

Epigastric region centrally

c)

Hypogastric region centrally

d)

Right lumbar region centrally

35.

Which list correctly names two lateral (lumbar) regions?

a)

Right epigastric and left epigastric

b)

Right lateral and left lateral

c)

Right inguinal and left inguinal

d)

Right hypochondriac and left hypochondriac

36.

Which surface landmark helps locate the level of the sternal angle (T4–T5)?

a)

Manubriosternal junction

b)

Thyroid cartilage

c)

Jugular notch

d)

Xiphoid process

37.

For pelvis imaging, which external landmark approximates the level of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)?

a)

ASIS prominence laterally

b)

Pubic symphysis midline

c)

Iliac crest superior margin

d)

Greater trochanter lateral

38.

Which statement about asthenic versus hypersthenic body habitus is most accurate for positioning?

a)

Both have identical organ positions; only size varies

b)

Asthenic organs are higher and lateral; hypersthenic lower and narrow

c)

Asthenic has larger lungs; hypersthenic has smaller lungs

d)

Asthenic organs are lower and more midline; hypersthenic higher and wider

39.

Why must radiographers rely on surface landmarks like tuberosities and prominences?

a)

They allow imaging without patient consent

b)

They eliminate the need for collimation

c)

They replace all exposure settings

d)

Internal structures are not directly visible

40.

A patient presents with left lateral abdominal pain. Which region does this most likely correspond to?

a)

Left epigastric region laterally

b)

Left inguinal region laterally

c)

Left hypochondriac region laterally

d)

Left lumbar region laterally

41.

Which term describes movement of a limb away from the central axis of the body?

a)

Flexion bending the joint

b)

Abduction away from midline

c)

Extension straightening a joint

d)

Adduction toward the midline

42.

In anatomic position, which part is closest to the median plane?

a)

Distal aspect far from origin

b)

Lateral aspect of the limb

c)

Medial aspect of the limb

d)

Proximal aspect near origin

43.

Which pair correctly matches direction: cephalad means?

a)

Toward the feet end

b)

Toward the outside

c)

Away from the center

d)

Toward the head end

44.

Caudad angle in radiography refers to an angle directed:

a)

Toward the head end

b)

Toward the outside surface

c)

Toward the feet or away from head

d)

Toward the median plane

45.

Which term indicates nearer the skin surface?

a)

External on or near outside

b)

Internal near the center

c)

Deep far from surface

d)

Superficial near the surface

46.

Proximal versus distal: proximal is defined as:

a)

Opposite the palm of hand

b)

Nearer the beginning or origin

c)

Upper surface of the foot

d)

Away from the beginning

47.

Which movement turns the foot outward at the ankle?

a)

Pronation palm down

b)

Inversion inward turning

c)

Eversion outward turning

d)

Supination palm up

48.

Rotation of the forearm so the palm is down is called:

a)

Extension straightening joint

b)

Supination palm up

c)

Pronation palm down

d)

Flexion bending joint

49.

Which term refers to the palm of the hand in anatomic position?

a)

Dorsum manus posterior hand

b)

Foot dorsal top of foot

c)

Plantar sole of foot

d)

Palmar anterior hand surface

50.

Dorsum pedis specifically refers to:

a)

Palm of the hand

b)

Back surface of hand

c)

Upper or anterior surface of foot

d)

Sole of the foot

51.

Medial versus lateral: lateral part is located:

a)

Closest to the median plane

b)

Away from the center or median plane

c)

Toward the head end of body

d)

Nearer the beginning of a limb

52.

Which term means situated on or near the outside?

a)

Deep farther from surface

b)

Interior inside or near center

c)

Superficial nearer surface

d)

Exterior situated on outside

53.

Hyperextension is best defined as:

a)

Rotation around an axis

b)

Forced overflexion of joints

c)

Forced or excessive extension

d)

Normal straightening of a joint

54.

Hyperflexion describes:

a)

Inward turning of the foot

b)

Outward turning of the foot

c)

Forced overflexion of a joint

d)

Excessive extension movement

55.

Which term means within or inside, as in intravenous?

a)

Inter situated between things

b)

Exo outside or outward

c)

Intra within or inside

d)

Contra opposite side

56.

Ipsilateral indicates a structure located:

a)

On the opposite side

b)

Between adjacent ribs

c)

On the same side

d)

Toward the feet

57.

Contralateral is defined as:

a)

On the same side

b)

On the opposite side

c)

Farther from the origin

d)

Nearer the surface

58.

Flexion refers to which action at a joint?

a)

Straightening to normal position

b)

Turning the forearm palm up

c)

Rotating the limb outward

d)

Bending the joint, opposite of extension

59.

Adduction is movement:

a)

Toward the central axis or midline

b)

Away from the beginning of limb

c)

Toward the head end

d)

Away from the central axis

60.

Which term correctly matches the hand surface opposite the palm?

a)

Palmar anterior surface

b)

Plantar posterior foot surface

c)

Dorsum manus back surface

d)

Cephalad toward head

61.

Which statement best defines a radiographic projection in diagnostic imaging?

a)

Method describing movement of anatomy during exposure

b)

Term describing direction or path of the central ray through patient

c)

Technique referring to image receptor type used in exam

d)

Positioning term describing patient orientation on table

62.

In a posteroanterior (PA) projection, how does the central ray travel relative to the patient?

a)

Transversely along the coronal plane

b)

Parallel to the sagittal plane across the patient

c)

From posterior to anterior through the patient

d)

From anterior to posterior through the patient

63.

Which feature characterizes a true PA projection without intentional rotation?

a)

CR parallel to transverse plane only

b)

CR angled obliquely to both coronal and sagittal

c)

CR perpendicular to coronal plane and parallel to sagittal

d)

CR parallel to coronal plane and perpendicular to sagittal

64.

In an anteroposterior (AP) projection, where does the central ray enter and exit?

a)

Enters lateral surface and exits medial surface

b)

Enters superior surface and exits inferior surface

c)

Enters posterior surface and exits anterior surface

d)

Enters anterior surface and exits posterior surface

65.

Which description matches a lateral projection of the body?

a)

CR passes obliquely through an angled plane

b)

CR travels posterior to anterior parallel to sagittal

c)

CR passes transversely along coronal plane, entering one side and exiting the opposite

d)

CR travels anterior to posterior through midline

66.

When specifying a left lateral chest projection, what does “left” indicate?

a)

Side closest to the image receptor and where CR exits

b)

Side with denser lung field

c)

Side of patient marked by lead marker only

d)

Side where CR enters and patient faces

67.

Which scenario represents an AP oblique projection?

a)

CR enters posterior surface and exits anterior surface

b)

CR enters anterior surface and exits posterior surface along an oblique plane

c)

CR enters superior aspect and exits inferior aspect vertically

d)

CR enters left side and exits right side across coronal plane

68.

For limb projections described as mediolateral or lateromedial, what do these terms clarify?

a)

Degree of rotation required for positioning

b)

The sides entered and exited by the central ray

c)

Amount of flexion at involved joint

d)

Type of grid or IR used for extremity

69.

Which statement about horizontally directed X-ray beams is accurate for supine abdominal imaging?

a)

Horizontal CR reduces motion blur in chest exams

b)

Horizontal CR means beam is oblique relative to patient

c)

Horizontal CR indicates beam parallel to floor during AP supine positioning

d)

Horizontal CR is only used for erect lateral skull studies

70.

Which option correctly contrasts PA and AP projections?

a)

PA exits posterior, AP exits anterior surfaces

b)

PA enters posterior, AP enters anterior surfaces

c)

PA and AP both exit lateral body surfaces

d)

PA and AP both enter anterior surfaces

71.

During a lateral projection of the abdomen, what is the path of the central ray?

a)

From anterior to posterior along sagittal plane

b)

From posterior to anterior along sagittal plane

c)

From one side of the body to the opposite side across coronal plane

d)

From superior to inferior parallel to long axis

72.

Which positioning adjustment ensures a true PA without rotation for chest radiography?

a)

Place IR oblique to sagittal and transverse planes

b)

Angle CR 15 degrees cephalad to coronal plane

c)

Align CR perpendicular to coronal plane and parallel to sagittal

d)

Rotate patient 30 degrees to create obliquity

73.

Which statement best defines an axial projection in radiography?

a)

Central ray parallel to transverse body plane

b)

Central ray perpendicular to image receptor

c)

Central ray centered to anatomical midline

d)

Central ray angled along body’s long axis

74.

In an inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder, the path of the central ray is described as entering and exiting how?

a)

Entering anteriorly, exiting posteriorly

b)

Entering inferiorly, exiting superiorly

c)

Entering medially, exiting laterally

d)

Entering superiorly, exiting inferiorly

75.

Which projection is used to demonstrate the apices of the lungs by angling the central ray rather than the patient’s body?

a)

AP erect chest without angle

b)

Lateral decubitus chest view

c)

PA chest with caudal tilt

d)

AP axial chest lordotic position

76.

The transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder requires what qualifying positioning term to specify the side closest to the image receptor?

a)

Right or left lateral position

b)

Anteroposterior or posteroanterior

c)

Erect or supine orientation

d)

Trendelenburg or Fowler tilt

77.

A tangential projection is designed to do which of the following?

a)

Strike the detector at ninety degrees to surface

b)

Skim outer surface to profile free of superimposition

c)

Pass centrally through the body’s midline

d)

Traverse the long axis from head to feet

78.

Which term describes a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

a)

Central ray from dorsal surface to plantar surface

b)

Central ray from plantar surface to dorsal surface

c)

Central ray from posterior heel to anterior toes

d)

Central ray from medial border to lateral border

79.

An axial plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus is characterized by the central ray entering and exiting where?

a)

Entering plantar surface, exiting dorsal surface

b)

Entering dorsal surface, exiting plantar surface

c)

Entering lateral border, exiting medial border

d)

Entering anterior surface, exiting posterior surface

80.

In the parietoacanthial projection (PA Waters), the central ray enters and exits at which anatomical landmarks?

a)

Enters mentum, exits vertex of skull

b)

Enters temporal bone, exits zygomatic arch

c)

Enters acanthion, exits cranial parietal bone

d)

Enters cranial parietal bone, exits at acanthion

81.

For the acanthioparietal projection (AP Waters), the direction of the central ray is described as entering and exiting where?

a)

Enters at cranial parietal bone, exits at acanthion

b)

Enters at acanthion, exits at cranial parietal bone

c)

Enters dorsal surface, exits plantar surface

d)

Enters below chin, exits at skull vertex

82.

Which statement correctly describes the submentovertical (SMV) projection for skull and mandible?

a)

Central ray enters above vertex and exits at chin

b)

Central ray enters at acanthion and exits parietal

c)

Central ray enters lateral mandible and exits orbit

d)

Central ray enters below chin and exits at vertex

83.

Verticosubmental (VSM) projection is defined by the central ray entering and exiting which regions?

a)

Entering anterior thorax, exiting posterior back

b)

Entering dorsal foot, exiting plantar foot

c)

Entering below chin, exiting at skull vertex

d)

Entering top of skull, exiting below mandible

84.

Which general body position is described as an upright posture to stand or sit?

a)

Erect position

b)

Supine position

c)

Prone position

d)

Recumbent position

85.

A patient lying on the back is in which general body position?

a)

Supine position

b)

Prone position

c)

Lateral recumbent

d)

Ventral decubitus

86.

Trendelenburg position is best characterized by which orientation?

a)

Prone with head lower than the feet

b)

Erect with knees slightly flexed

c)

Supine with head lower than the feet

d)

Supine with head higher than the feet

87.

Fowler position differs from Trendelenburg by which feature?

a)

Erect with head lower than the feet

b)

Prone with head higher than the feet

c)

Supine with head level with the feet

d)

Supine with head higher than the feet