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20.1 Viruses, Viroids, and Prions: Introduction

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes viruses from cellular life?

a)

They are noncellular infectious agents

b)

They metabolize independently in hosts

c)

They contain both DNA and RNA genomes

d)

They perform photosynthesis for energy

2.

A hallmark of viral replication is that viruses

a)

depend on host metabolic machinery

b)

translate proteins without ribosomes

c)

synthesize ATP in their own organelles

d)

divide by binary fission outside cells

3.

Which pair correctly matches a viral component with its nature?

a)

Genome — both DNA and RNA together

b)

Core enzymes — photosynthetic proteins

c)

Envelope — rigid carbohydrate layer

d)

Capsid — protein shell around core

4.

What technological advance first allowed scientists to see viruses directly?

a)

The electron microscope invention

b)

The Gram staining technique

c)

The light microscope refinement

d)

The ultracentrifuge method

5.

Louis Pasteur contributed to virology by proposing that

a)

viroids are misfolded infectious proteins

b)

all viruses possess lipid envelopes

c)

viruses are self-replicating without hosts

d)

an agent smaller than bacteria caused rabies

6.

Which feature is used to classify viruses?

a)

Presence of chlorophyll pigments

b)

Ability to produce peptidoglycan

c)

Mode of cellular respiration used

d)

Type of nucleic acid core present

7.

A virus described as “naked” most likely lacks which component?

a)

A lipid envelope surrounding capsid

b)

A protein capsid enclosing genome

c)

Any nucleic acid in the inner core

d)

Any proteins associated with enzymes

8.

A newly discovered virus is 50 nanometers in diameter and contains single‑stranded RNA. Which is the most justified conclusion from this information?

a)

It must contain double‑stranded DNA

b)

It cannot infect animals or plants

c)

It could be enveloped or nonenveloped

d)

It can replicate without host cells

9.

In the adenovirus diagram, which structural feature is located at each vertex of the polyhedral capsid?

a)

A base plate with pins

b)

A helical sheath segment

c)

A fiber extending outward

d)

A short neck connector

10.

Which statement best distinguishes the heads of adenovirus and a T-even bacteriophage in the diagrams?

a)

Both are polyhedral, but only the bacteriophage has a neck

b)

Only adenovirus has a polyhedral head structure

c)

Both heads are helical with DNA coiled inside

d)

Only the bacteriophage head lacks enclosed nucleic acid

11.

According to the bacteriophage diagram, what structure directly connects the head to the tail sheath?

a)

A corner fiber

b)

A base plate ring

c)

A capsid protein

d)

A small neck region

12.

Which sequence correctly traces from the bacteriophage head to the point of initial host contact shown in the diagram?

a)

Capsid → neck → tail sheath → base plate → pins

b)

Capsid → base plate → neck → pins → sheath

c)

DNA → base plate → neck → sheath → pins

d)

Capsid → fiber → neck → pins → sheath

13.

In the adenovirus figure, what composes the outer shell enclosing the DNA?

a)

Cellulose-protein hybrid wall

b)

Peptidoglycan lattice shell

c)

Lipid bilayer with glycoproteins

d)

Protein units forming a capsid

14.

A researcher engineers a mutant T-even bacteriophage lacking tail fibers but retaining the base plate and pins. Which outcome is most likely during host recognition?

a)

Enhanced DNA packing within the head

b)

No change to initial adsorption dynamics

c)

Reduced attachment efficiency to the host

d)

Improved neck stability during infection

15.

Which statement best identifies the nucleic acid composition of a single virion?

a)

Either DNA or RNA, never both

b)

Both DNA and RNA together

c)

Mostly proteins with some RNA

d)

Primarily lipids with some DNA

16.

In the left diagram of the tobacco mosaic virus, what structural feature is highlighted by the cylinder of repeating units?

a)

Tail fibers for host attachment

b)

Helical capsid surrounding RNA

c)

Icosahedral capsid around DNA

d)

Enveloped membrane with spikes

17.

Which component is present in influenza virions but absent in the tobacco mosaic virus shown?

a)

Capsid composed of proteins

b)

Single-stranded RNA genome

c)

Helical capsid protein shell

d)

Membranous envelope with spikes

18.

A virus has a spherical capsid surrounded by a membrane studded with proteins. Which feature most directly aids host cell recognition?

a)

Phospholipids in the membrane

b)

Length of the RNA genome

c)

Capsid protein subunit pattern

d)

Glycoprotein spikes on the envelope

19.

If a newly discovered virus contains both DNA and RNA in its core, which conclusion is most justified?

a)

It must infect only plant cells

b)

The sample is contaminated, not a single virion

c)

It represents a typical enveloped virus

d)

It likely has no protein capsid

20.

Two viruses enter a cell: Virus A has a helical capsid without an envelope; Virus B has a spherical capsid with an envelope and spikes. Which prediction is best supported about their entry mechanisms?

a)

Virus B likely fuses or endocytoses via spikes

b)

Virus A uses envelope-mediated membrane fusion

c)

Both rely solely on DNA injection through tails

d)

Neither requires host receptors for attachment

21.

Which statement best defines viruses as obligate intracellular parasites?

a)

They reproduce in cell-free nutrient media

b)

They reproduce independently using viral ribosomes

c)

They reproduce only inside living cells

d)

They reproduce best in sterile saline solutions

22.

During which stage of the viral reproductive cycle are new viral genomes and proteins synthesized using host machinery?

a)

Release stage exiting through lysis

b)

Penetration stage injecting the genome

c)

Attachment stage matching surface molecules

d)

Biosynthesis stage using host resources

23.

What primarily determines host specificity during viral attachment to a cell?

a)

Presence of cell wall and capsule thickness

b)

Rate of host cell division and size

c)

Concentration of nutrients in the medium

d)

Complementary viral proteins and host receptors

24.

Which sequence correctly orders the five common stages of viral reproduction?

a)

Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release

b)

Release, biosynthesis, maturation, penetration, attachment

c)

Penetration, attachment, maturation, biosynthesis, release

d)

Maturation, release, attachment, penetration, biosynthesis

25.

A bacteriophage immediately replicates and causes host cell lysis, releasing many virions. Which cycle is described?

a)

Retroviral cycle with reverse transcription

b)

Lytic cycle with immediate reproduction

c)

Endosymbiotic cycle with mutual benefit

d)

Lysogenic cycle with genome latency

26.

In the lysogenic cycle of a bacteriophage, the integrated viral DNA is called a what?

a)

Prion lacking nucleic acids

b)

Prophage integrated in host genome

c)

Provirus outside the cytoplasm

d)

Plasmid carrying viral enzymes

27.

Which outcome distinguishes the lysogenic cycle from the lytic cycle in bacteria?

a)

Rapid virion assembly and cell bursting

b)

Viral genome latency without immediate lysis

c)

Release only by budding from membranes

d)

No integration and immediate transcription

28.

A toxin-producing bacterium causes disease only when carrying phage DNA integrated into its genome. Which mechanism explains this?

a)

Horizontal transfer by transformation

b)

Conjugation forming an F plasmid

c)

Lytic burst increasing cell motility

d)

Lysogenic conversion via a prophage

29.

A researcher blocks host ribosomes after viral entry. Which stage will be directly impaired first?

a)

Biosynthesis of viral components

b)

Attachment to host receptors

c)

Penetration of the capsid or genome

d)

Release of virions by lysis

30.

Which statement best contrasts viruses with living cells in this context?

a)

Viruses contain all metabolic enzymes for replication

b)

Viruses grow by cell division independent of hosts

c)

Viruses are active or inactive rather than alive or dead

d)

Viruses can be cultured on nutrient agar plates

31.

Which event directly distinguishes the lytic cycle from the lysogenic cycle in bacteriophages?

a)

Host cell rapidly lyses and releases virions

b)

Viral DNA enters through cell envelope

c)

Viral genome integrates into host chromosome

d)

Phage capsid attaches to bacterial receptor

32.

During attachment, what molecular interaction is depicted between the bacteriophage and the bacterium?

a)

Capsid proteins bind specific surface receptors

b)

Tail fibers fuse with lipid bilayer

c)

Capsid injects proteins into cytoplasm

d)

Viral RNA base-pairs with cell wall

33.

In the lysogenic cycle, what is the fate of viral DNA after entry into the host?

a)

It immediately directs virion assembly

b)

It remains circular in the cytoplasm

c)

It is degraded by host restriction enzymes

d)

It integrates as a prophage within host DNA

34.

Which sequence best matches the lytic cycle stages?

a)

Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release

b)

Attachment, integration, maturation, biosynthesis, release

c)

Penetration, integration, maturation, release, attachment

d)

Integration, biosynthesis, maturation, release, penetration

35.

A prophage is indicated in the lysogenic cycle. Which outcome is emphasized when the host cell divides?

a)

Phage receptors are downregulated

b)

Viral genome is copied into daughter cells

c)

New virions are released by lysis

d)

Capsid proteins are assembled rapidly

36.

Under certain conditions, cells in the lysogenic state enter the lytic cycle. Which trigger is most consistent with the diagram’s emphasis on outcomes?

a)

Random mutations prevent DNA replication

b)

Low temperature permanently inhibits phage genes

c)

Nutrient abundance stabilizes prophage integration

d)

Environmental stress induces prophage excision

37.

Which step immediately follows entry of an animal virus into a host cell?

a)

Assembly of mature virions

b)

Budding from the plasma membrane

c)

Uncoating releases viral nucleic acid

d)

Integration into host chromosomes

38.

During budding of animal viruses, what happens to the virion?

a)

Degrades host plasma membrane

b)

Acquires a membranous envelope

c)

Loses its capsid structure

d)

Replicates host ribosomal RNA

39.

What enzymatic activity defines retroviruses such as HIV?

a)

Reverse transcriptase synthesizing cDNA

b)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

c)

Integrase removing proviral DNA

d)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

40.

In HIV replication, which event creates the provirus state?

a)

Biosynthesis of viral proteins

b)

Packaging RNA into the capsid

c)

Budding from the host membrane

d)

cDNA integration into host DNA

41.

Which sequence best represents early HIV life cycle steps inside a cell?

a)

Budding, maturation, entry

b)

Integration, attachment, biosynthesis

c)

Attachment, entry, reverse transcription

d)

Reverse transcription, attachment, release

42.

Why can HIV remain latent for years in infected cells?

a)

Proviral cDNA is replicated with host DNA

b)

Envelope proteins are constantly changing

c)

Viral capsid hides from immune cells

d)

Budding prevents immune recognition

43.

Which outcome directly results from transcription of integrated HIV DNA?

a)

Insertion of additional host promoters

b)

Production of viral RNA genomes and mRNA

c)

Formation of double-stranded host plasmids

d)

Induction of cell wall biosynthesis

44.

A drug blocks the acquisition of a membranous envelope by virions. Which stage is most directly inhibited?

a)

Release by budding from the membrane

b)

Integration into nuclear chromatin

c)

Attachment to host cell receptors

d)

Reverse transcription inside the cytosol

45.

Which event allows HIV contents to enter the host cytoplasm during initial infection?

a)

Lysis of the host membrane by toxins

b)

Membrane fusion between viral and host envelopes

c)

Active transport through nuclear pores

d)

Endocytosis without membrane interaction

46.

After attachment to the cell, what directly enables HIV to bind the host membrane?

a)

Hydrolysis of host membrane phospholipids

b)

Interactions between viral proteins and host receptors

c)

Insertion of viral DNA into the membrane

d)

Random collisions with the lipid bilayer

47.

Which step converts HIV RNA into a form that can integrate into the host chromosome?

a)

RNA replication yields double-stranded RNA

b)

Ribosomal translation produces integrase protein

c)

Reverse transcription generates cDNA for integration

d)

Transcription from host DNA creates viral RNA

48.

Once integrated, which process produces new viral genomes using host machinery?

a)

Degradation of host mRNA by viral nucleases

b)

Biosynthesis of viral RNA from the DNA copy

c)

Replication of host mitochondrial genomes

d)

Translation of viral RNA into envelope proteins

49.

What sequence correctly orders late-stage events of HIV replication?

a)

RNA synthesis, release from cell, assembly of particles

b)

Release from cell, assembly of particles, RNA synthesis

c)

Assembly of particles, RNA synthesis, release from cell

d)

RNA synthesis, assembly of particles, release from cell

50.

Which function is primarily associated with the hemagglutinin (H) spike on influenza viruses?

a)

Binding to host cell receptors

b)

Packaging the RNA genome segments

c)

Cleaving sialic acid on virions

d)

Blocking host immune interferons

51.

The neuraminidase (N) spike most directly facilitates which step during influenza infection?

a)

Attachment to epithelial receptors

b)

Replication of viral RNA segments

c)

Assembly of the capsid proteins

d)

Exit of mature virions from cells

52.

How many distinct types of H and N spikes are commonly noted for influenza A viruses, respectively?

a)

9 H and 16 N types

b)

12 H and 12 N types

c)

16 H and 9 N types

d)

18 H and 11 N types

53.

Why can novel H and N spike combinations hinder preexisting immunity in human populations?

a)

Antibodies target known spike epitopes

b)

T cells only recognize internal proteins

c)

Macrophages ignore viral envelopes

d)

Interferons block all spike variants

54.

In the bird flu diagram, which process best explains gradual changes in spike genes within a bird host over time?

a)

Accumulation of point mutations

b)

Horizontal gene transfer

c)

Binary fission of virions

d)

Photosynthetic gene drift

55.

A human cell co-infected with human and bird influenza can generate a new strain through which mechanism?

a)

Complement fixation cascade

b)

Reverse transcription inhibition

c)

Homologous recombination

d)

Gene segment reassortment

56.

Which scenario would most likely produce an H7N9 strain capable of human transmission?

a)

Loss of neuraminidase activity in avian strains

b)

Point mutations increasing bacterial receptor binding

c)

Fusion of capsid proteins into one large subunit

d)

Reassortment mixing bird H7 with human-adapted genes

57.

A public health team detects an influenza virus with a novel H spike but familiar N spike. Which consequence is most plausible?

a)

Autoimmunity against host membrane proteins

b)

No immunity because N dominates recognition

c)

Partial immunity with reduced attachment neutralization

d)

Complete immunity due to known neuraminidase

58.

Which statement best defines an emerging virus?

a)

A virus newly recognized in human populations

b)

A virus confined to a single animal reservoir

c)

A virus eliminated by long-standing vaccines

d)

A virus causing only mild seasonal symptoms

59.

Which scenario illustrates viral range extension?

a)

Latent herpes reactivation in a single patient

b)

West Nile establishing in birds and mosquitoes in the US

c)

Influenza antigenic drift within a human population

d)

Eradication of smallpox through global vaccination

60.

Why is a new influenza vaccine recommended each year?

a)

Rapid mutation alters circulating flu strains annually

b)

Avian reservoirs eliminate prior human immunity

c)

Vaccine immunity disappears after two weeks

d)

Global production quotas limit long-term protection

61.

Which example reflects emergence via genetic mutation crossing species barriers?

a)

Polio transmission halted by sanitation measures

b)

Rabies persisting in bats without human cases

c)

H5N1, H1N1, and H7N9 arising from animal flu viruses

d)

Measles outbreaks in unvaccinated children

62.

Examine the global map of outbreaks. Which region shows documented emergence of both SARS (2003) and a novel coronavirus (2012)?

a)

South America along the Amazon basin

b)

Western Europe and the British Isles region

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa and Madagascar coasts

d)

East Asia and the Arabian Peninsula region

63.

Since 1992, more than twenty emerging diseases have been noted worldwide. Which inference is most supported by this trend?

a)

Human immunity universally declines with modern medicine

b)

Vaccination programs are the primary cause of emergence

c)

New virulence factors or environments can expand host range

d)

All pathogens become less transmissible over time

64.

A public health team sees chikungunya appear where the mosquito vector recently established. Which intervention most directly targets the mechanism of emergence?

a)

Promotion of probiotics to boost general microbiomes

b)

Mass antibiotic distribution to asymptomatic residents

c)

Vector control reducing newly established mosquito populations

d)

Quarantine of only recovered travelers after illness

65.

Which statement best distinguishes viroids from viruses and prions?

a)

Viroids are lipid particles treated by antibiotics

b)

Viroids are naked RNA causing many crop diseases

c)

Viroids are DNA viruses with metabolic enzymes

d)

Viroids are misfolded proteins with tertiary structure

66.

Why are antibiotics ineffective against viral infections such as herpes or HIV?

a)

Viruses lack metabolism targeted by antibiotics

b)

Viruses hide only in plant host tissues

c)

Viruses are larger than bacterial cells

d)

Viruses are prions with contagious folds

67.

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) are best described as

a)

Viral cancers cured by broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Plant infections caused by naked DNA circles

c)

Bacterial disorders prevented by conventional vaccines

d)

Neurodegenerative diseases destroying brain nerve tissue

68.

Which scenario most plausibly explains transmission of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) to humans?

a)

Consuming infected cattle neural tissue spreads prion folds

b)

Mosquito bites transfer viral particles between species

c)

Aerosolized bacteria from barns colonize the lungs

d)

Eating undercooked plants with viroid sequences

69.

A new fatal livestock disease shows no nucleic acids but a contagious tertiary structure. Which agent is most likely responsible?

a)

A prion producing neurodegeneration

b)

An RNA virus with metabolism

c)

A DNA virus with antibiotics

d)

A viroid infecting crop species

70.

Which domains include organisms that are prokaryotes?

a)

Eukarya only

b)

Archaea and Eukarya

c)

Bacteria and Eukarya

d)

Bacteria and Archaea

71.

What does the term prokaryote literally mean?

a)

Primitive organism

b)

Without ribosomes

c)

Before a nucleus

d)

Tiny single cell

72.

Typical bacterial cell dimensions are best described as which range?

a)

1–10 micrometers long, 0.7–1.5 micrometers wide

b)

10–100 micrometers long, 2–5 micrometers wide

c)

0.01–0.1 millimeters long, 1–2 micrometers wide

d)

100–1000 nanometers long, 10–20 nanometers wide

73.

Where are prokaryotes most abundantly found in everyday environments?

a)

Deep-sea vents exclusively

b)

Inside animal nuclei only

c)

Only in sterile laboratory flasks

d)

Air, water, soil, and on objects

74.

In Pasteur’s first experiment, briefly opened flasks outside showed more growth than those opened inside. Which hypothesis does this pattern support?

a)

Glass flasks create nutrients

b)

Boiling generates new organisms

c)

Life arises spontaneously in broth

d)

Airborne bacteria contaminate broth

75.

Pasteur’s second experiment used a swan-neck flask that allowed air in but trapped particles. What was the key outcome?

a)

Broth became cloudy immediately

b)

Spontaneous generation was proven

c)

No growth occurred in the broth

d)

Growth increased due to airflow

76.

Which reasoning best explains why the outside-opened flasks had higher contamination than inside-opened flasks?

a)

Boiling temperature was lower outdoors

b)

Broth quality was poorer outdoors

c)

Sunlight sterilized the indoor air

d)

Higher airborne bacterial concentrations outdoors

77.

A student sets up a sterile broth in a flask open to filtered air that removes bacteria but not gases. Predict the most likely result after several days.

a)

Broth becomes cloudy with growth

b)

Particles generate cells spontaneously

c)

Broth remains clear without growth

d)

Microbes appear from nutrients alone

78.

Which structure houses the primary DNA in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Thylakoid stacks for photosynthesis

b)

Conjugation pilus extension

c)

Membrane-bound nucleus compartment

d)

Nucleoid region of cytoplasm

79.

What component primarily makes up most bacterial cell walls?

a)

Peptidoglycan polymer network

b)

Cholesterol-rich lipid bilayer

c)

Cellulose microfibril scaffold

d)

Silica-based mineral lattice

80.

Which appendage is specialized for motility in many prokaryotes?

a)

Flagellum rotating propeller

b)

Fimbriae adhesive bristles

c)

Conjugation pilus bridge

d)

Glycocalyx capsule shell

81.

Plasmids in bacteria are best described as which of the following?

a)

Accessory rings of DNA

b)

Protein-only episomes

c)

Linear chromosomal arms

d)

Membranous micronuclei

82.

A bacterium attaches firmly to a surface before forming a biofilm. Which structure most directly mediates this initial adhesion?

a)

Thylakoid membrane stacks

b)

Nucleoid DNA complex

c)

Flagella long helical filaments

d)

Fimbriae short protein fibers

83.

During conjugation, genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells primarily through which structure?

a)

Peptidoglycan pores

b)

Ribosomal exit tunnel

c)

Glycocalyx slime layer

d)

Conjugation pilus bridge

84.

Which statement distinguishes prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

a)

They enclose DNA in nucleus

b)

They possess chloroplast systems

c)

They lack membranous organelles

d)

They contain mitochondria arrays

85.

Which structure in a bacterium is a gel-like coating outside the cell wall made of polysaccharide called glycocalyx?

a)

Fimbriae

b)

Nucleoid

c)

Basal body

d)

Capsule

e)

Ribosome

86.

In the bacterial cell, which structure regulates the entrance and exit of molecules by surrounding the cytoplasm?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Cytoplasm gel

c)

Capsule layer

d)

Plasma membrane

e)

Conjugation pilus

87.

Which component provides support and shape to the bacterial cell according to the diagram?

a)

Plasma membrane

b)

Capsule coat

c)

Fimbrial network

d)

Cytoplasm matrix

e)

Cell wall

88.

What is identified as the location of the bacterial chromosome within the cell?

a)

Plasmid ring

b)

Vesicle

c)

Nucleoid

d)

Ribosome

e)

Nucleus

89.

Which structure is described as hairlike bristles that allow adhesion to surfaces?

a)

Fimbriae

b)

Flagellum

c)

Conjugation pilus

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Capsule

90.

According to the flagellum inset, which part connects the filament to the cell envelope and enables rotation?

a)

Fimbriae and hook

b)

Plasma and wall

c)

Capsule and wall

d)

Ribosome and hook

e)

Hook and basal body

91.

Which bacterial structure is the site of protein synthesis shown within the cytoplasm?

a)

Plasma membrane

b)

Capsule

c)

Nucleoid

d)

Cell wall

e)

Ribosome

92.

Which appendage is an elongated hollow tube used to transfer DNA to other cells?

a)

Conjugation pilus

b)

Flagellum

c)

Basal body

d)

Filament

e)

Fimbriae