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Worksheets

Pharmacology Week 4 Part 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In anaphylaxis, which epinephrine action most directly reverses capillary leak and edema?

a)

Beta-2 mediated bronchodilation

b)

Beta-1 increased contractility

c)

Alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction

d)

H2 receptor blockade

2.

Which epinephrine effect most directly improves hypotension in anaphylaxis?

a)

Alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction

b)

Beta-2 decreased mediator release

c)

Beta-1 increased heart rate

d)

H2 decreased gastric acid

3.

A patient in anaphylaxis has severe bronchospasm. Which receptor action of epinephrine best addresses this?

a)

Alpha-1

b)

Beta-2

c)

Beta-1

d)

H2

4.

In anaphylaxis, epinephrine decreases mediator release primarily by acting on:

a)

Beta-2 receptors

b)

Alpha receptors

c)

Beta-1 receptors

d)

H2 receptors

5.

Which set of anaphylaxis problems is directly counteracted by epinephrine’s combined alpha and beta effects?

a)

Fever, rash, arthralgia

b)

Hypotension, bronchospasm, mucosal edema

c)

Bradycardia, constipation, urinary retention

d)

Hyperglycemia, leukocytosis, osteoporosis

6.

Histamine is best described as:

a)

Synthesized from tyrosine and stored in platelets

b)

Stored in mast cells and basophils and released in hypersensitivity reactions

c)

Released only during bacterial infections

d)

Produced by hydroxylation of tryptophan

7.

Histamine is produced via:

a)

Decarboxylation of histidine

b)

Hydroxylation of phenylalanine

c)

Methylation of lysine

d)

Transamination of tyrosine

8.

H1 receptors are located in all EXCEPT:

a)

Bronchioles

b)

Blood vessels

c)

Intestinal smooth muscle

d)

Sensory nerves

9.

A patient develops wheal and flare with itching after allergen exposure. This is most consistent with activation of:

a)

H1 receptors

b)

H2 receptors

c)

M3 receptors

d)

Beta-1 receptors

10.

Which is a classic manifestation of H1 activation?

a)

Increased gastric acid secretion

b)

Bronchoconstriction

c)

Marked sustained tachyarrhythmia

d)

Profound decrease in cardiac contractility

11.

H1 antihistamines work by:

a)

Preventing histamine synthesis

b)

Inhibiting histamine release from mast cells

c)

Competitively blocking H1 receptors

d)

Irreversibly antagonizing H1 receptors

12.

Which statement about H1 antihistamines is correct?

a)

They prevent mast cell degranulation directly

b)

They do not inhibit histamine release

c)

They increase capillary permeability

d)

They primarily reduce gastric acid secretion

13.

First-generation H1 antihistamines cause more sedation because they:

a)

Have minimal lipid solubility

b)

Do not cross the blood brain barrier

c)

Have high lipid solubility and cross the blood brain barrier

d)

Selectively bind only peripheral H1 receptors

14.

A patient taking a first-generation H1 antihistamine reports dry mouth and urinary retention. These effects are due to:

a)

Alpha-adrenergic agonism

b)

Anticholinergic adverse effects

c)

H2 receptor blockade

d)

Beta-2 agonism

15.

Which adverse effect is most associated with first-generation H1 antihistamines?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Skin atrophy

c)

Constipation

d)

Weekly LFT monitoring requirement

16.

Second-generation H1 antihistamines are less sedating primarily because they:

a)

Increase CNS penetration

b)

Lower lipid solubility with minimal CNS penetration

c)

Are irreversible antagonists

d)

Also block H2 receptors strongly

17.

H2 receptors are located primarily on:

a)

Bronchiolar smooth muscle

b)

Gastric parietal cells

c)

Sensory nerves

d)

Vascular endothelium only

18.

The main clinical effect of H2 activation is:

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Increased gastric acid secretion

c)

Decreased capillary permeability

d)

Increased mucus viscosity

19.

H2 receptor antagonists:

a)

Increase gastric acid secretion

b)

Reduce gastric acid secretion and increase gastric pH

c)

Cause significant bronchodilation

d)

Are first-line monotherapy for anaphylaxis

20.

In anaphylaxis, H2 blockers are used primarily to:

a)

Replace epinephrine

b)

Reduce histamine effects in the GI tract and vasculature

c)

Provide immediate relief of bronchospasm

d)

Prevent IgE formation

21.

Glucocorticoids are:

a)

Peptide hormones from the pituitary

b)

Steroid hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

c)

Synthesized in the thyroid

d)

Only exogenous medications

22.

The primary endogenous glucocorticoid is:

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol (hydrocortisone)

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Fludrocortisone

23.

A major mechanism of glucocorticoids is:

a)

Direct DNA degradation

b)

Regulation of gene transcription

c)

Competitive inhibition of IgE

d)

Opening calcium channels in mast cells

24.

Which is a key anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids?

a)

Increased capillary permeability

b)

Increased cytokine production

c)

Inhibition of leukocyte migration

d)

Increased mediator release from basophils

25.

Glucocorticoids reduce inflammation in part by:

a)

Stabilizing lysosomal membranes

b)

Increasing histamine synthesis

c)

Increasing leukocyte adhesion to endothelium

d)

Increasing prostaglandin production

26.

Which metabolic effect is expected with systemic glucocorticoids?

a)

Decreased gluconeogenesis

b)

Increased gluconeogenesis

c)

Increased bone formation

d)

Decreased protein catabolism

27.

Glucocorticoids can cause all EXCEPT:

a)

Lipolysis

b)

Protein catabolism

c)

Increased gluconeogenesis

d)

Increased aldosterone synthesis

28.

A core general prescribing principle for glucocorticoids is:

a)

Highest dose for longest duration

b)

Lowest effective dose for shortest effective duration

c)

Use only at night

d)

Avoid switching agents because equivalence is irrelevant

29.

Adverse effects of glucocorticoids are best described as:

a)

Unrelated to dose or duration

b)

Dose- and duration-dependent

c)

Only dependent on route, not duration

d)

Only immediate and never delayed

30.

When switching systemic corticosteroids, the prescriber must account for:

a)

Histamine receptor selectivity

b)

Dose equivalence

c)

COX-1 inhibition

d)

Beta-lactam cross-reactivity

31.

Which dose equivalence is correct (anti-inflammatory potency)?

a)

Hydrocortisone 20 mg ≈ Prednisone 20 mg

b)

Prednisone 5 mg ≈ Hydrocortisone 20 mg

c)

Dexamethasone 5 mg ≈ Hydrocortisone 20 mg

d)

Methylprednisolone 20 mg ≈ Prednisone 0.75 mg

32.

Which equivalence pairing is correct?

a)

Methylprednisolone 4 mg ≈ Prednisone 5 mg

b)

Triamcinolone 40 mg ≈ Hydrocortisone 20 mg

c)

Betamethasone 4 mg ≈ Hydrocortisone 20 mg

d)

Prednisone 0.75 mg ≈ Hydrocortisone 20 mg

33.

Dexamethasone and betamethasone are characterized by:

a)

Low anti-inflammatory potency and high mineralocorticoid activity

b)

About 25 times hydrocortisone potency with zero mineralocorticoid activity

c)

Strong mineralocorticoid activity with minimal glucocorticoid effect

d)

Equivalent potency to prednisone and strong mineralocorticoid activity

34.

Fludrocortisone is best described as:

a)

Extremely high anti-inflammatory potency

b)

Minimal to no anti-inflammatory activity with very high mineralocorticoid activity

c)

Zero mineralocorticoid activity with high anti-inflammatory effect

d)

A first-line drug for acute anaphylaxis

35.

Which special population concern is correctly matched?

a)

Pediatrics: cataracts and growth suppression

b)

Diabetes: hypoglycemia

c)

Osteoporosis: decreased fracture risk

d)

Immunocompromised: decreased infection risk

36.

Which adverse effect is a known risk of systemic glucocorticoids?

a)

Leukopenia

b)

HPA axis suppression

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Renal tubular acidosis

37.

Which adverse effect pair is most consistent with glucocorticoid therapy?

a)

Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis

b)

Hyponatremia and thrombocytopenia

c)

Severe ototoxicity and nephrolithiasis

d)

Photosensitivity and tendon rupture

38.

Anaphylaxis is best defined as:

a)

Localized rash without systemic involvement

b)

Acute, life-threatening, multi-organ reaction

c)

Chronic inflammatory skin disease

d)

Delayed hypersensitivity reaction only

39.

Which symptom is part of the clinical presentation of anaphylaxis?

a)

Dysphonia (hoarseness)

b)

Chronic lichenification only

c)

Isolated acneiform eruption

d)

Purpura without pruritus

40.

GI symptoms that may occur in anaphylaxis include:

a)

Constipation only

b)

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

c)

Hematemesis only

d)

Painless jaundice

41.

First-line pharmacologic treatment for anaphylaxis is:

a)

IV methylprednisolone

b)

IM epinephrine

c)

Oral famotidine

d)

Inhaled albuterol alone

42.

Adult IM epinephrine dosing for anaphylaxis is:

a)

0.03–0.05 mg IM

b)

0.3–0.5 mg IM

c)

3–5 mg IM

d)

0.01 mg/kg IM

43.

Pediatric IM epinephrine dosing for anaphylaxis is best stated as:

a)

0.1–0.3 mg regardless of weight

b)

0.01 mg/kg IM, typically 0.1–0.3 mg

c)

1 mg/kg IM

d)

0.3–0.5 mg IM

44.

Which is an immediate priority in anaphylaxis management?

a)

IV glucocorticoids for immediate relief

b)

Epinephrine and airway management

c)

Start biologic therapy

d)

Topical corticosteroids

45.

If hypotension persists during anaphylaxis despite epinephrine, the next immediate supportive step is:

a)

IV fluids

b)

Oral antihistamine only

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Stop all moisturizers

46.

Anaphylaxis adjunctive therapy for bronchospasm includes:

a)

Inhaled beta-2 agonist (albuterol)

b)

H2 blocker only

c)

Topical calcineurin inhibitor

d)

Ketoconazole

47.

Which adjunctive medication is NOT effective for immediate relief of anaphylaxis symptoms but may reduce biphasic reactions?

a)

IM epinephrine

b)

IV methylprednisolone

c)

Oxygen

d)

IV fluids

48.

Which statement is correct regarding adjuncts in anaphylaxis?

a)

Antihistamines replace epinephrine if symptoms improve

b)

Adjunctive therapies do not replace epinephrine

c)

Steroids are first-line because onset is fastest

d)

H2 blockers are the only necessary medication

49.

EpiPen Jr delivers:

a)

0.3 mg epinephrine

b)

0.15 mg epinephrine

c)

0.01 mg/kg epinephrine

d)

1 mg epinephrine

50.

EpiPen Jr is indicated for patients:

a)

Under 10 kg

b)

Under 30 kg

c)

At least 30 kg

d)

Over 60 kg