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WorksheetsRevision Y8
Total questions: 156
Worksheet time: 5hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What organic compound are enzymes?
a)
Carbs
b)
Proteins
c)
Lipids
d)
Nucleic acids
2.
What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
3.
An enzyme acts as a catalyst to a chemical reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy needed to get the reaction started.
b)
making one of the substrates needed for the reaction.
c)
regulating the temperature at which the reaction takes place.
d)
regulating the pH at which the reaction takes place.
4.
The graph shows the effect of temperature on enzyme action. What characteristic do enzymes E1, E2, and E3 share?
a)
Their activity increases between 20°C and 30°C.
b)
Their activity is greatest between 5°C and 10°C.
c)
Their activity is at a low level between 15°C and 25°C.
d)
Their activity is at a high level between 30°C and 40°C.
5.
What is broken down by the enzyme Amylase?
a)
Sugar
b)
Starch
c)
Oils
d)
Meat
6.
What is the optimum pH of pepsin (found in the stomach gastric juice of humans)
a)
5
b)
2
c)
7
d)
9
7.
Why does the reaction rate reaches plateau in the experiment conducted to test the affects of increasing concentration of enzyme?
a)
time
b)
limited by substrate
c)
enzymes are denatured
d)
enzymes are inactive
8.
What is the dependant variable in testing the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?
a)
enzyme
b)
rate of reaction
c)
temperature
d)
time
9.
If you are testing for the effect of enzyme concentration on rate of reaction, what IS NOT a control variable?
a)
type of enzyme
b)
enzyme concentration
c)
concentration of substrate
d)
Type of substrate
10.
You did the experiment to test for catalase using the potato strip and hydrogen peroxide. You noticed that if you replace the Hydrogen peroxide after the first reaction, Bubbles can be seeb again! Why?
a)
enzymes are used up
b)
enzymes are occupied
c)
enzymes can be reused
d)
enzymes are denatured
11.
which one of the following is NOT the property of enzymes?
a)
enzyme actions are specific
b)
enzymes can be reused
c)
enzymes are affected by pH
d)
Optimum temperature of all enzymes is 37
12.
the pH at which an enzyme is most efficient is called the _________ pH of an enzyme
a)
neutral
b)
optimum
c)
minimum
d)
experimental
13.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
14.
What makes an enzyme substrate specific?
a)
Size
b)
Shape
c)
Name
d)
Location it is found in
15.
How does an enzyme's activity change with increasing concentration of substrate?
a)
decreases
b)
stays the same
c)
no change
d)
increases
16.
Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly. What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
they die
b)
they denature
c)
they change their amino acid sequence
d)
they work better
17.
The part of the enzyme that the substrate bonds to is called the _____.
a)
active site
b)
activation energy
c)
bond site
d)
peptide bond
18.
Which of these do NOT affect enzyme activity?
a)
Temperature
b)
pH
c)
Competitive Inhibitors
d)
Carbohydrates
19.
Which of these is NOT true.
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction.
c)
Enzymes can denature when the pH changes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
20.
Which is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions
b)
Enzymes react best at a specific temperature
c)
Enzymes only control ONE type of reaction
d)
Enzymes are made of lipids
21.
What is the name for the mechanism of enzyme activity?
a)
Lock and key
b)
jigsaw puzzle
c)
hammer and nail
d)
two hands pattern
22.
How do enzymes work?
a)
Slow down chemical reactions
b)
Prevent chemical reactions from working
c)
increase the activation energy
d)
speed up the chemical reaction
23.
What are the enzymes called when they are at low temperature?
a)
denatured
b)
Killed
c)
inactive
d)
normal
24.
Babies do not have well developed system to digest proteins, hence the baby food is prepared after treatement with which enzyme?
a)
protease
b)
lipase
c)
carbohydrase
d)
synthase
25.
Isomerase is special kind of enzyme which converts?
a)
glucose-> sucrose
b)
fructose-> glucose
c)
glucose -> Fructose
d)
Sucrose -> Fructose
26.
As the temperature increases, enzyme's rate of reaction increases why?
a)
increased no. of enzymes
b)
substrates are active
c)
higher kinetic energy so higher collisions
d)
enzymes are occupied
27.
What is the substrate for the enzyme catalase?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Water
c)
Oxygen
d)
Hydrogen Peroxide
28.
During the reaction between catalase and hydrogen peroxide, the rate of reaction is noted after counting the gas of bubbles, What are the properties of this gas?
a)
it relights glowing splint
b)
turns lime water milky
c)
pop sound
d)
changes color of carbonate indicator
29.
In the experiment conducted to check the affect of substrate concentration on rate of reaction. What is the independant variable?
a)
Time
b)
Reaction Rate
c)
concentration of substrate
d)
concentration of enzyme
30.
Can a mixture be separated?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Only sometimes
31.
A change that occurs without changing the chemical makeup is a
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Color change
c)
Physical Change
d)
Substance Change
32.
A solution that contains a large amount of solute is best described as
a)
unsaturated
b)
concentrated
c)
dilute
d)
weak
33.
Which of these mixture types would have visible particles that could settle to the bottom of the mixture?
a)
suspension
b)
solution
c)
colloid
d)
sassafrass
34.
An element can be broken down into simpler substances by...
a)
physical means
b)
chemical means
c)
Both chemical and physical means
d)
elements can't be broken down
35.
Which of these is NOT a pure substance?
a)
elements
b)
compounds
c)
mixtures
d)
they are all pure substances
36.
A homogeneous mixture has the same composition of particles throughout.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
An example of a homogeneous mixture would be:
a)
salad
b)
perfume
c)
pizza
d)
chex mix
38.
Air is a mixture of
a)
liquids
b)
gas
c)
solids
d)
liquids and gases
39.
In the distillation apparatus shown, what are the parts labelled A and B?
a)
A = funnel, B = thermometer
b)
A = thermometer, B = funnel
c)
A = Liebig condenser, B = flask
d)
A = Liebig condenser, B = thermometer
40.
Which one of the following is NOT an example of a separation technique?
a)
boiling an egg
b)
fishing net
c)
surgical mask
d)
tea strainer
41.
Which technique is shown the diagram below
a)
seiving
b)
filtration
c)
decanting
d)
crystallization
42.
Which one of the following solids is immiscible in water?
a)
salt
b)
sugar
c)
sand
d)
copper sulfate
43.
Sand and gravel may be separated from each other through using
a)
a filter funnel
b)
leibig condenser
c)
an evaporating basin
d)
sieve
44.
Which one of the following would you use to separate sand from iron filings?
a)
a bar magnet
b)
filter paper
c)
distillation apparatus
d)
chromatography paper
45.
Dyes in water soluble markers may be separated by means of
a)
Distillation
b)
Liquid-Liquid Extraction
c)
Chromatography
d)
Centrifuge
46.
Which one of the following methods would NOT be used to separate an insoluble solid and a liquid?
a)
evaporation
b)
decanting
c)
distillation
d)
chromatography
47.
The separation technique that involves heating a solution until the liquid changes into a gaseous state, leaving behind a solid is known as
a)
evaporation
b)
crystallization
c)
centrifuge
d)
chromatography
48.
In the process of evaporation, which one of the following pieces of laboratory apparatus would NOT be used?
a)
evaporating basin
b)
filter funnel
c)
bunsen burner
d)
Wire gauze
49.
The diagram shows the apparatus for separating soil and water. What are the labelled parts?
a)
A = distillate, B = filtrate
b)
A = filtrate, B = residue
c)
A = residue, B = filtrate
d)
A = residue, B = distillate
50.
Water and alcohol are easily separated by distillation because of their
a)
different densities
b)
different boiling points
c)
different colours
d)
different melting points
51.
Which one of the following is the name for separation technique in the picture below
a)
distillation
b)
seiving
c)
evaporation
d)
decanting
52.
Which one of the following techniques would best be used to separate soil and water?
a)
distillation
b)
decanting
c)
filtration
d)
evaporation
53.
Name the separation technique shown in the diagram
a)
evaporation
b)
crystallization
c)
distillati
d)
seiving
54.
Oil and water may be separated by using
a)
leibig condenser
b)
separating funnel
c)
centrifuge
d)
distillation
55.
Which one of the following is a disadvantage of evaporation?
a)
It always requires heat
b)
It cannot be used for insoluble solids
c)
All of the solute is recovered
d)
The solvent is not recovered
56.
According to the Law of reflection, a light ray striking a mirrow
a)
continues moving through the mirror in the same direction
b)
moves into the mirror at a slightly different angle
c)
bounces off the mirror toward the direction it came from
d)
bounces off the mirror a the same angle it hits.
57.
Smooth surfaces _______ a lot of light.
a)
reflect
b)
bend
c)
absorb
d)
twist
58.
How does light travel?
a)
in a wavy path
b)
in a straight path
c)
in a zig zag path
59.
What does transparent mean?
a)
some light is able to pass through
b)
no light is able to pass through
c)
all light is able to pass through
60.
The velocity of light in vacuum is _______ m/s
a)
3x108
b)
3x1012
c)
3x106
d)
3x1010
61.
We can see objects because of_______
a)
reflection
b)
refraction
c)
transmission
d)
diffraction
62.
How does light behave as it enters these mediums?
a)
continue its path as straight line.
b)
bends toward the normal
c)
bends away from the normal
d)
reflects
63.
Absolute refractive index of any medium is always _______.
a)
less than 1
b)
greater than 1
c)
1
d)
0
64.
The formula to calculate the refractive index is
a)
n=cv
b)
n=v/c
c)
n=c/v
d)
v=nc
65.
What is this called?
a)
refraction
b)
reflection
c)
reconstroction
d)
retraction
66.
A ray of light traveling from air into crown glass strikes the surface at an angle of 30 degrees. What is the angle of refraction? (air n=1, crown glass n=1.532)
a)
39.7 degrees
b)
19.2 degrees
c)
59.1 degrees
d)
12.3 degrees
67.
Glass has a _____________ index of refraction than air.
a)
Equal
b)
Greater
c)
Less
d)
Impossible to say
68.
The fact the two angles are the same is an example of....
a)
Refraction
b)
Angle of Incidence
c)
Law of reflection
d)
Magnification
69.
Light travels through a liquid at 2.25 EE 8 m/s. What is the index of the liquid?
a)
1.33
b)
1.0
c)
1.523
d)
2.45
70.
What is the index of refraction of a refractive liquid if the angle of incidence in the air is 35 degrees and the angle of refraction is 14 degrees?
a)
1.33
b)
2.21
c)
2.37
d)
1.72
71.
If the angle of incidence of light traveling through air, and then striking water is 30 degrees what is the angle of refraction? (n=1 air, n=1.33 water)
a)
15 degrees
b)
22 degrees
c)
43 degrees
d)
17 degrees
72.
Light has the lowest velocity in which medium?
flint glass n=1.70
barium glass n=1.60
crown glass n=1.523
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
flint glass n=1.70
barium glass n=1.60
crown glass n=1.523
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
a)
diamond
b)
water
c)
flint glass
d)
barium glass
73.
What is this image showing?
a)
Reflection
b)
Refraction
c)
The law of reflection
d)
Concave Mirror
74.
The image formed in a flat mirror is
a)
larger than the object and farther away.
b)
reduced and closer to the mirror.
c)
a real image of the object.
d)
equal to the height and distance of the object.
75.
According to Willebord Snell, light passing from air to glass will cause the light to
a)
maintain its original speed
b)
accelerate while it is in glass
c)
increase its speed
d)
reduce its speed
76.
Light has the highest velocity in which medium?
flint glass n=1.70
barium glass n=1.60
crown glass n=1.523
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
flint glass n=1.70
barium glass n=1.60
crown glass n=1.523
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
a)
diamond
b)
water
c)
flint glass
d)
barium glass
77.
Having two of the same genes for the trait (TT, tt); Both dominant or both recessive.
a)
homozygous or purebred
b)
heterozygous or hybrid
c)
twin offspring
d)
pairs of chromosomes
78.
What characteristic would a child NOT inherit from parents?
a)
freckles
b)
eye color
c)
hair style
d)
dimples
79.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
80.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
81.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
82.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
83.
B=brown eyes
b= blue eyes
What is true about these two brothers that have brown eyes:
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
b= blue eyes
What is true about these two brothers that have brown eyes:
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
a)
they have same phenotype and genotype
b)
they have different genotypes and phenotypes
c)
they have same phenotype but different genotypes
d)
they have same genotype but different phenotypes
84.
A dog gives birth to 5 puppies. What percentage of the chromosomes does each puppy share with the mother?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
85.
Evan is a tall, 12 year old boy. He has a scar on his right cheek. He is intelligent and an excellent drummer. Which of his traits did he most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
his intelligence
d)
ability to play drums
86.
Where is DNA in a eukaryotic cell?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Nucleus
d)
Vacuole
87.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
not present in plants
c)
found in non-living things
d)
DNA is an element on the periodic table
88.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both
89.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
90.
T = tall an t = short
TT and Tt would result in the following phenotype
TT and Tt would result in the following phenotype
a)
short
b)
tall
c)
medium sized
d)
neither tall or short
91.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
92.
What gender has an X and a Y chromosome?
a)
male
b)
female
c)
transgender
d)
all of the above
93.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
94.
If one stronger trait "covers" up another weaker trait, the trait that covers the other is said to be:
a)
Dominant
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Recessive
d)
Hidden
95.
The purpose of selective breeding is to
a)
Get bigger animals
b)
get smaller animals
c)
create animals with desirable traits
d)
create animals with bad traits
96.
Some traits are inherited, some traits are acquired.
Language is an
Language is an
a)
inherited trait
b)
acquired trait
97.
Some traits are inherited, some traits are acquired.
tongue rolling is
tongue rolling is
a)
inherited trait
b)
acquired trait
98.
The image you see is a mammoth. Which trait most suggests that the mammoth was adapted to live in a cold climate?
a)
its thick, furry coat
b)
its long, flexible trunk
c)
its sharp, curved tusks
d)
its broad, powerful body
99.
How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
100.
How many alleles (letters) does a child get from each parent for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
101.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
102.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
103.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the trait of tallness?
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
104.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
105.
In a flowering plant species, red flower color (R) is dominant over white flower color (r). What is the genotype of any red-flowering plant resulting from this species?
a)
rr
b)
R
c)
RR
d)
RR or Rr
106.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
107.
W=white hair
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
a)
none
b)
3/4
c)
1/2
d)
all
108.
Which of these grouping of elements could have the characteristic of luster (shiny)?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
metalloids
d)
Both metals and metalloids
109.
Which of the following is a good conductor of heat?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
110.
Metalliods are atoms that combine properties of both metals and non-metals. Which characteristics are included with metalloids?
a)
Shiny, brittle, insulator, and conductor.
b)
Dull, malleable, and conductor.
c)
Conductor, dull, and brittle.
d)
Colorless, clear at room temperature, not visible.
111.
The metals of Group 1 are commonly called the
a)
Transition metals
b)
Alkaline earth metals
c)
Lanthanides
d)
Alkali Metals
112.
One metal that is liquid at room temperature is
a)
Magnesium
b)
Manganese
c)
Mercury
d)
Sodium
113.
The family in the periodic table that contains the most reactive metals is the_______
a)
Alkaline Earth Metals
b)
Transition Metals
c)
Alkali Metals
d)
Other Metals
114.
Reactivity is a(n) ________property of Metal
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
115.
Which is not a Alkali Metal?
a)
Lithium
b)
Sodium
c)
Gold
d)
Potassium
116.
zinc + hydrochloric acid ---->
a)
zinc chloride
b)
zinc chloride + hydrogen
c)
zinc chloride + oxygen
d)
zinc chlorine + hydrogen
117.
Metals...
a)
all have similar physical properties
b)
some have similar physical properties
c)
don't similar physica properties
d)
very few have similar physical properties
118.
Magnesium + hydrochloric acid...
a)
magnesium chloride + hydrogen
b)
magnesium + hydrogen
c)
magnesium chloride + oxygen
d)
magnesium chloride
119.
a metal + oxygen ----- >
a)
metal salt + hydrogen
b)
metal salt + oxygen
c)
metal oxide + oxygen
d)
metal oxide
120.
does gold react with acids ?
a)
yes
b)
no
c)
sometimes
d)
just with hydrochloric acid
121.
Which of the following is NOT a clue that a chemical change has occurred?
a)
change in color
b)
production of gas
c)
formation of a precipitate
d)
change in shape
122.
Is flammability a physical or chemical property?
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
123.
The deterioration of a metal due to a chemical reaction in the environment is called this
a)
Reactivity
b)
Corrosion
c)
Luster
d)
Malleable
124.
copper + oxygen --- >
a)
copper oxide + oxygen
b)
copper oxide + hydrogen
c)
oxygen
d)
copper oxide
125.
The test for hydrogen is...
a)
a change of colour
b)
a nice smell
c)
a squeaky pop
d)
it is impossible to test hydrogen
126.
Magnesium...
a)
doesn't react vigorously with acid
b)
reacts slightly with acid
c)
reacts vigorously with acid
d)
gives a squeaky pop when reacts with acid
127.
Force
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
Where an object is located in space.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
128.
Gravity
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
The force that causes objects with mass to attract one another.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
129.
Which of these is NOT an example of a bicycle using mechanical energy?
a)
The pedals, gears, and chain turn the wheels.
b)
The wheels turn when the bicycle moves.
c)
The front wheel guides the bicycle when it moves.
d)
The reflector allows the bicycle to be seen at night.
130.
Friction
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
The force that causes objects with mass to attract one another.
d)
A force that resists the motion of two surfaces sliding across one another.
131.
Juan is in the gym and rolls a basketball down the court. He notices that starts off fast but it slows down after a few seconds. What is causing it to slow down?
a)
motion
b)
mass
c)
motion
d)
friction
132.
Jessica's favorite season is fall. She enjoys this season cause the temperatures are much cooler and the leaves start to turn a different color and fall to the ground. What causes the leaves to fall to the ground?
a)
motion
b)
mass
c)
gravity
d)
friction
133.
_____________ is a force that pulls magnetic objects.
a)
glue
b)
balance
c)
magnetism
d)
particles
134.
__________ is the tendency of an object to resist a change in motion.
a)
inertia
b)
balance
c)
magnetism
d)
particles
135.
What is SI units for force ?
a)
Grams g()
b)
Hectogram (Hg)
c)
Newtons (N)
d)
Meters (m)
136.
__________ is the sum of all forces acting on an object. It is capable of accelerating a mass.
a)
velocity
b)
gravity
c)
net force
d)
distance
137.
How to calculate Net Force?
a)
The difference of the smaller force and the larger force.
b)
Larger force divided by Smaller Force
c)
Larger force time Smaller Force
d)
I Have No Idea
138.
In a tug of war, when one team is pulling with a force of 100 N and the other at 80 N. What is the net force?
a)
20 N
b)
80 N
c)
100 N
d)
180 N
139.
If an object is stationary (not moving) the forces acting upon it are _____________
a)
unbalanced
b)
weak
c)
balanced
d)
Hulk Smash!
140.
If two forces act on an object in the same direction, the net force is the _____________
a)
the difference between the two forces
b)
the sum of the two forces
c)
Only one of the forces acts on the object
d)
DOOMSDAY!
141.
What is the attractive force that exists between all objects that have mass?
a)
Weight
b)
Mass
c)
Gravity
d)
Viscosity
142.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
143.
What is the net force?
a)
5000 N right
b)
4000 N right
c)
40 N left
d)
4000 N left
144.
What famous scientist was the SI units of Force named after?
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Galileo Galilei
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Charles Darwin
145.
You and your dad are moving the couch from one side to another. Your dad pushes with a force of 35 N to the right and you push with a force of 25 N right. What is the net force on the couch?
a)
60 N right
b)
10 N left
c)
60 n right
d)
50 N left
146.
You and your friend, are playing tug of war. Your friend pulls with a force of 55 N, to the rights. You pull with a force of 65 N, to the left. What is the net force on the rope?
a)
10 n, to the left
b)
20 N
c)
10 N, to the left
d)
10 N, to the right
147.
Which force combinations would make sense for the picture?
a)
Child:20N up Adult:20N down
b)
Child:30N down Adult:55N down
c)
Child:30N up Adult: 70N down
d)
Adult:10N up Child:30N up
148.
What is the tool used to measure the amount of force?
a)
Meter Stick
b)
Spring Scale
c)
Balance Scale
d)
Hand Lens
149.
Calculate the net force.
The airplane is moving with a force of 800 N to the right. However, the strong wind currents are moving with a force of 123 N towards the left. What is the net force.
The airplane is moving with a force of 800 N to the right. However, the strong wind currents are moving with a force of 123 N towards the left. What is the net force.
a)
627 N
b)
667 N
c)
687 N
d)
677 N
150.
What is the net force?
100 N 230 N
<------ --------->
100 N 230 N
<------ --------->
a)
30 N to the right
b)
230 N to the right
c)
130 N to the right
d)
This is a balanced force
151.
Why are new tires on a car better than older, worn tires?
a)
New tires have less mass than older tires.
b)
New tires are less affected by gravity than older tires.
c)
New tires allow the car to travel faster than older tires.
d)
New tires provide more friction on the road than older tires.
152.
What is the net force on the block? (click on the words to view the picture)
a)
5 Newtons up
b)
5 Newtons down
c)
15 Newtons up
d)
15 Newtons down
153.
Which example shows NO acceleration?
a)
going straight at a constant speed
b)
going straight while slowing down
c)
speeding up
d)
circling at at constant speed
154.
During which interval is the object slowing down?
a)
A to B
b)
D to E
c)
E to F
d)
G to H
155.
On which surface would friction be the greatest?
a)
carpet
b)
ice
c)
snow
d)
satin
156.
This force holds us to earth’s surface.
a)
friction
b)
mass
c)
gravity
d)
tension
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