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Question Bank: Organizational Behaviour

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organizational Behavior (OB) is mainly the study of

a)

Machines in organizations

b)

People’s behavior in organizations

c)

Office buildings

d)

Marketing strategies

2.

OB focuses on behavior at which levels?

a)

Only individual level

b)

Only group level

c)

Individual, group, and structure level

d)

Only organization level

3.

A manager is a person who

a)

Works alone

b)

Achieves goals through others

c)

Only gives orders

d)

Avoids decisions

4.

An organization is

a)

A place to work only

b)

A coordinated social unit of two or more people

c)

A single-person business

d)

Only a government office

5.

Which one is NOT a management activity?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Dancing

d)

Controlling

6.

Planning means

a)

Monitoring employees

b)

Defining goals and developing plans

c)

Hiring employees

d)

Solving conflicts

7.

Organizing includes

a)

Setting goals only

b)

Grouping tasks and assigning work

c)

Sleeping at work

d)

Ignoring employees

8.

Leading involves

a)

Motivating and directing employees

b)

Counting money only

c)

Only writing reports

d)

Ignoring problems

9.

Controlling means

a)

Only punishing employees

b)

Checking progress and correcting deviations

c)

Ignoring goals

d)

Only planning

10.

Mintzberg’s managerial roles are divided into

a)

Two roles

b)

Three roles

c)

Four roles

d)

Five roles

11.

The interpersonal roles include

a)

Leader, Liaison, Figurehead

b)

Monitor, Spokesperson, Disseminator

c)

None

d)

Negotiator, Entrepreneur, Resource allocator

12.

The informational roles include

a)

Figurehead, Leader, Liaison

b)

Monitor, Disseminator, Spokesperson

c)

Planning, Organizing, Leading

d)

Negotiator, Disturbance handler, Entrepreneur

13.

The decision roles include

a)

Monitor and Spokesperson

b)

Figurehead and Liaison

c)

Entrepreneur and Negotiator

d)

None

14.

Technical skills mean

a)

Ability to motivate people

b)

Ability to apply specialized knowledge

c)

Ability to negotiate

d)

Ability to avoid work

15.

People skills mean

a)

Ability to do calculations

b)

Ability to use machines

c)

Ability to avoid communication

d)

Ability to understand and work with others

16.

OB studies the behavior of people in organizations.

a)

Yes

b)

No

17.

Planning is part of management activities.

a)

Yes

b)

No

18.

A manager achieves goals only by working alone.

a)

Yes

b)

No

19.

OB focuses only on individual behavior.

a)

Yes

b)

No

20.

Technical skills are required in every job.

a)

Yes

b)

No

21.

OB helps improve organizational effectiveness by studying behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

An organization must always have only one person.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Mintzberg identified managerial roles as interpersonal, informational, and decisional.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

People skills are not important for managers.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Controlling ensures activities are completed as planned.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Personality is best defined as

a)

The physical appearance of a person

b)

The sum of ways an individual reacts and interacts with others

c)

The job position of an employee

d)

The salary earned by an employee

27.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Personality traits are

a)

Temporary feelings

b)

Enduring characteristics that describe behavior

c)

Only inherited qualities

d)

Only learned habits

28.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): The most common way of measuring personality is

a)

Blood test

b)

Self-report survey

c)

Medical scan

d)

Salary review

29.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): A major problem with self-report surveys is

a)

They are always accurate

b)

Candidates may fake responses

c)

They take no time

d)

They are free of bias

30.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Observer-rating surveys are done by

a)

The same person who is tested

b)

A coworker or another observer

c)

Only a doctor

d)

Only the HR manager

31.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): MBTI classifies people into

a)

4 personality types

b)

8 personality types

c)

16 personality types

d)

20 personality types

32.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): MBTI is based on

a)

Carl Jung’s theories

b)

Taylor’s scientific management

c)

Maslow’s hierarchy

d)

Herzberg’s motivation theory

33.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Which is NOT a pair in MBTI?

a)

Extraverted vs Introverted

b)

Sensing vs Intuitive

c)

Thinking vs Feeling

d)

Agreeable vs Disagreeable

34.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): The Big Five model includes all EXCEPT

a)

Conscientiousness

b)

Extraversion

c)

Agreeableness

d)

Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

35.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Conscientiousness is associated with

a)

Carelessness and laziness

b)

Organization and reliability

c)

High aggression

d)

Emotional instability

36.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Emotional stability refers to

a)

Being calm and self-confident

b)

Being careless and rude

c)

Being aggressive always

d)

Being shy always

37.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Extraversion refers to being

a)

Quiet and reserved

b)

Sociable and assertive

c)

Disorganized and careless

d)

Nervous and anxious

38.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Openness to experience refers to

a)

Creativity and curiosity

b)

Anger and fear

c)

Strictness and rigidity

d)

Laziness and weakness

39.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Agreeableness refers to being

a)

Cold and antagonistic

b)

Cooperative and trusting

c)

Highly emotional

d)

Disorganized

40.

Objective Type Questions (MCQ): Personality assessments are used mainly to

a)

Replace job interviews completely

b)

Predict job performance and hiring decisions

c)

Punish employees

d)

Reduce organizational goals

41.

Yes or No Questions (with options): Personality is the sum of ways an individual reacts and interacts with the world.

a)

Yes

b)

No

42.

Yes or No Questions (with options): Personality traits are temporary and change every day.

a)

Yes

b)

No

43.

Yes or No Questions (with options): MBTI has strong scientific evidence and predicts job performance well.

a)

Yes

b)

No

44.

Yes or No Questions (with options): The Big Five model is widely supported by research.

a)

Yes

b)

No

45.

Yes or No Questions (with options): Self-report surveys can be affected by faking responses.

a)

Yes

b)

No

46.

Statement Questions (Choose the correct option): “The Big Five personality model includes five basic dimensions of personality.”

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Statement Questions (Choose the correct option): “Conscientiousness is one of the strongest predictors of job performance.”

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Statement Questions (Choose the correct option): “Observer ratings predict job success better than self-ratings alone.”

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Statement Questions (Choose the correct option): “Agreeable people are usually cold and antagonistic.”

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Statement Questions (Choose the correct option): “Person–organization fit means employees match the values of the organization.”

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Perception is best defined as:

a)

The process of memorizing information

b)

The process of organizing and interpreting sensory impressions

c)

The ability to judge others accurately

d)

The study of human behavior only

52.

Which of the following factors influences perception?

a)

Attitudes

b)

Motives

c)

Experience

d)

All of the above

53.

In perception, the individual who interprets information is called:

a)

The target

b)

The situation

c)

The perceiver

d)

The stimulus

54.

Attribution theory mainly deals with:

a)

How organizations are structured

b)

How people explain others’ behavior

c)

How motivation is developed

d)

How decisions are implemented

55.

The tendency to judge a person based on one prominent trait is known as:

a)

Stereotyping

b)

Halo effect

c)

Selective perception

d)

Projection

56.

When people interpret situations according to their own interests, it is called:

a)

Projection

b)

Attribution

c)

Selective perception

d)

Contrast effect

57.

Which bias occurs when individuals assume others are similar to themselves?

a)

Halo effect

b)

Projection

c)

Stereotyping

d)

Fundamental attribution error

58.

The fundamental attribution error refers to:

a)

Overestimating internal factors and underestimating external factors

b)

Overestimating external factors and underestimating internal factors

c)

Ignoring personal behavior

d)

Ignoring organizational rules

59.

Stereotyping is best described as:

a)

Individual evaluation

b)

Group-based generalization

c)

Objective assessment

d)

Behavioral modification

60.

Which of the following is NOT a component of perception?

a)

Perceiver

b)

Target

c)

Situation

d)

Motivation

61.

First impressions strongly influence later perceptions due to:

a)

Projection

b)

Primacy effect

c)

Recency effect

d)

Selective bias

62.

Decision-making in organizations is largely influenced by:

a)

Reality alone

b)

Perception of reality

c)

Rules only

d)

Technology only

63.

The contrast effect occurs when:

a)

People ignore differences

b)

People are compared with others recently encountered

c)

People stereotype others

d)

People avoid judgment

64.

Which factor belongs to the situation influencing perception?

a)

Past experience

b)

Motivation

c)

Time

d)

Attitude

65.

Perception mainly affects which organizational outcome?

a)

Salary structure

b)

Decision-making

c)

Office layout

d)

Technology use

66.

Perception differs from objective reality.

a)

Yes

b)

No

67.

All individuals perceive situations in the same way.

a)

Yes

b)

No

68.

Attribution theory explains how people judge behavior.

a)

Yes

b)

No

69.

Stereotyping always leads to accurate judgments.

a)

Yes

b)

No

70.

Perception plays a role in managerial decision-making.

a)

Yes

b)

No

71.

Perception is influenced by personal attitudes and experiences.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Halo effect leads to unbiased evaluation of employees.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Fundamental attribution error emphasizes external causes of behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Selective perception helps individuals process all available information.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Accurate perception improves organizational effectiveness.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Emotions are best described as:

a)

Long-lasting feelings without cause

b)

Intense feelings directed at someone or something

c)

General personality traits

d)

Rational thoughts

77.

Moods differ from emotions because moods are:

a)

More intense

b)

Short-lived

c)

Less intense and longer lasting

d)

Always negative

78.

The term affect refers to:

a)

Only negative emotions

b)

Only positive moods

c)

A broad range of feelings

d)

Cognitive ability

79.

Which of the following is a basic emotion?

a)

Satisfaction

b)

Pride

c)

Fear

d)

Motivation

80.

Positive affect refers to:

a)

Feeling nervous and tense

b)

Feeling enthusiastic and active

c)

Feeling depressed

d)

Feeling angry

81.

Negative affect includes emotions such as:

a)

Excitement

b)

Happiness

c)

Stress and anxiety

d)

Satisfaction

82.

Emotional labor is defined as:

a)

Physical effort at work

b)

Managing emotions to meet job requirements

c)

Cognitive workload

d)

Stress caused by workload

83.

Displaying emotions that are not genuinely felt is called:

a)

Deep acting

b)

Emotional intelligence

c)

Surface acting

d)

Mood regulation

84.

Emotional intelligence does NOT include:

a)

Self-awareness

b)

Self-regulation

c)

Technical expertise

d)

Empathy

85.

Which component of emotional intelligence involves understanding others’ emotions?

a)

Self-management

b)

Motivation

c)

Empathy

d)

Self-awareness

86.

Moral emotions are associated with:

a)

Personal success

b)

Ethical judgment

c)

Job satisfaction only

d)

Cognitive intelligence

87.

Which of the following is a moral emotion?

a)

Joy

b)

Guilt

c)

Excitement

d)

Surprise

88.

The affective events theory explains:

a)

Personality traits

b)

How workplace events influence emotions

c)

Job design

d)

Organizational structure

89.

Emotional contagion refers to:

a)

Suppression of emotions

b)

Transfer of emotions from one person to another

c)

Emotional regulation

d)

Mood stability

90.

Which job is most likely to involve high emotional labor?

a)

Accountant

b)

Data analyst

c)

Customer service representative

d)

Research scientist

91.

Deep acting involves:

a)

Faking emotions

b)

Suppressing feelings

c)

Modifying inner feelings to match required emotions

d)

Ignoring emotional rules

92.

Which factor most strongly influences daily moods at work?

a)

Salary structure

b)

Daily work events

c)

Organizational hierarchy

d)

Office location

93.

Emotions at work were traditionally viewed as:

a)

Helpful to productivity

b)

Neutral

c)

Detrimental to performance

d)

Essential for decision-making

94.

Emotional regulation refers to:

a)

Ignoring emotions

b)

Expressing all emotions freely

c)

Managing emotional responses

d)

Avoiding emotional situations

95.

Which of the following improves emotional intelligence?

a)

Technical training only

b)

Self-reflection and feedback

c)

Job rotation

d)

Automation

96.

Emotions are usually caused by specific events.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Moods are more intense than emotions.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Emotional intelligence can be developed over time.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Emotional labor is irrelevant in service organizations.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Positive moods generally enhance creativity at work.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Motivation refers to:

a)

Employee satisfaction only

b)

Intensity, direction, and persistence of effort

c)

Skill and ability of employees

d)

Organizational culture

102.

Who proposed the Hierarchy of Needs Theory?

a)

Herzberg

b)

Vroom

c)

Maslow

d)

McClelland

103.

Which theory classifies factors into hygiene and motivators?

a)

ERG Theory

b)

Expectancy Theory

c)

Two-Factor Theory

d)

Equity Theory

104.

The need for affiliation emphasizes:

a)

Power and control

b)

Achievement and success

c)

Friendly relationships

d)

Job security

105.

According to Maslow, unmet needs:

a)

Stop motivating behavior

b)

Do not influence behavior

c)

Continue to motivate behavior

d)

Become irrelevant

106.

Hygiene factors mainly prevent:

a)

High performance

b)

Dissatisfaction

c)

Motivation

d)

Commitment

107.

Expectancy theory assumes employees:

a)

Act emotionally

b)

Act irrationally

c)

Act rationally

d)

Act habitually

108.

Valence in expectancy theory refers to:

a)

Effort level

b)

Performance expectancy

c)

Value of the reward

d)

Skill requirement

109.

A manager gives recognition to improve motivation. This reflects:

a)

Hygiene factor

b)

Motivator factor

c)

Equity principle

d)

Reinforcement punishment

110.

An employee works harder believing promotion will follow good performance. This illustrates:

a)

Equity theory

b)

Reinforcement theory

c)

Expectancy theory

d)

Goal-setting theory

111.

Setting specific and challenging goals is based on:

a)

Maslow’s theory

b)

Goal-setting theory

c)

ERG theory

d)

Equity theory

112.

A bonus given immediately after good performance represents:

a)

Negative reinforcement

b)

Punishment

c)

Positive reinforcement

d)

Extinction

113.

An employee feels underpaid compared to colleagues. This situation reflects:

a)

Expectancy failure

b)

Goal ambiguity

c)

Underpayment inequity

d)

Hygiene satisfaction

114.

Which theory best explains reactions to unfair reward distribution?

a)

Maslow’s theory

b)

Equity theory

c)

ERG theory

d)

Reinforcement theory

115.

If salary increase does not improve performance, it suggests:

a)

Salary is always a motivator

b)

Motivation is independent of rewards

c)

Salary is a hygiene factor

d)

Equity theory has failed

116.

When employees reduce effort due to perceived unfairness, they are attempting to restore:

a)

Motivation

b)

Equity

c)

Expectancy

d)

Reinforcement

117.

Which motivational approach is most effective for knowledge workers?

a)

Punishment-based control

b)

Monetary rewards only

c)

Challenging work and autonomy

d)

Strict supervision

118.

Which theory best supports linking rewards directly to performance?

a)

Maslow’s theory

b)

Expectancy theory

c)

ERG theory

d)

Need for affiliation

119.

If an organization wants long-term motivation, it should focus on:

a)

Salary alone

b)

Hygiene factors only

c)

Intrinsic motivators

d)

Punishment mechanisms

120.

Which practice best integrates multiple motivation theories?

a)

Uniform rewards

b)

Job enrichment with fair pay

c)

Strict rules

d)

Job rotation only

121.

Motivation directly influences employee performance and persistence.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

According to Herzberg, improving salary alone increases motivation.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Expectancy theory links effort, performance, and rewards.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Equity theory is based on perceived fairness rather than absolute rewards.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Intrinsic motivation is more sustainable than extrinsic motivation.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

A group is defined as:

a)

Individuals working independently to achieve a common goal

b)

Two or more individuals interacting to achieve a common goal

c)

A collection of people in an organization

d)

Employees under one supervisor

127.

A team differs from a group because a team has:

a)

More members

b)

Shared responsibility

c)

Formal leadership only

d)

Individual accountability only

128.

Which of the following is NOT a type of group?

a)

Formal group

b)

Informal group

c)

Command group

d)

Virtual reward group

129.

The stages of group development were proposed by:

a)

Maslow

b)

Herzberg

c)

Tuckman

d)

McClelland

130.

The forming stage of group development is characterized by:

a)

Conflict and disagreement

b)

High performance

c)

Orientation and uncertainty

d)

Group dissolution

131.

The storming stage mainly involves:

a)

Cooperation

b)

Conflict among members

c)

Task completion

d)

Group celebration

132.

Group norms are:

a)

Legal rules

b)

Informal standards of behavior

c)

Written job descriptions

d)

Organizational policies

133.

Group cohesiveness refers to:

a)

Size of the group

b)

Degree of attraction among group members

c)

Group productivity only

d)

Leadership authority

134.

A manager encourages open communication to reduce conflicts. This mainly affects:

a)

Group size

b)

Group norms

c)

Group roles

d)

Group cohesiveness

135.

Assigning clear responsibilities to members helps to reduce:

a)

Social loafing

b)

Groupthink

c)

Group polarization

d)

Role ambiguity

136.

A team that evaluates alternatives critically before deciding is avoiding:

a)

Social facilitation

b)

Social loafing

c)

Groupthink

d)

Cohesiveness

137.

Rewarding team performance instead of individual performance helps to reduce:

a)

Cohesion

b)

Conflict

c)

Social loafing

d)

Norm formation

138.

When highly cohesive groups make poor decisions due to pressure for agreement, it is called:

a)

Group polarization

b)

Social loafing

c)

Groupthink

d)

Role conflict

139.

Increasing group size beyond a limit generally leads to:

a)

Higher efficiency

b)

Better coordination

c)

Communication problems

d)

Stronger norms

140.

A team becomes more extreme in its decisions after discussion. This is known as:

a)

Groupthink

b)

Group polarization

c)

Social facilitation

d)

Role ambiguity

141.

Free-riding behavior in groups indicates:

a)

High motivation

b)

Strong leadership

c)

Social loafing

d)

High accountability

142.

Which leadership style is most effective for self-managed teams?

a)

Autocratic

b)

Laissez-faire

c)

Supportive and participative

d)

Bureaucratic

143.

To improve team decision quality, a manager should:

a)

Discourage dissent

b)

Encourage critical evaluation

c)

Appoint a dominant leader

d)

Reduce communication

144.

Which factor most strongly contributes to team effectiveness?

a)

Large group size

b)

Clear goals and mutual accountability

c)

Strict supervision

d)

Uniform personality

145.

The best way to manage conflict in teams is to:

a)

Avoid it completely

b)

Suppress it

c)

Address it constructively

d)

Ignore differences

146.

Teams generally perform better than individuals for complex tasks.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

High group cohesiveness always leads to better decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

Group norms strongly influence individual behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Social loafing occurs when individual efforts are easily identifiable.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Effective teams balance task roles and relationship roles.

a)

True

b)

False