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NCLEX EKG QUESTIONS

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which ECG findings indicate normal sinus rhythm? Select all that apply.

a)

Heart rate 76 bpm

b)

One P wave before every QRS

c)

PR interval 0.14 seconds

d)

QRS duration 0.14 seconds

e)

Regular R-to-R intervals

2.

Which structure normally initiates the electrical impulse in normal sinus rhythm?

a)

AV node

b)

Bundle of His

c)

SA node

d)

Purkinje fibers

3.

A nurse measures a PR interval of 0.18 seconds. How should this be interpreted?

a)

Abnormally prolonged

b)

Abnormally shortened

c)

Normal

d)

Indicates complete heart block

4.

Which ECG finding best confirms that conduction is following a sinus rhythm pattern?

a)

No P waves visible

b)

One P wave for each QRS

c)

PR interval not measurable

d)

QRS complexes wider than 0.12 seconds

5.

A patient’s ECG shows: HR 88, regular rhythm, P before every QRS, PR 0.16, QRS 0.08. How should the nurse document this rhythm?

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

Normal sinus rhythm

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

6.

The nurse is teaching ECG interpretation. Which PR interval is within normal limits?

a)

0.10 seconds

b)

0.12 seconds

c)

0.22 seconds

d)

0.28 seconds

7.

The nurse is verifying the QRS duration. Which value is considered normal?

a)

0.06 seconds

b)

0.14 seconds

c)

0.18 seconds

d)

0.22 seconds

8.

Which statement about sinus rhythms is accurate?

a)

Sinus rhythms always have absent P waves

b)

Sinus rhythms have a regular rhythm with normal PR/QRS/QT intervals

c)

Sinus rhythms are always dangerous and require immediate cardioversion

d)

Sinus rhythm originates from the ventricles

9.

The nurse is analyzing an ECG strip. Which step should be performed first when interpreting any rhythm?

a)

Determine whether the rhythm is regular or irregular

b)

Identify ST segment elevation

c)

Calculate QT interval first

d)

Determine presence of U waves

10.

Which ECG component represents ventricular depolarization?

a)

P wave

b)

PR interval

c)

QRS complex

d)

QT interval

11.

A patient’s rhythm is sinus with a rate of 52 bpm. Which documentation is most appropriate?

a)

Normal sinus rhythm

b)

Sinus bradycardia

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Junctional rhythm

12.

Which are potential causes of sinus bradycardia? Select all that apply.

a)

Vagal stimulation

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Beta-blocker use

d)

Hypovolemia

e)

Hypothyroidism

13.

The nurse is caring for a patient with sinus bradycardia. Which assessment finding most strongly suggests poor perfusion?

a)

Warm skin and bounding pulses

b)

Dizziness and hypotension

c)

Heart rate 58 with no symptoms

d)

Mild anxiety

14.

A patient with sinus bradycardia is symptomatic. Which medication is typically the first-line treatment?

a)

Adenosine

b)

Atropine

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Diltiazem

15.

The nurse gives atropine for symptomatic bradycardia. What is the expected physiologic effect?

a)

Slows SA node firing

b)

Increases vagal tone

c)

Blocks vagal tone and increases SA node firing

d)

Immediately defibrillates the heart

16.

A patient with sinus bradycardia does not respond to atropine and remains hypotensive. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate next? Select all that apply.

a)

Transcutaneous pacing

b)

Dopamine infusion

c)

Epinephrine infusion

d)

Adenosine IV push

e)

Vagal maneuvers

17.

Sinus bradycardia is present with HR 48, but the patient is alert, BP stable, and denies symptoms. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Prepare for immediate cardioversion

b)

Administer atropine now

c)

Continue monitoring and assess for symptoms

d)

Start CPR

18.

Which patient is most likely to have sinus bradycardia as a normal finding?

a)

A febrile patient with dehydration

b)

A patient with uncontrolled pain

c)

An endurance athlete at rest

d)

A patient with acute hypoxia

19.

The nurse notes sinus bradycardia after a patient performs a Valsalva maneuver. Which explanation is most accurate?

a)

Valsalva increases sympathetic tone

b)

Valsalva increases vagal stimulation, slowing the SA node

c)

Valsalva causes ventricular ectopy

d)

Valsalva shortens the PR interval

20.

The nurse is giving shift report. Which statement best describes why sinus bradycardia can be clinically significant?

a)

It always causes ventricular fibrillation

b)

It can decrease cardiac output and cause fatigue/dizziness

c)

It indicates atrial fibrillation is present

d)

It confirms the patient needs defibrillation

21.

Which ECG findings are consistent with sinus tachycardia? Select all that apply.

a)

Heart rate 128 bpm

b)

Regular rhythm

c)

One P wave before every QRS

d)

PR interval not measurable

e)

QRS duration within normal limits

22.

Which statement best describes sinus tachycardia?

a)

It originates from an ectopic ventricular focus

b)

It is usually a primary cardiac problem

c)

It is often a response to an underlying condition

d)

It always requires cardioversion

23.

Which conditions are common causes of sinus tachycardia? Select all that apply.

a)

Fever

b)

Pain

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Complete heart block

e)

Anxiety

24.

A patient has sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 118 bpm. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Prepare for synchronized cardioversion

b)

Administer adenosine immediately

c)

Assess for underlying causes such as pain or fever

d)

Begin CPR

25.

Which ECG feature helps differentiate sinus tachycardia from SVT?

a)

Wide QRS complexes

b)

Presence of visible P waves before each QRS

c)

Heart rate greater than 100 bpm

d)

ST segment elevation

26.

A nurse notes a regular rhythm at 160 bpm with no visible P waves. Which rhythm is most likely?

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

27.

Which heart rate range is most consistent with sinus tachycardia?

a)

60–100 bpm

b)

101–180 bpm

c)

150–250 bpm

d)

Greater than 250 bpm

28.

Which statement about treatment of sinus tachycardia is correct?

a)

Cardioversion is always the first-line treatment

b)

Treatment focuses on correcting the underlying cause

c)

Defibrillation is required

d)

Pacemaker insertion is indicated

29.

Which medications may be used to manage sinus tachycardia when clinically indicated? Select all that apply.

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Adenosine

d)

Atropine

e)

Epinephrine

30.

Why may adenosine be given to a patient initially thought to have sinus tachycardia?

a)

To permanently slow the heart rate

b)

To terminate ventricular tachycardia

c)

To help differentiate sinus tachycardia from SVT

d)

To increase cardiac output

31.

Which patient with sinus tachycardia would require the most urgent intervention?

a)

HR 110 bpm after walking

b)

HR 120 bpm with fever

c)

HR 140 bpm with hypotension and altered mental status

d)

HR 105 bpm with anxiety

32.

Which assessment findings suggest decreased cardiac output related to sinus tachycardia? Select all that apply.

a)

Dizziness

b)

Hypotension

c)

Fatigue

d)

Bounding peripheral pulses

e)

Warm, flushed skin

33.

A patient with sinus tachycardia is hemodynamically unstable. Which intervention may be required?

a)

Vagal maneuvers

b)

Synchronized cardioversion

c)

Observation only

d)

Oral beta blocker

34.

Why is synchronized cardioversion preferred over defibrillation in unstable sinus tachycardia?

a)

It delivers a higher energy shock

b)

It avoids delivering the shock on the R wave

c)

It delivers the shock synchronized with the R wave

d)

It is used only for ventricular rhythms

35.

Which statement about sinus tachycardia and myocardial oxygen demand is accurate?

a)

Sinus tachycardia decreases oxygen demand

b)

It has no effect on oxygen consumption

c)

It increases myocardial oxygen demand

d)

It improves coronary perfusion

36.

A patient with anemia develops sinus tachycardia. What is the best explanation?

a)

The SA node is damaged

b)

The heart is compensating for reduced oxygen-carrying capacity

c)

Ventricular ectopy is present

d)

The AV node is pacing the heart

37.

Which finding supports that a rhythm is sinus tachycardia and not atrial fibrillation?

a)

Irregularly irregular rhythm

b)

Absence of P waves

c)

Regular R-to-R intervals

d)

Ventricular rate greater than 140 bpm

38.

Which patient teaching is most appropriate for a patient prone to sinus tachycardia?

a)

Avoid all physical activity

b)

Monitor for triggers such as caffeine and stress

c)

Prepare for pacemaker insertion

d)

Expect lifelong anticoagulation

39.

A nurse compares today’s ECG to one from three days ago. Why is this comparison important?

a)

Sinus tachycardia never changes

b)

ECG trends help identify acute changes or deterioration

c)

Older ECGs are more accurate

d)

Only ST elevation can be identified this way

40.

Which statement best summarizes sinus tachycardia?

a)

A lethal dysrhythmia requiring immediate defibrillation

b)

A rhythm that always originates below the AV node

c)

A compensatory response that signals an underlying problem

d)

A rhythm that requires permanent pacing

41.

Which ECG findings are characteristic of SVT? Select all that apply.

a)

Heart rate 160 bpm

b)

Regular R-to-R intervals

c)

P waves clearly visible before each QRS

d)

Narrow QRS complexes

e)

Abrupt onset and termination

42.

SVT most commonly occurs due to which mechanism?

a)

Failure of the SA node to fire

b)

Re-entry circuit involving the AV node

c)

Multiple ectopic atrial sites firing chaotically

d)

Ventricular ectopic focus

43.

Which heart rate range is most consistent with SVT?

a)

60–100 bpm

b)

101–180 bpm

c)

150–250 bpm

d)

Greater than 300 bpm

44.

Which feature best differentiates SVT from sinus tachycardia?

a)

Heart rate above 150 bpm

b)

Presence of chest pain

c)

Abrupt onset and termination

d)

Regular rhythm

45.

Which clinical situations are associated with SVT? Select all that apply.

a)

Emotional stress

b)

Caffeine or tobacco use

c)

Deep inspiration

d)

Complete heart block

e)

Digitalis toxicity

46.

A patient presents with palpitations and dizziness. ECG shows HR 170 bpm, regular rhythm, narrow QRS, no visible P waves. Which rhythm is most likely?

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

SVT

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

47.

The nurse attempts vagal maneuvers for SVT. Which actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Valsalva maneuver

b)

Coughing

c)

Carotid sinus massage (with provider order)

d)

Ice pack to the face/neck

e)

Trendelenburg positioning

48.

Why are vagal maneuvers effective in treating SVT?

a)

They increase sympathetic stimulation

b)

They slow conduction through the AV node

c)

They terminate ventricular ectopy

d)

They suppress the SA node permanently

49.

A patient remains in SVT after vagal maneuvers. Which medication is first-line for a hemodynamically stable patient?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Digoxin

c)

Adenosine

d)

Epinephrine

50.

When administering adenosine, which nursing action is most important?

a)

Infuse slowly over 10 minutes

b)

Administer through a peripheral IV without flush

c)

Push rapidly followed by a rapid saline flush

d)

Place the patient supine for 30 minutes after

51.

Which patient statement should the nurse anticipate after adenosine administration?

a)

I feel no different.

b)

My heart feels like it stopped for a moment.

c)

I feel numbness in my legs.

d)

I feel chest tightness that lasts 30 minutes.

52.

Adenosine works by which mechanism?

a)

Blocking sodium channels

b)

Increasing myocardial contractility

c)

Temporarily blocking AV node conduction

d)

Suppressing ventricular automaticity

53.

Which condition is required before administering adenosine?

a)

Patient must be pulseless

b)

Patient must be hemodynamically stable

c)

Patient must have atrial fibrillation

d)

Patient must be hypotensive

54.

A patient with SVT becomes hypotensive and confused. What is the priority intervention?

a)

Repeat vagal maneuvers

b)

Administer adenosine

c)

Synchronized cardioversion

d)

Observation only

55.

Why is synchronized cardioversion used instead of defibrillation for unstable SVT?

a)

It delivers lower energy

b)

It avoids shocking during the T wave

c)

It works only on ventricular rhythms

d)

It eliminates the need for sedation

56.

Which rhythm characteristic supports SVT rather than atrial fibrillation?

a)

Irregular rhythm

b)

Absence of P waves

c)

Regular ventricular response

d)

Loss of atrial kick

57.

Which long-term treatment may be considered for recurrent SVT?

a)

Permanent pacemaker

b)

Anticoagulation therapy

c)

Catheter ablation

d)

MAZE procedure

58.

Which patient is at highest risk for developing SVT?

a)

Older adult with hypertension

b)

Young adult consuming excessive caffeine

c)

Patient with hypothermia

d)

Patient with complete heart block

59.

Which symptom is most commonly reported during SVT episodes?

a)

Sudden chest trauma

b)

Lightheadedness or dizziness

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Bradycardia

60.

Which statement best summarizes SVT management?

a)

Always treat immediately with defibrillation

b)

Treat based on stability: vagal → adenosine → cardioversion

c)

Observation only is sufficient

d)

Pacemaker insertion is first-line therapy

61.

Which ECG findings are characteristic of atrial fibrillation? Select all that apply.

a)

Irregularly irregular rhythm

b)

Absence of identifiable P waves

c)

PR interval measurable

d)

Fibrillatory baseline

e)

Variable ventricular rate

62.

A patient's ECG shows AFib with a ventricular rate of 88 bpm. How should this rhythm be documented?

a)

AFib with RVR

b)

Controlled AFib

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Atrial flutter

63.

Which ventricular rate is considered AFib with rapid ventricular response (RVR)?

a)

78 bpm

b)

96 bpm

c)

112 bpm

d)

148 bpm

64.

Why is the PR interval not measurable in atrial fibrillation?

a)

AV node is blocked

b)

P waves are absent due to chaotic atrial activity

c)

Ventricles are pacing the heart

d)

QRS complexes are widened

65.

Which assessment finding is a classic clinical clue for atrial fibrillation?

a)

Equal apical and radial pulses

b)

Apical pulse faster than radial pulse

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Bounding peripheral pulses

66.

What is the primary hemodynamic consequence of atrial fibrillation?

a)

Increased preload

b)

Loss of atrial kick and decreased cardiac output

c)

Increased ventricular filling time

d)

Improved coronary perfusion

67.

Which conditions are commonly associated with the development of AFib? Select all that apply.

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart failure

c)

Coronary artery disease

d)

Hypothermia

e)

Post–cardiac surgery

68.

Why are patients with atrial fibrillation at high risk for stroke?

a)

Increased ventricular contraction

b)

Blood stasis in the atria leading to thrombus formation

c)

Increased platelet production

d)

Narrow QRS complexes

69.

Which nursing action is most important when caring for a patient newly diagnosed with AFib?

a)

Prepare for immediate pacemaker insertion

b)

Assess for signs of decreased cardiac output

c)

Assess need for anticoagulation therapy

d)

Restrict all activity

70.

Which medications are commonly used to control ventricular rate in AFib? Select all that apply.

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Digoxin

d)

Adenosine

e)

Epinephrine

71.

Which medication is used primarily to prevent stroke in atrial fibrillation?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Diltiazem

c)

Warfarin

d)

Adenosine

72.

A patient with AFib asks why anticoagulation is needed. Which explanation is best?

a)

It lowers your heart rate.

b)

It prevents clot formation that can cause a stroke.

c)

It converts the rhythm back to normal.

d)

It strengthens heart contractions.

73.

Which patient with AFib is the best candidate for synchronized cardioversion?

a)

AFib for unknown duration without anticoagulation

b)

AFib with controlled rate and no symptoms

c)

New-onset AFib with hemodynamic instability

d)

Chronic AFib on long-term anticoagulation

74.

Why is cardioversion often delayed in atrial fibrillation?

a)

Risk of ventricular fibrillation

b)

Risk of thrombus dislodgement and stroke

c)

Cardioversion is ineffective in AFib

d)

Sedation is contraindicated

75.

Which AFib classification describes episodes that start and stop spontaneously, usually lasting less than 7 days?

a)

Persistent

b)

Permanent

c)

Paroxysmal

d)

Chronic

76.

Which statement is true regarding permanent atrial fibrillation?

a)

Cardioversion is always effective

b)

Rhythm control strategies are no longer attempted

c)

Anticoagulation is unnecessary

d)

Pacemaker insertion is mandatory

77.

Which procedure creates scar tissue in the atria to block abnormal electrical pathways?

a)

Pacemaker insertion

b)

Catheter ablation

c)

Defibrillation

d)

PCI

78.

Why may atrial flutter respond better to cardioversion than atrial fibrillation?

a)

Flutter has chaotic atrial activity

b)

Flutter has a more organized re-entry circuit

c)

Flutter occurs in the ventricles

d)

Flutter has lower stroke risk

79.

Which ECG pattern is most consistent with atrial flutter rather than AFib?

a)

Irregular baseline

b)

Sawtooth atrial waves

c)

Absent atrial activity

d)

Random ventricular response

80.

Which statement best summarizes atrial fibrillation priorities?

a)

Rhythm conversion is always the first goal

b)

Stroke prevention and rate control are key priorities

c)

Defibrillation is first-line therapy

d)

Pacemaker insertion is curative

81.

Which ECG findings are characteristic of atrial flutter? Select all that apply.

a)

Atrial rate 200–350 bpm

b)

Sawtooth flutter waves

c)

Irregularly irregular rhythm

d)

Ventricular rate depends on conduction ratio

e)

Organized atrial activity

82.

Compared to atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter has which characteristic?

a)

More chaotic atrial activity

b)

More organized re-entry rhythm

c)

Always slower ventricular response

d)

No risk of stroke

83.

Which rhythm feature helps distinguish atrial flutter from AFib?

a)

Absence of P waves

b)

Irregular ventricular rhythm

c)

Sawtooth pattern on ECG

d)

Narrow QRS complexes

84.

Why does atrial flutter often respond better to cardioversion than AFib?

a)

Flutter originates in the ventricles

b)

Flutter has a single organized circuit

c)

Flutter has no thrombus risk

d)

Flutter causes less atrial contraction

85.

Which ventricular rates may be seen in atrial flutter?

a)

Always below 100 bpm

b)

Fixed at 150 bpm

c)

Variable based on AV conduction ratio

d)

Always irregular

86.

Which complication is atrial flutter patients at risk for?

a)

Ventricular standstill

b)

Stroke

c)

Asystole only

d)

Complete heart block

87.

Which treatment goals are appropriate for atrial flutter? Select all that apply.

a)

Rate control

b)

Rhythm conversion

c)

Stroke prevention

d)

Permanent pacing

e)

Defibrillation as first-line

88.

Which medication classes are used for rate control in atrial flutter? Select all that apply.

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Digoxin

d)

Adenosine

e)

Epinephrine

89.

A patient with atrial flutter becomes hypotensive and confused. What is the priority intervention?

a)

Vagal maneuvers

b)

Adenosine

c)

Synchronized cardioversion

d)

Observation

90.

Which statement best summarizes atrial flutter?

a)

Always benign

b)

No organized atrial activity

c)

Regular atrial rhythm with sawtooth waves

d)

No risk for thrombus

91.

Which ECG findings are characteristic of PVCs? Select all that apply.

a)

Premature beat

b)

Wide QRS complex (>0.12 sec)

c)

T wave opposite direction of QRS

d)

P wave before every QRS

e)

Compensatory pause

92.

PVCs originate from which location?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Atrial ectopic focus

d)

Ventricular ectopic focus

93.

Which statement about PVCs is accurate?

a)

They occur only in diseased hearts

b)

They are the most common dysrhythmia

c)

They always require treatment

d)

They are always life-threatening

94.

Which factors can trigger PVCs? Select all that apply.

a)

Stress

b)

Caffeine

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Electrolyte imbalance

e)

Complete heart block

95.

Why may a patient not feel a pulse with every PVC?

a)

PVCs always cause ventricular fibrillation

b)

Ventricles contract too early for adequate filling

c)

Atria stop contracting

d)

SA node is suppressed

96.

Which PVC pattern is most concerning?

a)

Occasional isolated PVCs

b)

PVCs at rest only

c)

Runs of PVCs (>3 in a row)

d)

PVCs that disappear with activity

97.

A nurse giving report is asked about PVC frequency. Why is this important?

a)

PVCs indicate atrial fibrillation

b)

Increasing PVCs may precede VT or VF

c)

PVCs are normal and not documented

d)

PVCs require immediate pacing

98.

Which underlying condition increases the risk of PVCs becoming dangerous?

a)

Hypertension alone

b)

Decreased ejection fraction

c)

Young age

d)

Athletic conditioning

99.

What is the priority nursing action when frequent PVCs are observed?

a)

Immediate cardioversion

b)

Assess oxygenation and electrolytes

c)

Administer adenosine

d)

Begin CPR

100.

Which statement best summarizes PVC management?

a)

Treat all PVCs aggressively

b)

Ignore PVCs entirely

c)

Treat the underlying cause and monitor rhythm

d)

Insert a pacemaker immediately