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Pregnancy Complications Quiz

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of a "cue" that might indicate a patient is developing Pre-Eclampsia?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Low blood sugar

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Decreased heart rate

2.

Which of the following is assessed under the Central Nervous System (CNS) in a client wiht pre-eclampsia?

a)

Proteinuria

b)

Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR)

c)

Epigastric pain

d)

FHR

3.

What is the purpose of dipstick testing of urine in diagnostic testing in a client wiht preeclampsia?

a)

To measure blood creatinine levels

b)

To test for proteinuria

c)

To assess clotting factors

d)

To analyze liver enzymes

4.

Which of the following is NOT part of laboratory testing?

a)

Blood creatinine, BUN, uric acid

b)

Clotting studies

c)

Nonstress test

d)

Chemistry profile

5.

What is the purpose of a 24-hour urine collection in diagnostic testing?

a)

To measure liver enzyme levels

b)

To assess protein and creatinine clearance

c)

To perform clotting studies

d)

To analyze CBC

6.

What does the "H" in HELLP Syndrome stand for?

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperplasia

7.

In HELLP Syndrome, what does the first "L" stand for?

a)

Low

b)

Liver Enzymes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Lipids

8.

What does the "P" in HELLP Syndrome indicate?

a)

Platelets

b)

Plasma

c)

Proteins

d)

Pressure

9.

Which of the following is an antihypertensive medication?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Aspirin

d)

Ibuprofen

10.

Which of the following medications is NOT listed as an antihypertensive in the provided material?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Magnesium sulfate

d)

Labetalol

11.

What position should a preeclampsia patient remain in to reduce the risk of complications as per the patient education guidelines?

a)

Sitting upright in a chair

b)

Lying flat on the back

c)

Side-lying position on bed rest

d)

Standing and leaning forward

12.

What should be done to ensure safety during a seizure according to the patient education guidelines?

a)

Provide water to the patient

b)

Maintain a patent airway

c)

Restrain the patient

d)

Administer sedatives immediately

13.

What is the alternative term for a Hydatidiform Mole?

a)

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

b)

Ectopic pregnancy

c)

Placental previa

d)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

14.

What is the appearance of the trophoblastic villi in the placenta during proliferation and degeneration?

a)

Swollen and fluid-filled, resembling grape-like clusters

b)

Flattened and dry, resembling leaf-like structures

c)

Enlarged and solid, resembling stone-like formations

d)

Shrunken and hollow, resembling tube-like structures

15.

What condition is associated with the failure of the embryo to develop beyond a primitive state and the presence of trophoblastic structures?

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Ectopic pregnancy

16.

What characteristic of choriocarcinoma makes it particularly dangerous?

a)

It is rapidly metastasizing

b)

It causes immediate organ failure

c)

It leads to severe dehydration

d)

It is resistant to all forms of treatment

17.

What is one of the responsibilities of a nurse in monitoring a pregnant patient?

a)

Monitor for preeclampsia

b)

Diagnose genetic disorders

c)

Perform ultrasounds

d)

Conduct laboratory tests independently

18.

Why is client education and emotional support important in nursing care?

a)

It helps patients understand their condition and feel supported emotionally.

b)

It replaces the need for medical treatment.

c)

It ensures the patient does not need follow-up care.

d)

It is only necessary for patients with chronic illnesses.

19.

Which of the following is a classic clinical sign of placental abruption?

a)

Persistent nausea and vomiting

b)

Sudden onset of abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding

c)

Painless vaginal bleeding

d)

High fever and chills

20.

Which of the following best describes placenta previa?

a)

Placenta forms outside the uterus

b)

Placenta partially or completely covers the cervical os

c)

Placenta detaches prematurely from the uterine wall

d)

Placenta invades the myometrium deeply

21.

What is the most common clinical symptom of placenta previa?

a)

Painful vaginal bleeding

b)

Painless vaginal bleeding

c)

High fever

d)

Severe abdominal cramps

22.

Which of the following is the most immediate risk to the fetus in the event of a prolapsed umbilical cord?

a)

Fetal hypoxia due to cord compression

b)

Maternal hypertension

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Preterm labor

23.

What is the recommended initial nursing intervention when a prolapsed umbilical cord is detected during labor?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Place the mother in knee-chest or Trendelenburg position

c)

Start magnesium sulfate infusion

d)

Administer oxytocin

24.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial maneuver to relieve shoulder dystocia during delivery?

a)

Fundal pressure

b)

McRoberts maneuver

c)

Vacuum extraction

d)

Episiotomy

25.

What is the primary goal of administering magnesium sulfate to a patient with preeclampsia?

a)

To reduce proteinuria

b)

To prevent seizures

c)

To lower blood pressure

d)

To treat infection

26.

Which laboratory finding is most indicative of worsening preeclampsia?

a)

Decreased platelet count

b)

Increased white blood cell count

c)

Elevated hemoglobin

d)

Low blood glucose

27.

What is the primary reason vaginal examinations are avoided in patients with placenta previa?

a)

They may trigger severe bleeding

b)

They increase the risk of infection

c)

They are unnecessary for diagnosis

d)

They cause discomfort

28.

What is the primary purpose of applying suprapubic pressure during shoulder dystocia?

a)

To deliver the placenta

b)

To push the fetal shoulder downward and dislodge it from behind the pubic symphysis

c)

To increase uterine contractions

d)

To rotate the fetal head