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Worksheets

ojojoj

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Term What are the characteristics of erythrocytes?

a)

Most numerous, blue, nucleated, biconcave discs.

b)

Most numerous, pink, anucleate, biconcave discs.

c)

Least numerous, red, anucleate, spherical cells.

d)

Moderately numerous, green, nucleated, biconvex discs.

2.

Term What is an embolus?

a)

A clot that remains stationary in a blood vessel.

b)

A dislodged thrombus that travels through the cardiovascular system.

c)

A clot that disintegrates into blood clots elsewhere.

d)

A clot that enhances blood flow in the cardiovascular system.

3.

Term What is the function of leukocytes?

a)

Defend against pathogens.

b)

Transport nutrients in the blood.

c)

Transport respiratory gases in the blood.

d)

Allow exchange between blood and body tissues.

4.

What condition is indicated by an elevated number of lymphocytes?

a)

Lymphocytosis, which occurs during a viral infection.

b)

Lymphocytopenia, which occurs during a bacterial infection.

c)

Lymphocytosis, which occurs during an allergic reaction.

d)

Lymphocytopenia, which occurs during an allergic reaction.

5.

Name the three types of granulocytes.

a)

Mucus, sputum, and platelets.

b)

Erythrocytes, lymphocytes (T-cells), and platelets.

c)

Eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils.

d)

Microcytosis, plasma cells, and natural killer cells.

6.

Term What is plasma?

a)

The cellular component of blood that carries oxygen.

b)

The solid portion of blood containing blood cells.

c)

The part of blood responsible for clotting.

d)

The fluid portion of blood that contains plasma proteins and dissolved solutes.

7.

Term What is the function of erythrocytes?

a)

Defend the body against infections.

b)

Repair damaged blood vessels.

c)

Regulate blood pressure and flow.

d)

Transport respiratory gases in the blood.

8.

Term Where does hematopoiesis occur in adults?

a)

In the liver.

b)

In the spleen.

c)

In the lymph nodes.

d)

In the red bone marrow.

9.

Term What is the main function of macrophages?

a)

To transport oxygen to tissues.

b)

To phagocytose and digest pathogens and debris.

c)

To produce antibodies and antigens.

d)

To regulate blood pressure and flow.

10.

What is thrombocytopenia?

a)

A condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells, leading to anemia.

b)

A condition characterized by an overproduction of white blood cells, increasing infection.

c)

A condition characterized by a deficiency of platelets, increasing the risk of serious bleeding.

d)

A condition characterized by an excess of platelets, increasing the risk of thrombosis.

11.

Term What happens to urobilinogen that is absorbed back into the blood?

a)

It is stored in the liver as glycogen.

b)

It is converted to bilirubin and secreted in the spleen.

c)

It is broken down into amino acids and recycled by the muscles.

d)

It is converted to urobilin and excreted from the kidneys as the yellow pigment of urine.

12.

Term What do monocytes transform into when they enter tissues?

a)

Neutrophils.

b)

Macrophages.

c)

B cells.

d)

T cells.

13.

How is iron from hemoglobin managed?

a)

It is excreted by the kidneys as waste.

b)

It is stored in the muscles as glycogen.

c)

It is converted to glucose in the liver.

d)

It is transported by transferrin to the liver and stored as ferritin.

14.

Term What nutrients are required for erythropoiesis?

a)

Iron, B vitamins (Vitamin B12, Folic Acid), and amino acids.

b)

Calcium, Vitamin C, and fatty acids.

c)

Potassium, Vitamin A, and carbohydrates.

d)

Sodium, Vitamin D, and lipids.

15.

Term What is the significance of the presence of foreign surface antigens in blood transfusions?

a)

It indicates that the blood is unsuitable for the recipient's immune system.

b)

It means the blood does not have to be cross-matched to the recipient.

c)

It indicates that the blood is safe to transfuse to the recipient.

d)

It suggests that the blood is safe for transfusion to all blood types.

16.

How can RhoGAM prevent the formation of maternal anti-Rh antibodies?

a)

RhoGAM alters fetal erythrocyte antigens to match maternal blood type.

b)

RhoGAM blocks maternal antibodies from contacting the placenta.

c)

RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies that bind to the fetus, preventing the mother's immune system from recognizing them or producing anti-Rh antibodies.

d)

RhoGAM stimulates the mother's immune system to produce protective antibodies.

17.

Term Which substances release during allergic or inflammatory reactions?

a)

Histamine and heparin.

b)

Coumadin and warfarin.

c)

Antithrombin and heparin.

d)

Plasmin and heparin.

18.

Term What is blood doping?

a)

The illegal practice of self-injecting erythropoietin to enhance athletic performance.

b)

The legal practice of taking iron supplements to improve endurance.

c)

The authorized use of vitamins to enhance muscle strength.

d)

The natural process of increasing red blood cell production through diet.

19.

What is blood?

a)

A solid tissue that forms bones and cartilage.

b)

A slowly regenerating connective tissue that transports gases, nutrients, wastes, and hormones.

c)

A fluid that lubricates joints and muscles.

d)

A dense tissue that supports body structures and organs.

20.

Term Where can Rh incompatibility not occur during a first pregnancy?

a)

The mother has not yet been exposed to Rh-positive blood and therefore has not made anti-Rh antibodies.

b)

The mother has been exposed to Rh-negative blood and has suppressed antibody production.

c)

The fetus is Rh-negative and cannot trigger maternal immune response.

d)

The mother naturally produces antibodies that prevent Rh incompatibility.

21.

Term What are the normal elements of blood?

a)

Lymphocytes, platelets, and plasma cells.

b)

Antibodies, electrolytes, and stem cells.

c)

Erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets.

d)

Plasma proteins, enzymes, and hormones.

22.

Term What is the main function of lymphocytes?

a)

To regulate blood clotting processes.

b)

To fight bacterial infections and heal wounds.

c)

To fight viral infections and manage the specific immune response.

d)

To transport oxygen and nutrients.

23.

Where is bilirubin transported after its formation?

a)

To the kidney.

b)

To the liver.

c)

To the lungs.

d)

To the brain.

24.

Term What are the common types of hemophilia?

a)

Blood group A-B.

b)

Hemophilia A (low levels of Clotting Factor VIII) and Hemophilia B (low levels of Clotting Factor IX).

c)

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.

d)

Granulocytes and Agranulocytes.

25.

What is thrombopoiesis?

a)

The production of vitamin K.

b)

The production of platelets.

c)

The production of von Willebrand factor.

d)

The production of white blood cells from hematopoietic stem cells.

26.

Term What does eosinophilia indicate?

a)

A stable number of eosinophils, anticipated in fungal infections.

b)

A decreased number of monocytes, anticipated in parasitic diseases.

c)

A decreased number of neutrophils, anticipated in bacterial infections.

d)

An elevated number of eosinophils, anticipated in parasitic diseases.

27.

Term What is the second phase of hemostasis?

a)

Platelet adhesion, where platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers.

b)

Platelet activation, where platelets are broken down to prevent clotting.

c)

Platelet dislocation, where platelets are secreted from the lungs.

d)

Platelet plug formation, where platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers and aggregate to close the injury.

28.

Which cell gives rise to neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes?

a)

Lymphoid stem cell

b)

Myeloid stem cell

c)

Erythrocyte precursor

d)

Megakaryocyte

29.

How are leukocytes different from erythrocytes?

a)

Leukocytes are larger, varied in form, and have a nucleus.

b)

Leukocytes are smaller, uniform in shape, and lack a nucleus.

c)

Leukocytes are identical in size to erythrocytes and have a small nucleus.

d)

Leukocytes have no cytoplasm while erythrocytes do.

30.

What happens to fibrinogen during clot formation?

a)

It is converted to fibrin threads.

b)

It is broken down into amino acids.

c)

It remains as a soluble protein in plasma.

d)

It is converted to glucose for energy.

31.

What blood type is considered a universal donor?

a)

Type AB blood

b)

Blood group O−

c)

Blood group AB−

d)

Type A blood

32.

What is the average volume of blood in an adult?

a)

About 3 liters, ranging from 2 to 4 liters.

b)

About 5 liters, ranging from 4 to 6 liters.

c)

About 7 liters, ranging from 6 to 8 liters.

d)

About 10 liters, ranging from 9 to 12 liters.

33.

What blood type has neither surface antigen A nor B?

a)

Type O blood

b)

Type AB blood

c)

Type A blood

d)

Type B blood

34.

What stimulates the secretion of erythropoietin?

a)

An increase in blood glucose levels.

b)

An increase in blood calcium levels.

c)

A decrease in blood oxygen levels.

d)

A decrease in blood potassium levels.

35.

What is the main function of erythrocytes?

a)

To deliver oxygen to body tissues.

b)

To transport carbon dioxide from body tissues to the lungs.

c)

To deliver nutrients to body cells.

d)

To regulate blood pressure throughout the body.

36.

What is the role of urobilinogen in the intestines?

a)

It may be converted by bacteria to stercobilin and expelled as brown pigment in feces.

b)

It is absorbed into the bloodstream and stored in the liver.

c)

It is converted by enzymes into bile salts and stored in the gallbladder.

d)

It is broken down by bacteria into bile salts and absorbed into the blood.

37.

What does differential white blood cell count measure?

a)

The size and shape of white blood cells.

b)

The relative proportion of each type of leukocyte.

c)

The concentration of hemoglobin in leukocytes.

d)

The total number of red blood cells in the blood.

38.

What color is oxygen-rich blood?

a)

Cloudy violet

b)

Dark blue

c)

Bright red

d)

Dull red

39.

What is leucopoiesis?

a)

The destruction of leukocytes (white blood cells).

b)

The production of erythrocytes (red blood cells).

c)

The regulation of platelet production.

d)

The production of leukocytes (white blood cells).

40.

What do arteries do?

a)

Transport blood away from the heart.

b)

Return blood to the heart.

c)

Filter blood in the kidneys.

d)

Oxygenate blood in the lungs.

41.

What are megakaryocytes?

a)

Small cells that produce erythrocytes and circulate in the blood.

b)

Large cells that produce platelets and remain in the bone marrow.

c)

Cells that produce antibodies in the lymph nodes.

d)

Large cells that break down platelets and are found in the liver.

42.

What is chemotaxis?

a)

The attraction of leukocytes to chemicals at an infection site.

b)

The repulsion of leukocytes by chemicals at an infection site.

c)

The inactivation of leukocytes by chemicals at an infection site.

d)

The destruction of leukocytes by chemicals at an infection site.

43.

What does the term serum refer to?

a)

Plasma with electrolytes added.

b)

Plasma with red blood cells removed.

c)

Plasma with clotting proteins removed.

d)

Plasma with white blood cells removed.

44.

What are the surface antigens that determine an individual's blood group?

a)

Antigen A, Antigen B, and Rhesus antigen (Antigen D).

b)

Antigen C, Antigen V, and platelet antigen.

c)

Antigen A, Antigen B, and leukocyte antigen.

d)

Antigen M, Antigen N, and hemoglobin antigen.

45.

What is the average hematocrit for adult females?

a)

50 to 60%

b)

30 to 37%

c)

45 to 55%

d)

38 to 46%

46.

What happens if plasma protein levels fall?

a)

It can lead to increased blood pressure and dehydration.

b)

It can cause higher blood viscosity and clotting.

c)

It can lead to reduced colloid osmotic pressure and tissue swelling.

d)

It can lead to increased carbon dioxide pressure and tissue swelling.

47.

What determines if a blood type is Rhesus positive or negative?

a)

The presence or absence of Rhesus factor surface antigens on erythrocytes.

b)

The presence or absence of Antigen A on erythrocytes.

c)

The presence or absence of Antigen B on erythrocytes.

d)

The level of hemoglobin in erythrocytes.

48.

What type of cells are formed from the myeloid line?

a)

Erythrocytes, lymphocytes, and thrombocytes.

b)

Erythrocytes, all leukocytes except lymphocytes, and megakaryocytes.

c)

All leukocytes, erythrocytes, and plasma cells.

d)

Lymphocytes, platelets, and plasma proteins.

49.

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

a)

A condition in newborns where the Rh-positive mother's antibodies enhance fetal erythrocyte production.

b)

A disease in newborns where the Rh-negative mother's antibodies promote fetal leukocyte production.

c)

A condition in newborns where maternal Rh antigens destroy fetal leukocytes.

d)

An illness in newborns where the Rh-negative mother's anti-Rh antibodies destroy fetal erythrocytes.

50.

What is the main function of neutrophils?

a)

Phagocytosis of bacteria.

b)

Phagocytosis of whole red blood cells.

c)

Fighting parasites.

d)

Migration of leukocytes.

51.

What is an erythrocyte?

a)

A mature cell that lacks a nucleus and other organelles.

b)

An immature cell that lacks a nucleus and other organelles except ribosomes.

c)

A cell that actively divides and replicates.

d)

A cell that has a fully developed nucleus.

52.

Which genetic condition leads to sickle-cell disease?

a)

An inherited DNA mutation causing an incorrect amino acid sequence in hemoglobin.

b)

A viral infection that damages red blood cells.

c)

A nutritional deficiency resulting in changes in bone structure.

d)

A bacterial mutation affecting hemoglobin production.

53.

What is agglutination in the context of blood transfusions?

a)

The clumping of donated red blood cells due to recipients' antibodies binding foreign antigens.

b)

The saturation of donated red blood cells by the recipient's plasma.

c)

The swelling of donated red blood cells due to fluid absorption.

d)

The expansion of donated red blood cells in the recipient.

54.

What are leukocytes commonly referred to as?

a)

Plasma

b)

Transitional epithelial cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

55.

What is hematopoiesis?

a)

The filtration of blood in the kidneys

b)

The reduction of blood cells

c)

The production of formed elements of blood

d)

The regulation of blood pressure

56.

What is the function of capillaries?

a)

Allow exchange between blood and body tissues

b)

Store nutrients for future use

c)

Filter wastes from body tissues

d)

Produce hormones for body regulation

57.

What is the golden rule of transfusions?

a)

Check for any antibodies in the donor's blood compared to the recipient's

b)

Ensure the donor's erythrocytes are compatible with the recipient's platelets

c)

Ensure the donor's erythrocytes are compatible with the recipient's blood type

d)

Check for any organ antigens on the donor's erythrocytes compared to the recipient's

58.

What is the role of the heart in blood circulation?

a)

The heart oxygenates blood in the lungs

b)

The heart filters blood to remove toxins

c)

The heart regulates blood sugar levels

d)

The heart pumps blood throughout the body

59.

What is the main function of eosinophils?

a)

To transport oxygen in the blood

b)

To fight organisms that cause parasitic infections

c)

To regulate allergic reactions

d)

To manage bacterial infections

60.

What hormone controls erythropoiesis?

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

b)

Erythropoietin (EPO)

c)

Melatonin

d)

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

61.

What mnemonic helps remember the order of leukocytes from most to least numerous?

a)

Never Let Monkeys Cook Bananas

b)

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

c)

Never Love Monkeys Eat Bananas

d)

Never Leave Monkeys Eat Bananas

62.

What is the composition of blood plasma?

a)

60% water, 3% glucose, and 10% lipids

b)

92% water, 7% plasma proteins, and 1% dissolved molecules and ions

c)

60% water, 7% proteins, and 5% ions

d)

60% water, 5% proteins, and 5% ions

63.

What is pernicious anemia caused by?

a)

A deficiency of Vitamin B12 due to inability to absorb it from the diet

b)

A deficiency of iron due to poor absorption from the intestines

c)

An inability to absorb vitamin C from the diet

d)

A lack of folate absorption due to intestinal issues

64.

What blood type has just surface antigen A only?

a)

None of the answers are correct

b)

Type AB blood

c)

Universal recipient

d)

Type O blood

e)

Type A blood

65.

What is hematocrit?

a)

The percentage of erythrocytes in total blood volume

b)

The percentage of plasma in total blood volume

c)

The concentration of platelets in blood

d)

The ratio of white blood cells to red blood cells

66.

What blood type has both surface antigens A and B?

a)

Type AB blood

b)

Type B blood

c)

Type A blood

d)

Type O blood

67.

What color is oxygen-poor blood?

a)

Bright red

b)

A slightly darker red

68.

What is hemoglobin?

a)

A red pigmented protein in erythrocytes that transports oxygen

b)

A carbohydrate in platelets that transports energy

c)

A chylomicron protein in plasma that transports cholesterol

d)

A white pigmented protein in leukocytes that resists infection

69.

What antibodies does an individual with Type O blood have?

a)

Only anti-A and anti-B antibodies

b)

Only anti-A antibodies

c)

Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

d)

Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

e)

Both anti-B and anti-C antibodies

70.

How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin molecule carry?

a)

Two oxygen molecules

b)

Four oxygen molecules

c)

Three oxygen molecules

d)

Six oxygen molecules

71.

What happens to the components of erythrocytes during destruction?

a)

They are converted into glucose for energy

b)

They are discarded as waste through the kidneys

c)

They are broken down and recycled for protein synthesis and erythrocyte production

d)

They are stored in the liver for future use

72.

What is diapedesis?

a)

The movement of leukocytes through lymphatic vessels

b)

The process of leukocytes squeezing between blood vessel walls

c)

The secretion of leukocytes across blood vessel walls

d)

The expansion of leukocytes within blood vessels

73.

What can agglutinated clumps of erythrocytes cause?

a)

Improved circulation by creating blood vessels

b)

Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues

c)

Critical illness by blocking blood vessels and causing organ damage

d)

Reduced blood pressure by dilating blood vessels

74.

What is the main function of leukocytes?

a)

To fight viral infections and manage the specific immune response

b)

Phagocytosis of bacteria

c)

To phagocytize infectious pathogens and debris

d)

To defend against bacterial pathogens

75.

What substances are required for the coagulation process?

a)

Magnesium, antidiopsidas, platelets, and Vitamin A

b)

Potassium, clotting factors, platelets, and Vitamin E

c)

Calcium, clotting factors, platelets, and Vitamin K

d)

Iron, clotting enzymes, red blood cells, and Vitamin C

76.

What causes iron deficiency anemia?

a)

A deficiency of iron leading to decreased erythrocyte production

b)

A lack of Vitamin B12 needed to produce erythrocytes

c)

A lack of folate needed for erythrocyte maturation in the spleen

d)

A deficiency of iron needed to produce erythrocytes in the red bone marrow

77.

What is the normal pH range of arterial blood?

a)

Between 6.86 and 7.05

b)

Between 7.20 and 7.30

c)

Between 7.35 and 7.45

d)

Between 7.55 and 7.65

78.

What is erythropoiesis?

a)

The synthesis of plasma proteins

b)

The formation of platelets

c)

The production of red blood cells

d)

The production of white blood cells

79.

What is neutrophilia?

a)

A decrease in the number of neutrophils in the blood

b)

A decrease in the number of lymphocytes in the blood

c)

An increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood

d)

An increased number of neutrophils in the blood

80.

What system transports blood?

a)

The cardiovascular system

b)

The respiratory system

c)

The lymphatic system

d)

The nervous system

81.

What happens to erythrocytes after 120 days?

a)

They are transported to the bone marrow for repair

b)

They are converted into platelets in the spleen

c)

They are stored in the liver for energy

d)

They are phagocytized in the spleen or liver

82.

What percentage of total leukocytes do neutrophils comprise?

a)

20–30%

b)

50–70%

c)

10–20%

d)

5–10%

83.

What is hemostasis?

a)

Hemostasis is the regulation of blood pressure, involving two phases.

b)

Hemostasis is the process of dilating blood vessels, involving four phases.

c)

Hemostasis is the process of increasing blood pressure, involving three phases.

d)

Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding, involving three overlapping phases.

84.

What are the types of plasma proteins?

a)

Lipoproteins, carbohydrates, and electrolytes.

b)

Enzymes, acidic fatty acids, and glucose.

c)

Albumin, globulins, fibrinogen, and other clotting proteins.

d)

Enzyme cofactors, vitamins, and hormones.

85.

What are the main clotting factors and their roles?

a)

Clotting Factor I is Fibrinogen, and Factor II is Vitamin K.

b)

Clotting Factors: Fibrinogen, Plasmin, and Vitamin K.

c)

Coagulation is the final stage of hemostasis, where a fibrin mesh forms to trap blood cells and create a clot.

d)

Clotting Factor I is Fibrinogen, Factor II is Prothrombin, and Factor III is Tissue Factor.

86.

What is the primary function of albumin?

a)

Exert colloid osmotic pressure and act as transport proteins.

b)

Regulate blood sugar levels and store energy.

c)

Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

d)

Control immune responses and fight infections.

87.

What condition is defined by a lower than normal percentage of erythrocytes in the blood?

a)

Pancytopenia

b)

Anemia

c)

Leukemia

d)

Neutropenia

88.

What is coagulation in the context of hemostasis?

a)

Coagulation is the process of destroying blood cells to prevent clotting.

b)

Coagulation is the phase where blood vessels dilate to increase flow.

c)

Coagulation is the final stage of hemostasis, where a fibrin mesh forms to trap blood cells and create a clot.

d)

Coagulation is the phase where blood vessels constrict to create a clot.

89.

What do veins do?

a)

Filter blood in the liver.

b)

Oxygenate blood in the brain.

c)

Transport blood toward the heart.

d)

Transport blood away from the heart.

90.

What blood type is considered a universal recipient?

a)

Blood Group AB

b)

Blood Group O-

c)

B minus

d)

Type O Blood

91.

What is the role of plasma proteins in osmosis?

a)

They help draw water back into capillaries as blood circulates.

b)

They regulate carbohydrate metabolism.

c)

They regulate blood sugar levels.

d)

They transport oxygen to tissues.

92.

What is hemophilia?

a)

A bleeding disorder due to an inherited deficiency of red blood cells.

b)

A bleeding disorder due to a lack of iron absorption.

c)

A bleeding disorder due to an inherited deficiency of one of the blood clotting factors.

d)

A bleeding disorder due to an excess of blood platelets.

93.

What is the role of platelets?

a)

Fight off bacterial infections.

b)

Regulate blood sugar levels.

c)

Help manage or prevent blood loss.

d)

Transport oxygen to body tissues.

94.

What is neutrophilia and when does it occur?

a)

Neutrophilia is an elevated number of neutrophils, expected during a bacterial infection.

b)

Neutrophilia is an elevated number of lymphocytes, expected during a viral infection.

c)

Neutrophilia is a decrease in neutrophils, expected during an allergic reaction.

d)

Neutrophilia is a stable number of neutrophils, expected during a fungal infection.

95.

What is the primary function of fibrinogen?

a)

Fibrinogen aids oxygen transport.

b)

Fibrinogen supports immune response.

c)

Fibrinogen contributes to blood clot formation.

d)

Fibrinogen regulates blood pressure.

96.

What is the main reason individuals with blood type AB+ do not form antibodies against blood type antigens?

a)

They produce antibodies against all blood type antigens.

b)

They have only one type of antigen on their red blood cells.

c)

They have all three antigens on their red blood cells.

d)

They lack all antigens on their red blood cells.

97.

What is the life span of mature erythrocytes in blood?

a)

30 days.

b)

50 days.

c)

120 days.

d)

60 days.

98.

What is the most common cause of Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

a)

A shortage of bile acids required for Vitamin B12 absorption.

b)

A lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb Vitamin B12.

c)

A lack of calcium needed to absorb Vitamin B12.

d)

A deficiency of digestive enzymes affecting Vitamin B12 absorption.

99.

What happens during Rh incompatibility in pregnancy?

a)

A Rhesus-positive mother's antibodies destroy fetal erythrocyte development in a Rhesus-negative fetus.

b)

A Rhesus-negative mother’s anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta and cause erythrocyte destruction in a Rhesus-positive fetus.

c)

A Rhesus-positive mother’s antibodies enhance fetal erythrocyte production in a Rhesus-negative fetus.

d)

A Rhesus-negative mother’s antibodies prevent fetal erythrocyte production in a Rhesus-negative fetus.

100.

What happens if a Rhesus-negative person is exposed to Rh-positive blood?

a)

The mother has not yet been exposed to Rh-positive blood and therefore has not developed antibodies.

b)

Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies develop.

c)

Anti-Rh antibodies will appear.

d)

An illness in newborns where the Rhesus-negative mother’s anti-Rh antibodies destroy fetal erythrocytes.

101.

What are the two classes of leukocytes?

a)

Agranulocytes and basophils.

b)

Neutrophils and basophils.

c)

Granulocytes and agranulocytes.

d)

Monocytes and lymphocytes.

102.

What are gamma-globulins?

a)

Hormones regulating metabolism.

b)

Enzymes involved in muscle contraction.

c)

Immunoglobulins or antibodies that are a part of the immune system.

d)

Proteins that regulate blood pressure.

103.

What is the viscosity of blood compared to water?

a)

Blood is 1.2 times thicker than water.

b)

Blood is twice as thick as water.

c)

Blood is equally thick as water.

d)

Blood is 4.5–5 times thicker than water.

104.

What happens to red bone marrow as children grow?

a)

It is gradually replaced by yellow (fatty) bone marrow in many bones.

b)

It remains unchanged throughout adulthood in most bones.

c)

It increases in size and density in all bones.

d)

It is converted into cartilage in the joints.

105.

What pigment is produced from the heme group after erythrocyte destruction?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Biliverdin

c)

Albumin

d)

Cholesterol

106.

What is the average hematocrit for adult males?

a)

42 to 56%.

b)

40 to 65%.

c)

25 to 35%.

d)

30 to 40%.

107.

What are hemocytoblasts?

a)

Mature blood cells ready for circulation.

b)

Hematopoietic stem cells that can differentiate into many types of cells.

c)

Cells that regulate blood sugar levels.

d)

Stem cells that produce only red blood cells.

108.

What are common symptoms of anemia?

a)

Tiredness, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion.

b)

Fever, sepsis, and increased energy levels.

c)

Weight gain, increased appetite, and high blood pressure.

d)

Rapid heartbeat, flushed skin, and enhanced vision.

109.

What is a thrombosis?

a)

A clot that dissolves spontaneously in a vessel.

b)

A clot that closes in an intact vessel.

c)

A clot that travels through the lymphatic system.

d)

A clot that forms in a damaged vessel and blocks blood flow.

110.

What is a blood smear?

a)

A sample of blood used for genetic analysis.

b)

A thin layer of blood spread on a slide, stained to visualize formed elements.

c)

A thick layer of blood used for chemical analysis.

d)

A thick layer of blood used for laboratory testing.

111.

What is hypercoagulation?

a)

A condition where blood clots dissolve too rapidly preventing vessel obstruction.

b)

A condition where blood vessels dilate excessively, causing low blood pressure.

c)

A condition where clots form in intact vessels, obstructing blood flow.

d)

A condition where blood flow is enhanced in intact vessels, improving circulation.

112.

How long do platelets typically circulate in the blood?

a)

Platelets circulate for 2 to 3 days before being recycled.

b)

Platelets circulate for 8 to 10 days before breaking down.

c)

Platelets circulate for 15 to 20 days before being recycled.

d)

Platelets circulate indefinitely without breaking down.

113.

What occurs during the vascular spasm phase of hemostasis?

a)

Blood vessel relaxation occurs to maintain normal blood flow.

b)

Blood vessel expansion occurs in response to injury, increasing blood flow.

c)

Blood vessel constriction occurs to minimize blood loss, limiting blood leakage.

d)

Blood vessel contraction occurs to enhance oxygen delivery.

114.

What are the three categories of lymphocytes?

a)

A-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and dendritic cells.

b)

B-lymphocytes, T-helper cells, and mast cells.

c)

NK (natural killer) cells, plasma cells, and Fric macrophages cell.

d)

T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and NK (natural killer) cells.