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Fall 25 Final review

Total questions: 154

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All matter is made of what?

a)

energy

b)

atoms

c)

electrons

2.

The positive particles of an atom are ___________.

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

3.

The center of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is called the _____________.

a)

nucleus

b)

electron cloud

c)

center

4.

An atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

3

5.

Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

6.

A particle that moves around the nucleus is called an _________.

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Quark

7.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
8.
What are the 3 particles that make-up the atom?
a)
protons, neutrons, and isotopes
b)
neutrons, isotopes, and electrons
c)
positives, negatives, and electrons
d)
protons, neutrons, and electrons
9.

Different isotopes have...

a)

different masses

b)

different protons

c)

different electrons

10.

Isotopes are atoms that have the same number of protons but a different number of _____________.

a)

neutrons

b)

electrons

c)

atoms

11.

During a reaction, atoms are

a)

created

b)

destroyed

c)

neither created or destroyed - just rearranged

12.

How many total atoms are in this compound? Al2O3

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

3

13.

the starting materials in a chemical reaction are called what?

a)

Products

b)

Reactants

c)

Starters

d)

Enders

14.

a substance that is formed as the result of a chemical reaction is called

a)

Product

b)

Reactant

c)

Starters

d)

Enders

15.

A chemical reaction is when...

a)

Atoms and molecules are destroyed

b)

Atoms and molecules are created

c)

Atoms and molecules break apart and regroup to form new products

d)

Atoms and molecules go on vacation and relax a little

16.
What are the basic building blocks for all matter?
a)
atoms
b)
elements
c)
compounds
d)
chemicals
17.
What is a molecule?
a)
Two or more atoms bonded together
b)
One element
c)
One atom
d)
Solid, Liquid, Gas
18.

Hydrogen bonding occurs because of the ____ between the positive hydrogen and the negative oxygen

a)

attraction

b)

repulsion

19.

The attraction between water molecules is ___.

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

20.

The reason water sticks to your skin is ___.

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

21.

The reason water beads up on a freshly waxed car is due to ___.

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

22.

An ion is a ____.

a)

charged particle

b)

charged molecule

c)

nonpolar particle

d)

nonpolar molecule

23.

A high specific heat means water ____. (select all that are true)

a)

takes a long time to change temperature.

b)

takes a lot of heat to increase temperature.

c)

holds a lot of heat.

d)

is good at regulating Earth's temperature.

24.

Because solid water is less dense than liquid water, ___ floats.

a)

solid water

b)

liquid water

25.
monomer of nucleic acids
a)
nucleotide
b)
monosaccharides
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
26.
monomer of proteins
a)
nucleotide
b)
monosaccharides
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
27.
monomer of carbohydrates
a)
nucleotide
b)
monosaccharides
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
28.
monomer of lipids
a)
nucleotide
b)
monosaccharides
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
29.
function includes transmitting and storing information 
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
30.
function includes instant energy
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
31.
The diagram shows the general structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
32.
Fats, oils and cholesterol are all types of what?
a)
cell membranes
b)
hormones
hormones
c)
lipids
d)
fatty acids
33.
RNA and DNA are which type of macromolecules?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
nucleic acid
d)
protein
34.
Many plants have waxy coatings on some surfaces. This coating reduces water loss because it is not water-permeable. This waxy coating is which of the following types of organic molecule?
a)
protein
b)
carbohydrate
c)
nucleic acid
d)
 lipid
35.
The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements? 
a)
Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.
b)
The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.
c)
The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action. 
d)
There is no connection between the two statements. 
36.

All energy in an ecosystem comes from the sun. This energy is passed through the ecosystem as organisms eat other organsims.

a)

Ominvores

b)

Herbivores

c)

Detritivores

d)

Flow of energy

37.

Animal that gets its energy and nutrition from eating plants.

a)

Parasite

b)

Herbivore

c)

Carnivore

d)

Ominvore

38.

Organisms that produce their own food mostly through photosynthesis (producers). Examples are plants and algae.

a)

Ominvore

b)

Detritivore

c)

Heterotroph

d)

Autotroph

39.

Organisms that get their energy and nutrition from other organisms (consumers).

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

c)

Decomposer

d)

Detritivore

40.

Heterotrophs that “clean up” the ecosystem by eating dead and decaying organisms.

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Herbivores

c)

Ominvores

d)

Detritivores

41.

The level in an Ecological pyramid that includes all the organisms that share the same place in a food chain.

a)

Trophic Levels

b)

Toxic Levels

c)

KeKe Levels

d)

Environmental Systems

42.

Autotrophs--The bottom trophic level where all organisms produce their own food, usually by photosynthesis.

a)

Trophic Levels

b)

Producers

c)

Ominvores

d)

Herbivores

43.

Only 10% of the energy is passed on from one trophic level to the next. 90% is lost as heat due to cellular respiration or waste.

a)

Tertiary Consumer

b)

Biotic Factor

c)

Abiotic Factor

d)

10% Rule

44.

Matter is passed up the ecological pyramid in a similar way to energy but recycled by decomposers and detritivores. This Biomass pyramid roughly follows the 10% rule as well.

a)

Flow of energy

b)

Flow of matter

c)

Ecological Hysteria

d)

Producers

45.

Complex trophic relationships in an ecological pyramid.

a)

Food Chain

b)

Food Web

c)

Abiotic Factor

d)

Biome

46.

Parts of an ecosystem that are living or deal with the living. Examples include producers, consumers, decomposers, predation, disease, competition, parasitism, and symbiosis.

a)

Abiotic Factors

b)

Biotic Factors

c)

Community

d)

Population

47.

Parts of an ecosystem that are not living. Examples: water, soil, sunlight, temperature, altitude.

a)

Detritivores

b)

Herbivores

c)

Biotic Factors

d)

Abiotic Factors

48.

The flow of nitrogen from the atmosphere to the soil, to plants, to animals and then back to the soil or back into the atmosphere.

a)

Nitrogen Cycle

b)

Carbon Cycle

c)

Trophic Cycle

d)

Abiotic Cycle

49.

The flow of carbon from the atmosphere to plants, to animals to the soil and back into the atmosphere.

a)

Bi-Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Carbon Cycle

d)

Abiotic Cycle

50.
When a specific population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Density Independent limiting factors start to occur resulting in the population going farther above carrying capacity.
b)
Density Dependent limiting factors start to occur resulting in the population going back below carrying capacity.
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
51.
What is the carrying capacity of the graph?
a)
around 500
b)
more than 500
c)
less than 500
d)
around 600
52.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
53.
The total number of individuals a habitat can survive with the resources it has available.
a)
Carrying capacity
b)
Limiting factors
c)
Resources
d)
Population
54.
Excessive amounts of rain caused a flood in the southwest United States that resulted in substantial amounts of deaths in the rabbit population? This situation is an example of a density _____________ limiting factor.
a)
density-independent
b)
density-dependent
c)
density- too high
d)
density- too low
55.
Limiting factors which impact the size of a population no matter how large that population is.
a)
Density Independent Limiting Factors
b)
Density Dependent Limiting Factors
c)
Carrying Capacity
d)
Exponential Growth
56.
An environmental factor such as storms and extreme heat or cold that decrease a population are considered to be. 
a)
density- dependent factor
b)
population density
c)
dispersion
d)
density- independent factor
57.

A lion and a cheetah attempt to occupy the same niche. The more aggressive lion survives; the cheetah does not.

a)

Density-Dependent: Competition

b)

Density-Independent: Competition

c)

Density-Dependent: Predator-Prey

d)

Density-Independent: Predator-Prey

58.

Coyotes cross the winter pack ice and enter Newfoundland. The moose population starts to decline.

a)

Density-Dependent: Competition

b)

Density-Independent: Competition

c)

Density-Dependent: Predator-Prey

d)

Density-Independent: Predator-Prey

59.

A severe frost wipes out 50% of the coffee crop in Brazil.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

60.

Due to severe overcrowding in an Asian village, many children do not survive to reach adulthood.

a)

Density-Dependent: Disease

b)

Density-Independent: Disease

61.

A severe flood in the Red River Valley causes a decline in the deer population.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

62.

Due to stress, large numbers of female lemmings miscarry their young and fail to reproduce.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

63.

Many fish die due to a change in the winds and the appearance of the El Nino ocean current off the coast of Peru and Chile.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

64.

Someone steps on some bugs and randomly removes their alleles from the population. This is an example of

a)

gene flow

b)

genetic drift

c)

speciation

d)

allele frequency

65.

There are 3 T alleles and 7 t alleles in a population. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

30%

b)

70%

c)

10%

d)

4%

66.

A drastic reduction in the size of a population that can change allele frequencies is called

a)

the bottleneck effect

b)

the founder effect

c)

the gene flow effect

d)

the Thanos effect

67.

Which is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

natural selection

b)

large populations

c)

no mutations

d)

no migration

e)

random mating

68.

The Amish have a higher frequency of polydactyly (extra fingers) in their community than the general population. This is due to the allele for extra fingers being present in the group that started the Amish community.

a)

The difference in allele frequency is due to genetic flow.

b)

The difference in allele frequency is due to the founder effect.

c)

The difference in allele frequency is due to a bottleneck.

d)

The difference in allele frequency is due to speciation.

69.

If a population of lizards is isolated on an island, with no new immigrants over many years, any new genetic variations are most likely to come from

a)

recessive alleles

b)

natural selection

c)

mutations

d)

speciation

70.

Which of the following is incorrect?

a)

TT - homozygous dominant

b)

Bb - heterozygous

c)

aa - homozygous recessive

d)

Nn - heterozygous recessive

71.

If all 5 Hardy-Weinberg assumptions are true, a population is said to be in genetic equilibrium. This means

a)

it is evolving

b)

it is not evolving

72.

The movement of alleles from one population to another is called

a)

genetic drift

b)

the bottleneck effect

c)

the founder effect

d)

gene flow

73.

Select ALL of the following that violate the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions and would lead to a change in allele frequencies in a population.

a)

natural selection

b)

large population

c)

no mutations

d)

nonrandom mating

e)

no migration

74.

Dog breeding is an example of

a)

natural selection

b)

genetic drift

c)

speciation

d)

artificial selection

75.

A population of flowers on one side of a river transports pollen to flowers on the other side of the river

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

76.

A forest fire ignites in the Sam Houston State Forest and kills many members of a population of pigmy rattlesnakes.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

77.

Genetic diversity is decreased through this process.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

78.

True or false: An ecosystem with high genetic diversity is healthier than an ecosystem with low genetic diversity.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Biodiversity, aka biological diversity, usually refers to

a)

the same species in a general location

b)

the number of different species in a given area

c)

the number of animal species in a given area

d)

the number of plant species in a given area

80.

Species that are clearly critical to the functioning of an ecosystem are known as

a)

biodiversity

b)

keystone species

c)

main species

d)

native species

81.

A species that is likely to become extinct if protective measures are not taken immediately is known as

a)

threatened species

b)

endemic species

c)

keystone species

d)

endangered species

82.

a species that is not native to a particular region and has no natural predators and little competition

a)

consumer species

b)

producer species

c)

invasive species

d)

adapted species

83.

Succession that occurs in areas that previously didn't support life, such as on rocks or ice

a)

tangential succession

b)

primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

quaternary succession

84.

A common type of succession that occurs where an event such as a forest fire has occurred, or a farmer's field has been abandoned is called

a)

common succession

b)

primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

Quaternary succession

85.

A population is

a)

a group of similar species in different areas

b)

a group of the same species in the same geographic area.

c)

a group of several species in the same geographic area

d)

a group of several species along with their abiotic factors in a small area.

86.

A community is

a)

Several different populations scattered across several states.

b)

Several different organisms in the same geographic area

c)

One type of organism in the same geographic area

d)

Several different populations in the same geographic area

87.

What is Global Warming?

a)

Increasing temperature in Earth's atmosphere

b)

Decreasing temperature in a city

c)

Increasing rain rates in Earth

d)

Decreasing temperature rates

88.

Global warming is caused by a phenomenon known as the greenhouse effect.

a)
b)
89.
Without the Greenhouse Effect the Earth would be too
a)
warm 
b)
cold
c)
dead
d)
funny
90.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
91.
Why does cutting down trees increase global warming?
a)
trees soak up carbon dioxide
b)
trees provide shade which counteracts global warming
c)
trees absorbs the sun's energy without radiating back into the atmosphere
d)
trees drain greenhouse gases like methane from soil
92.

How is the greenhouse effect produced?

a)

When solar energy trespasses the atmosphere.

b)

When some energy is reflected back and gets trapped in the atmosphere

c)

When the green house is burned.

d)

When the sun doesn't emit radiation.

93.

What is Acid Rain?

a)

Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides

b)

Water mixed with acid

c)

Greenhouse gases

d)

I didn't listen.

94.

How does Acid Rain affect humans?

a)

The air pollution gets into our lungs and water

b)

It burns our clothes

c)

It makes us blind

d)

Makes us blonde

95.
Which of the following is linked to the problem of global warming?
a)
Too much ozone
b)
Too much nitrogen
c)
Too much carbon dioxide
d)
Too much smog
96.
How can smog be dangerous?
a)
It smells bad
b)
People can't breath well
c)
It blocks the sun
d)
It causes skin damage
97.
Ozone depletion occurs because of these chemicals.
a)
Carbon monoxide
b)
Sulfur dioxide
c)
Nitrogen gas
d)
Chlorofluorocarbons
98.
What process is the main contributor to the acid rain problem?
a)
Car exhaust
b)
Burning coal and oil
c)
Burning wood
d)
Air conditioners
99.
What does the ozone layer protect us from?
a)
carbon monoxide posioning
b)
heat from the sun
c)
UV rays from the sun
d)
smog
100.
Which of the following products contains harmful CFC's?
a)
refrigerator
b)
spray paint cans
c)
aerosol hairspray cans
d)
all of these
101.
How are people and animals affected by the hole in the ozone layer?
a)
Breathing problems
b)
Skin infections
c)
Increased cases of skin cancer
d)
Flooding due to higher temperatures
102.
What is deforestation?
a)
Clearing Earth's forests on a massive scale
b)
Eating too much vegetables
c)
Going to a forest and pulling weeds
d)
Clearing the five trees in my backyard
103.
what is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases 
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
104.
What does deforestation effect?
a)
Plants and animals
b)
Our biosphere
c)
Humans
d)
All of the above
105.
What are the effects of deforestation ?
a)
loss of habitat
b)
increased green house gasses 
c)
soil erosion and flooding
d)
all of the above
106.

Where does photosynthesis occur?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

animal cells

d)

ribosomes

107.

What is the name of the pigment molecule that absorbs light energy and makes plants green?

a)

chloroplast

b)

glucose

c)

mitochondria

d)

chlorophyll

108.

Which of the following are products of photosynthesis? (Select 2)

a)

glucose

b)

light

c)

water

d)

oxygen

109.

Where in a plant cell does photosynthesis take place

a)

Palisade cells

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Vacuole

110.

Which of these are limiting factors for photosynthesis? Choose 3 answers.

a)

Light intensity

b)

CO2 concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

Light

e)

CO2 low levels

111.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen and Energy

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Glucose

c)

Glucose and Oxygen

d)

Oxygen and Water

112.
Where do the light reactions happen?
a)
mitochondria membrane
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
stroma
d)
central vacuole
113.

The Calvin Cycle occurs in the

a)

Thylakoid

b)

Grana

c)

Inner membrane of chloroplast

d)

Stroma

114.

Main products of the Calvin Cycle

a)

Oxygen, NADP+, ADP

b)

Glucose, CO2, ADP

c)

ADP, NADP+, Glucose

d)

ATP, NADPH, Oxygen

115.

Sugar and oxygen are the ________________of photosynthesis, while carbon dioxide, water and light energy are the ___________________.

a)

end result, ingredients

b)

ingredients, end result

c)

reactants, products

d)

products, reactants

116.

NADPH and ATP are the forms of the energy carrying molecules that are full of electrons that will be used to power the second part of photosynthesis, the ______________.

a)

Water cycle

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Carbon cycle

d)

Calvin cycle

117.

In the Calvin cycle, the end result is

a)

water

b)

sugar

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

118.

Light reactions occur in the ______________________of the chloroplast

a)

thylakoids

b)

stroma

c)

outer membrane

119.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
120.
Where does glycolysis take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Stroma
c)
Thylakoid
d)
Mitochondria
121.
Glucose is broken down during which process
a)
Krebs cycle
b)
Calvin cycle
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Photosynthesis
122.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
123.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
124.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
125.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
126.
The energy in ATP is stored 
a)
in the bond between the second and third phosphate
b)
in the bond between the first and second phosphate
c)
in the bond between the adenosine and the first phosphate
d)
I like turtles
127.

Which of the following is a reactant of cellular respiration

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Water

c)

Oxygen

d)

ATP

128.

Which of the following is a product of cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Radiant Energy

129.

Which statement is true regarding cellular respiration?

a)

The reactants of cellular respiration are identical to the reactants of photosynthesis.

b)

The reactants of cellular respiration are obtained from the products of photosynthesis.

c)

The products of cellular respiration are the same as the products of photosynthesis

d)

Cellular respiration only occurs in autotrophs, photosynthesis occurs only in heterotrophs.

130.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
131.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
132.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome 
133.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
134.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
135.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
136.
In which phase does the cell spend most of it's life?
a)
Interphase
b)
Nuclear Division
c)
Telophase
d)
Mitosis
137.
What phase of mitosis is occuring in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Telophase
138.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

139.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

140.

What is the correct order of the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase, Cytokinesis, Mitosis

b)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

c)

Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase

d)

Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

141.
Chromatid pairs can be seen, spindle fibers form and nuclear membrane disappears
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Prophase
142.
What is the correct term for "contains the genetic material (DNA) and serves as the control center of the cell"?
a)
centriole
b)
nucleus
c)
spindle fibers
d)
cytokinesis
143.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
144.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
145.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
146.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
147.

What is a mutation?

a)

A mistake in DNA which can lead to cancer

b)

A complete copy of DNA

c)

A change in DNA which doesn't cause an issue

d)

A mistake in your body that is caught and removed

148.

These are examples of:

  • chemicals in cigarette smoke
  • radiation
  • nitrates in processed foods
  • artificial sweeter
  • Heavy metals such as mercury and lead
a)

Carcinogens

b)

Predispositions

c)

Mutations

d)

Tumors

149.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
150.
Which term below describes a "spontaneous change in a gene?" 
a)
mutation 
b)
malignant 
c)
metastasize 
d)
carcinogen 
151.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a cancer cell?
a)
bigger nucleus 
b)
lack contact inhibition 
c)
always stay in the same place in the body & doesn't invade
d)
have unusual numbers of chromosomes 
152.

What is the term for the programmed death of cells?

a)

kinase

b)

cyclin

c)

carcinogen

d)

apoptosis

153.

Two internal factors that are important in advancing the cell cycle are

a)

kinases and cyclins.

b)

hormones and enzymes.

c)

phosphates and enzymes.

d)

proteins and platelets

154.

Extra Credit: How is a benign tumor different from a malignant tumor?

a)

Malignant tumors do not spread; cells in a benign tumor break away and spread to other parts of the body

b)

Benign tumors perform the specialized functions needed by the body; malignant tumors do not.

c)

Malignant tumors exert pressure on surrounding tissues; benign tumors do not.

d)

Benign tumors do not spread; cells in a malignant tumor break away and spread to other parts of the body.

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