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Worksheets

Fall 22 Final Exam

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The organelle that contains enzymes to perform specialized tasks is the:

a)

Vacuole

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Rough ER

2.

What is the function of the rough ER?

a)

Protects the outside of the cell.

b)

Stores water.

c)

Captures sunlight for photosynthesis.

d)

Location where proteins are made.

3.

Which organelle acts as a storage unit to store water, salts, and other minerals?

a)

Vacuole

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Golgi Apparatus

4.

This organelle helps to package proteins up and send them to other parts of the cell.

a)

Smooth ER

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Rough ER

d)

Mitochondria

5.

Where is DNA stored in the cell?

a)

Vacuole

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

6.

Which organelle helps to turn food into energy for the organism?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

7.

The substance within a cell that surrounds the nucleus and other organelles is known as what?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Nucleolus

8.

This organelle is only found in plants and helps with the process of photosynthesis.

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

9.

What is not a purpose of the cell membrane?

a)

Regulates what is allowed into and out of a cell.

b)

Stores DNA instructions for the cell.

c)

Provides support for the cell.

d)

Protects the cell from things that surround it.

10.

Why are ribosomes important?

a)

The help to make proteins.

b)

They help to protect the cell.

c)

They help to create energy for the cell.

d)

They help to keep the cell hydrated.

11.

What structure helps to give plant cells their shape?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Nucleus

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Cell Wall

12.

Plant and animal cells both have a cell wall.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Only plant cells have chloroplasts.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Animal cells can make their own food using chloroplasts.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Animal cells are irregular shaped while plant cells have a square like structure.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What makes a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Only prokaryotic cells are found in plants.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.

c)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and prokaryotic cells do not.

d)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus.

17.

Which types of cells compose plant and animal organisms?

a)

Prokaryotic cells; because plant and animal cells do not have a nucleus.

b)

Plant and animal cells are only made up of bacteria.

c)

Plant and animal organisms are not made up of cells.

d)

Eukaryotic cells; because plant and animal cells have a nucleus.

18.

A cell membrane regulates what can enter and leave a cell. What is the term for this?

a)

Selectively permeable

b)

Active diffusion

c)

Non-permeable

d)

Free floating

19.

Which of the following is NOT a part of a cell membrane?

a)

Channel protein

b)

Hydrophilic phospholipid head

c)

Nucleus with DNA

d)

Hydrophobic phospholipid tail

20.

The cell membrane is composed of two layers. What is a term to describe this?

a)

Flexible trilayer

b)

Lipid bilayer

c)

Free floating permeability

d)

Hydrophobic bilayer

21.

A cell membrane is composed of proteins and what else?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Chloroplasts

22.

Which of the following is NOT part of a phospholipid?

a)

Hydrophilic head

b)

Hydrophobic tail

c)

Membrane protein

23.

Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Both A and B

24.

What is diffusion?

a)

A process that requires energy and protein pumps to move molecules across a membrane.

b)

Molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration freely across the cell membrane.

c)

Particles move form higher concentration to lower concentration freely across the cell membrane.

d)

The process where ribosomes create proteins.

25.

Movement of particles across a cell membrane from higher to lower concentration without using energy is known as what?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Passive Transport

26.

What is a type of diffusion where no energy is needed, but special channel proteins help molecules to pass through the membrane?

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Permeable Diffusion

c)

Simple Diffusion

d)

Exocytosis

27.

What is the type of transport that requires the use of energy and moves from a low concentration to a high concentration?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

28.

How does temperature affect the rate of cell membrane transport?

a)

Temperature does not have an affect on transport.

b)

Higher temperatures cause the process to happen at a faster rate.

c)

Lower temperatures cause the process to happen at a faster rate.

d)

Both high and low temperatures help the process to happen at a faster rate.

29.

Osmosis is what type of membrane transport?

a)

Simple Diffusion

b)

Active Transport

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

30.

Osmosis is a form of passive transport. What type of molecule is the one that moves across the membrane in osmosis?

a)

Water

b)

Salt

c)

Sugar

d)

Starch

31.

Which of the following answers describes an isotonic environment?

a)

Concentration of solute is higher outside of the cell.

b)

Concentration of water is higher outside of the cell.

c)

Concentration of solute is the same inside and outside of the cell.

d)

Concentration of solute is higher inside of the cell.

32.

What type of environment is it when the concentration of solute is higher outside of the cell?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Hydrophobic

33.

What kind of environment is it when the concentration of solute is higher inside of the cell?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Hydrophilic

34.

If you drank a quart of salt water, what would this cause to happen to your cells?

a)

Hypotonic environment; cells would swell up due to water moving in.

b)

Nothing would happen; this would create an isotonic environment.

c)

Hypertonic environment; cells would shrivel up due to water moving out.

d)

Cells would get filled with salt and explode.

35.

If you decided to drink a couple gallons of water within one day, what would happen to your cells?

a)

Hypotonic environment; cells would swell up due to water moving in.

b)

Nothing would happen; this would cause an isotonic environment.

c)

Hypertonic environment; cells would shrivel up due to water moving out.

d)

The water would wash all of the cells out of your body.

36.

Where do the atoms come from that form new molecules?

a)

New molecules can never be formed.

b)

Atoms come from existing molecules to form new ones.

c)

Atoms are created from the air whenever they are needed.

d)

Molecules are made up of cells, not atoms.

37.

What makes up a molecule?

a)

Molecules are the smallest unit and make up atoms.

b)

Elements, that form atoms.

c)

Molecules are made up of individual cells.

d)

Atoms, that form elements.

38.

If the reactants of a chemical reaction are Carbon Dioxide and Water, what is true of the products of the reaction?

a)

The products must contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

b)

The products will contain only carbon since hydrogen and oxygen will be destroyed.

c)

The products will not contain any of the original atoms.

d)

The only product left would be water.

39.

If a chemical reaction has 6 nitrogen as part of its inputs, what is true about the amount of nitrogen that would be present in the outputs?

a)

Since a new molecule would be formed, nitrogen will turn into something new, so 0 would be left.

b)

There would be 12 nitrogen present in the outputs due to 2 outputs being formed.

c)

Since a chemical reaction breaks down molecules, only 3 nitrogen atoms would be left due to some being destroyed.

d)

There will 6 nitrogen atoms present in the outputs.

40.

Which of the following make up carbohydrates?

a)

Simple sugars

b)

Amino acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Fatty acids

41.

Which of the following are building blocks of proteins?

a)

Simple sugars

b)

Amino acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Fatty acids

42.

Which of the following makes up lipids?

a)

Simple sugars

b)

Amino acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Fatty acids

43.

Which of the following are building blocks of nucleic acids?

a)

Simple sugars

b)

Amino acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Fatty acids

44.

Which of the following is a function of a Carbohydrate?

a)

Carries genetic material

b)

Provides energy for cells through sugars like glucose

c)

Helps to form fats in our body

d)

Defends against invaders

45.

The Law of Conservation of Matter states that...

a)

New molecules are created by the body when needed

b)

Molecules are destroyed in a chemical reaction

c)

Matter cannot be created or destroyed; it can only change forms

d)

All matter must stay in its original form

46.

If there are 12 hydrogen atoms present in the reactants of photosynthesis, what does that mean about the products of photosynthesis?

a)

There will be 12 atoms of hydrogen present in the products of photosynthesis.

b)

There will be 6 atoms of hydrogen present in the products of photosynthesis since some get used during the process.

c)

There will be 24 atoms of hydrogen present in the products of photosynthesis since glucose is formed.

d)

All atoms put into a reaction get destroyed during the process, so none will be left.

47.

If carbon dioxide is formed during a chemical reaction, what is true of the inputs of the reaction?

a)

To form carbon dioxide as a product, carbon dioxide must have been a molecule present in the inputs.

b)

To form carbon dioxide as a product, we must start with 2 water molecules.

c)

To form carbon dioxide as a product, there must have been at least one carbon atoms and 2 oxygen atoms present in the inputs.

d)

Carbon dioxide can never be a product of a reaction, it can only be used as an input.

48.

Which of the following statements describes how the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are related to one another?

a)

They both form the same products.

b)

The products of photosynthesis provide the reactants of cellular respiration.

c)

They both need the same reactants to go through a chemical reaction.

d)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are not related to each other at all.

49.

What is true of the molecule Glucose?

a)

It is a sugar used by our cells as a source of energy.

b)

It is one of the outputs of photosynthesis.

c)

It is one of the inputs of cellular respiration.

d)

All of the above.

50.

Hows does the process of photosynthesis exhibit the law of conservation of matter?

a)

The same types and amount of atoms are present in both the inputs and outputs of the process.

b)

The same exact molecules are present in both the inputs and outputs of the process.

c)

Atoms present in the inputs are doubled to form the outputs.

d)

All original atoms are destroyed and new ones are created.

51.

The process of cellular respiration exhibits the law of conservation of matter in what way?

a)

A glucose molecule is destroyed in order to form ATP.

b)

ATP is used to create new molecules of glucose and oxygen.

c)

Oxygen is broken down in order to form glucose and carbon dioxide. Hydrogen molecules are created along the way.

d)

Glucose is used as an input (along with oxygen) and then the atoms are rearranged to form water, carbon dioxide, and energy.

52.

Which of the following molecules are represented by Q and R?

a)

Water and carbon dioxide

b)

Glucose and oxygen

c)

Water and oxygen

d)

Glucose and carbon dioxide

53.

Which molecules are represented by the S and T?

a)

Water and glucose

b)

Water and oxygen

c)

Water and sunlight

d)

Water and carbon dioxide

54.

What two things does an animal need to produce energy?

a)

Glucose and oxygen

b)

Water and carbon dioxide

c)

Water and glucose

d)

Oxygen and ATP

55.

Why would a plant not be able to grow without sunlight?

a)

The plant would not be able to collect necessary carbon dioxide.

b)

The plant would shrivel up because it would not be able to absorb any water.

c)

It will not have the energy needed to break bonds between molecules needed to make glucose.

d)

Without sunlight, the plant would not be able to release oxygen into the air and it would become too toxic for the plant.

56.

Which molecules are represented by A and B?

a)

Glucose and oxygen

b)

Water and carbon dioxide

c)

Water and oxygen

d)

Glucose and carbon dioxide

57.

What molecules are represented by C and D?

a)

Glucose and carbon dioxide

b)

Water and oxygen

c)

Water and carbon dioxide

d)

Glucose and oxygen

58.

What two molecules come together (with the help of sunlight) to form glucose and oxygen through photosynthesis?

a)

Water and oxygen

b)

Proteins and carbon dioxide

c)

Carbon dioxide and water

d)

Oxygen and water

59.

What is glucose?

a)

A protein that helps to build muscle.

b)

A nucleotide that passes on genetic information.

c)

A lipid that helps insulate and organism's body.

d)

A carbohydrate that helps to provide energy to organisms.

60.

Energy that is stored in glucose is in what form?

a)

Solar

b)

Nuclear

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

61.

Energy from the sun is in what form?

a)

Solar

b)

Nuclear

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

62.

When an organism uses energy to move, what type of energy is this?

a)

Solar

b)

Mechanical

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

63.

If we observed an animal breathing out a gas, what type of gas would this be?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

Oxygen

64.

If an aquatic plant was placed in a test tube with water and we saw bubbles produced after a period of time, what type of gas would these bubble be?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Glucose

d)

Oxygen

65.

How is glucose transformed into ATP?

a)

Glucose and carbon dioxide come together within the chloroplast to form oxygen and ATP.

b)

Glucose and water are combined within the nucleus of a cell in order to get carbon dioxide, oxygen, and ATP.

c)

Glucose is combined with oxygen in the mitochondria and turns into carbon dioxide, water, and ATP through cellular respiration.

d)

Only fructose can be transformed into ATP and glucose is not useful to provide energy for organisms.

66.
All energy on Earth ultimately comes from what source?
a)
Water
b)
Sun
c)
Consumers
d)
Oxygen
67.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
68.
An organism that uses sunlight to create its own food is known as a:
a)
Producer
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Consumer
d)
Decomposer
69.
What does a food chain represent?
a)
How all living organisms within a habitat are connected.
b)
All of the things that a particular animal eats.
c)
How plants create their own food.
d)
A single path of energy transfer within a habitat.
70.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
71.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
72.
What is a trophic level?
a)
Each level represented within a food chain or web.
b)
Levels of ecosystems that the world is divided into.
c)
Different levels of nutrients present within an organism.
d)
The levels of sunlight an autotroph needs to survive. 
73.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
74.
How much energy is available to be passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?
a)
100%
b)
10%
c)
50%
d)
75%
75.
Why is there a limited amount of energy that can be passed on to the next feeding level?
a)
There is never enough sunlight available. 
b)
Some ecosystems have limited resources. 
c)
Organisms use some of the energy they get from eating.
d)
All the energy is available to be passed on. 
76.
Why might an organism have more than one arrow coming from them in a food web?
a)
More than one organism may eat them. 
b)
They may eat more than one other organism. 
c)
This organism gets its energy from multiple sources. 
d)
They have no resources available to them.
77.
The largest group of organisms found in a food web would be:
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Producers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
78.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source. 
79.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
80.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
81.
The mouse in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Tertiary Consumer
d)
Secondary Consumer
82.
An animal that feeds on what another animal has killed is known as a:
a)
Scavenger
b)
Mutualist
c)
Decomposer
d)
Parasite
83.
An animal that hunts and consumes other organisms is known as a:
a)
Prey
b)
Decomposer
c)
Predator
d)
Commensalist
84.
An organism that helps to recycle nutrients within an ecosystem by eating dead or decaying organisms is a:
a)
Predator
b)
Autotroph
c)
Producer
d)
Decomposer
85.
This term describes a living part of an environment.
a)
Biotic factor
b)
Sunlight
c)
Abiotic Factor
d)
Niche
86.
Non-living components of an environment are considered to be:
a)
Biotic Factors
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Abiotic factors
d)
Decomposers
87.
A group of particular organisms that belong to the same species that live in the same habitat is known as a:
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Biome
88.
This term refers to the total number of organisms that a particular habitat can support.
a)
Population
b)
Carrying capacity
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Niche
89.
A large part of the Earth that is defined by its own unique type of environment is known as a:
a)
Community
b)
Species
c)
Niche
d)
Biome
90.

An organisms that eats only plants is known as a what?

a)

Carnivore

b)

Producer

c)

Herbivore

d)

Omnivore

91.

What is an animal that only eats other animals?

a)

Omnivore

b)

Scavenger

c)

Herbivore

d)

Carnivore

92.

Which of the following is an organism that eats both plants and animals?

a)

Omnivore

b)

Herbivore

c)

Carnivore

d)

Decomposer

93.

Which trophic level has access to the most energy?

a)

Tertiary Consumers

b)

Producers

c)

Primary Consumers

d)

Secondary Consumers

94.

Which trophic level has the least energy available to them?

a)

Tertiary Consumers

b)

Producers

c)

Primary Consumers

d)

Secondary Consumers

95.

In which trophic level will we see the highest number of organsims?

a)

Tertiary Consumers

b)

Primary Consumers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Producers

96.

Why would there be less organisms found at higher trophic levels as compared to the lower levels?

a)

They have the most amount of energy available to them.

b)

They were all eaten by the other trophic levels.

c)

They need to eat more food to fulfill their energy needs.

d)

The higher levels actually have the most organisms.

97.

If there is 784 kcal of energy available at the primary consumer level, predict how much would be transferred to the secondary consumers.

a)

7800 kcal

b)

7.8 kcal

c)

78 kcal

d)

Energy cannot be transferred because it would all be used.

98.

If 8.9 kcal of energy is available at the tertiary consumer level, how much energy was available at the primary consumer level?

a)

About 8000 kcal

b)

About 9 kcal

c)

About 90 kcal

d)

About 900 kcal

99.

If there is 5,682 kcal of energy available to the producers in an ecosystem, and then 583 kcal of energy was transferred to the primary consumers, what percent of available energy was transferred?

a)

10.3%

b)

9.7%

c)

8.2%

d)

11.3%

100.

About what % of available energy is used by an organism in any trophic level?

a)

10%

b)

40%

c)

70%

d)

90%

101.

What does a carrying capacity represent?

a)

The maximum number of individuals in a population that an ecosystem can support.

b)

The amount of space that is needed for all living things to grow in an ecosystem.

c)

The minimum level of food required to help a certain population survive.

d)

How many offspring a population can produce in a year.

102.

Look at the graph provided. What would you predict the carrying capacity for the red wolves to be between 2003-2013?

a)

140

b)

75

c)

110

d)

25

103.

Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a)

Sunshine

b)

Rocks

c)

Water

d)

Bear cub

104.

Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?

a)

Trees

b)

A river

c)

Fish in the river

d)

A grasshopper

105.

If a primary consumer was removed from an ecosystem, which of the following would be true?

a)

The producers would die off.

b)

Tertiary consumers would increase due to less competition.

c)

Secondary consumers would increase steadily over time.

d)

The secondary consumers population would decrease and producers would increase.

106.

Which combination of factors would lead to increased biodiversity in an ecosystem?

a)

Higher temperatures, lower precipitation, closer to the equator.

b)

Higher temperatures, higher precipitation, closer to the equator.

c)

Lower temperatures, lower precipitation, furthest from the equator.

d)

Lower temperatures, higher precipitation, furthest from the equator.

107.

What would happen if all of the grasshoppers died out in this ecosystem?

a)

There would be more sunflowers due to one less organism eating them.

b)

The ladybugs would decrease due to the bird needing to eat more of them without the grasshopper food source.

c)

The mouse population may decrease due to one less food source.

d)

All of the above.

108.

Which biome has the highest biodiversity?

a)

Grassland - medium rain; medium temperatures.

b)

Rainforest - high rain; high temperatures; closest to equator.

c)

Tundra - low rain; low temperatures; furthest from equator.

d)

Desert - low rain; high temperatures.

109.

Which biome has the lowest biodiversity?

a)

Grassland - medium rain; medium temperatures.

b)

Rainforest - high rain; high temperatures; closest to equator.

c)

Tundra - low rain; low temperatures; furthest from equator.

d)

Desert - low rain; high temperatures.

110.

What is an example of an ecosystem?

a)

A group of white tailed deer in a particular area.

b)

A group of white tailed deer, all of the other living organisms, and all other abiotic factors that make up a particular area.

c)

A group of white tailed deer, all of the plants, and a group of rabbits in an area.

d)

Multiple areas that share the same type of landscape, temperature, and precipitation that groups of white tailed deer live.

111.

Which of the following is an example of an inference?

a)

The boy's shirt is blue.

b)

Blue is the most beautiful color.

c)

There are 2 blue cars in the lot.

d)

The flowers in the garden are blue.

112.

What is the difference between inferences and observations?

a)

An inference is an example of data that is collected while an observation is an example of the conclusion of an experiment.

b)

Observations are based on assumptions about what may happen, while an inference is what you actually see happening.

c)

There are no differences between the two, they are examples of the same thing when it comes to science.

d)

Inferences are based on guesses or opinions, while observations are facts that are seen in data or with senses.

113.

Which of the following is an example of an observation?

a)

It is 62 degrees Fahrenheit outside.

b)

Going to the beach is the best type of vacation.

c)

Pizza is the best food.

d)

Green beans do not taste good.

114.

Which of the following best describes a quantitative observation?

a)

Descriptions of something you encounter using your senses.

b)

Data collected or numbers that help to describe something.

115.

Which of the following best describes a qualitative observation?

a)

Descriptions of something you encounter using your senses.

b)

Data collected or numbers that help to describe something.

116.

Look at the picture provided of an experiment. What is a scientific question you could ask about this scenario?

a)

How does amount of light affect plant growth?

b)

How does water amount affect plant growth?

c)

How does the color of light affect plant growth?

d)

How does fertilizer affect plant growth?

117.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a well-written hypothesis?

a)

Specific, clear, and concise.

b)

An if...then...statement.

c)

Testable.

d)

Able to focus on more than one variable at a time.

118.

If you were to test the affect fertilizer has on plant growth, what could be used as a control group?

a)

A plant that has no fertilizer used on it.

b)

A plant that has name brand fertilizer used on it.

c)

A plant that has store brand fertilizer used on it.

d)

A plant that has homemade fertilizer used on it.

119.

Why is a control group important in an experiment?

a)

To be able to test multiple variables at once.

b)

To help control all variables tested throughout an experiment.

c)

To have a group that can be used as a comparison to experimental groups.

d)

To ensure that all inferences within an experiment are true.

120.

What are important aspects of a well-written procedure?

a)

All steps are numbered and in correct order.

b)

Single variable is being tested.

c)

Steps are clear, specific, and able to be repeated.

d)

All of the above.

121.

Which of the following describes an independent variable?

a)

Variable that is measured.

b)

Variable that is controlled or changed by the experimenter.

122.

Which of the following describes an dependent variable?

a)

Variable that is measured and recorded as data.

b)

Variable that is controlled or changed by the experimenter.

123.

If an experimenter wanted to test how water temperature affected fish growth, everything would need to be kept constant except what?

a)

Amount of food fed to fish

b)

Size of tank

c)

Number of fish in tank

d)

Temperature

124.

When would it be appropriate to use a pie graph?

a)

When representing data that is comparing information about various different groups.

b)

When representing data that shows a portion of a whole.

c)

When representing data that shows a change over time within a single group.

d)

None of the above.

125.

A representation of data that shows a change over time within a single group, what type of graph would you use?

a)

Any type of graph would work.

b)

Pie Graph

c)

Bar Graph

d)

Line Graph

126.

When would it be appropriate to use a bar graph to represent data?

a)

When trying to compare data between multiple different groups.

b)

When trying to represent a portion of a whole.

c)

When showing a trend of change over time.

d)

When you have tested multiple variables in an experiment.

127.

Which of the following aspects is an important characteristic of a 'good graph'?

a)

Appropriate title

b)

Both axes are clearly labeled with units

c)

Points plotted a correctly

d)

All of the above

128.

If you were to perform multiple trials of an experiment, what is the best way to represent the data you have collected in one number?

a)

Add all of the numbers together.

b)

Choose the highest value you have recorded.

c)

Only use the last value collected, as all other values may be incorrect.

d)

Find the average value of all data collected.

129.

What metric unit is used to measure mass?

a)

Ounce

b)

Liter

c)

Meter

d)

Pound

130.

Look at the graph provided. What would be the best claim based on the data presented?

a)

Plants will not grow without fertilizer.

b)

Plants will only grow if they are given excessive amounts of water.

c)

Plants will grow taller over time when fertilizer is used.

d)

Plants will not grow well without adequate sunlight.

131.

If you came to the conclusion that plants grow taller when given fertilizer, which of the following would be an appropriate piece of evidence you could use to support your claim?

a)

The plant that was given fertilizer ended up growing an extra 0.5 cm.

b)

Both plants started out at the same height.

c)

Height for each plant was measured every other day.

d)

On day 2, the plant without fertilizer was 1 cm tall.

132.

What information is the graph provided trying to convey?

a)

How often teens are on their cell phones.

b)

Type of cell phones that teens currently own.

c)

Number of teens that have cell phones as age increases.

d)

How cell phones impact school performance for teens.

133.

What can you conclude from the graph provided?

a)

In general, as teens get older, more of them have cell phones.

b)

There were approximately 273 14 year olds with cell phones that were included in this study.

c)

More 17 year olds have cell phones than 18 year olds.

d)

All of the above.

134.

What is an example of an independent variable?

a)

Height of plant that was measured at the end of an experiment.

b)

Change in temperature between different groups of plants.

c)

Measurement of the same amount of water for each plant in an experiment.

d)

Mass of fish that was measured after conducting an experimental trial.

135.

Which of the following is an example of a well-written hypothesis?

a)

When a plant is given the right amount of water, it will grow taller.

b)

If a plant is given fertilizer, it will grow the best.

c)

If a plant is grown in soil, then it will need more water to grow appropriately.

d)

If a plant receives more sunlight, then it will grow taller.

136.

Which of the following measurements could you use to determine if something has mass?

a)

Volume and Energy

b)

Mass and Volume

c)

Temperature and Mass

d)

Energy and Temperature

137.

Look at the image provided. Choose the correct way to categorize the matter in the image among the choices below. 

a)

Compund

b)

Atom

c)

Element

d)

Mixture

138.

Imagine there is a chamber full of carbon dioxide. What can we classify carbon dioxide as?

a)

Molecule only

b)

Molecule and Element

c)

Molecule and Compound

d)

Molecule and Atom

139.

Which of the following best describes what reactants are in a chemical equation?

a)

The various elements or molecules that go INTO a chemical reaction

b)

The energy used to speed up a chemical reaction

c)

All new chemicals that are created during a chemical reaction

d)

The mass and volume that define each element within a chemical reaction

140.

Which of the following best describes what products are in a chemical equation?

a)

All the new chemical created in order to allow a chemical reaction to happen

b)

The energy used to speed up a chemical reaction

c)

The various elements or molecules that are produced throughout a chemical reaction

d)

The mass and volume that define each element within a chemical reaction

141.

Enzymes are examples of catalysts. What does a catalyst/enzyme do?

a)

Forms new elements throughout a chemical reaction.

b)

Supplies the reactants for a chemical reaction.

c)

Causes a chemical reaction to require more energy to take place.

d)

Helps to speed up a chemical reaction.

142.

The amount of energy needed for a chemical reaction to happen is known as what?

a)

Activation Energy

b)

Endothermic Energy

c)

Product Energy

d)

Heat Energy

143.

What 3 sub-particles are a part of an atom?

a)

protons, chemitrons, proteins

b)

protons, neutrons, electrons

c)

neutrons, electrons, lipids

d)

lipids, carbohydrates, proteins

144.

What is the difference between a monomer and a polymer?

a)

Monomers are larger molecules that form using many polymers.

b)

Polymers are comprised of one atom and monomers contain many atoms.

c)

A polymer is many monomers bonded together to form a larger molecule.

d)

Polymers are found in lipids, while monomers are only found in proteins.

145.

What is a monosaccharide?

a)

A. Molecule comprised of one sugar.

b)

B. Molecule that makes up proteins.

c)

C. Molecules that is a carbohydrate monomer.

d)

Both A. and C.

146.

How many sugars does a polysaccharide have?

a)

Two

b)

One

c)

Zero

d)

Many

147.

When an enzyme's environment has a pH that is too high, what will happen to it?

a)

It will cause the chemical reaction to really speed up.

b)

The enzyme will not be able to bind with multiple substrates.

c)

It will denature and not function properly.

d)

The high pH will cause the enzyme to perform new functions.

148.

When an enzyme 'denatures', what does that mean?

a)

The shape of the enzyme changes

b)

The enzyme performs more functions

c)

The enzyme can now only work with a co-enzyme

d)

This is when an enzyme if working at its optimum level

149.

The spot (that has a specific shape) where a substrate binds to an enzyme is known as what?

a)

Denature site

b)

Reaction site

c)

Active site

d)

Carrier site

150.

How does temperature affect enzyme function?

a)

Low temperatures speed up the reactions

b)

Too high of temperatures denature the enzyme

c)

Enzymes work best and very extreme temperatures

d)

Temperature does not have an affect on enzyme function

151.

How does temperature affect enzyme function?

a)

Low temperatures speed up the reactions

b)

Too high of temperatures denature the enzyme

c)

Enzymes work best and very extreme temperatures

d)

Temperature does not have an affect on enzyme function