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EOC Biology - Semester 1 Exam Review

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
2.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
3.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
4.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
5.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
6.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
7.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
8.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
9.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
10.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
11.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
12.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
13.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
14.
Glycerol and fatty acids are the monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
15.
The organic compounds that have many structural purposes and are used in many processes within the
cell are called ____________________.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
16.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

17.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
18.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

19.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
20.
What suffix (word ending) is used in the names of most carbohydrates?
a)
-ase
b)
-nic
c)
-ose
d)
-yme
21.
What are the four macromolecules?
a)
proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids
b)
monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccaharides, and proteins
c)
RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates
d)
proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
22.
This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body
a)
insulation
b)
structure for tissues and organs
c)
speed up chemical reactions
d)
transport things through cell membrane
23.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
24.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
25.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
26.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
it does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
27.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
28.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
29.
A cell in a hypertonic solution will
a)
Swell
b)
Shrink
c)
Stay the same size
d)
Impossible to tell
30.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
31.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
32.
What can only be found in plant cells?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Vacuole
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Mitochondrion
33.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondrion
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
34.
What is found in both plant and animal cells but is much larger in plant cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
35.
Cell membranes are found in
a)
Only animal cells
b)
Only plant cells
c)
Some plant and animal cells
d)
All plant and animal cells
36.
What makes the endoplasmic reticulum rough?
a)
Vessicles
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Chromosomes
37.
packages proteins for delivery
a)
Endoplasmic reticulum
b)
ribosomes
c)
golgi bodies
d)
lysosomes
38.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
39.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

40.

Which does only eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosomes

41.

Prokaryotic cells do not have…….

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA or RNA

d)

life

42.

You can distinguish a prokaryote apart from a nucleus by--

a)

The presence of a ribosome

b)

The presence of a cell membrane

c)

The presence of DNA

d)

The presence of a nuclear membrane

43.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
floating DNA
c)
very small
d)
complex
44.
A fossilized cell is discovered, and evidence suggests it reproduced on its own and had DNA, but a membrane did not enclose its DNA. Which type of organism would this most likely be?
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
plant cell
d)
animal cell
45.

Which of the following structures is ALWAYS found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

46.

The smallest unit of a living thing are

a)

atoms

b)

cells

c)

DNA

d)

organelles

47.

Which cell type tends to be smaller?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

there is not a size difference

48.

Bacteria is an example of a(n)

a)

prokaryotic cell.

b)

eukaryotic cell.

49.

CHALLENGE QUESTION: Which of the following provides evidence for the hypothesis that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes.

a)

prokaryotes are more complex

b)

prokaryotes have no nucleus and fewer genes

c)

eukaryotes are multicellular which makes them simpler

d)

prokaryotes grow into eukaryotes

50.
Movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is
a)
diffusion 
b)
passive transport
c)
osmosis
d)
all of the above
51.

If a red blood cell is put in distilled water, what will most likely happen to the cell?

a)

Nothing will happen

b)

It will shrivel.

c)

It will burst and then shrivel up

d)

It will swell and burst

52.

What does semi-permeable mean?

a)

Some molecules can move through the membrane

b)

Nothing can move through the membrane

c)

All molecules can pass through the membrane.

53.
Which diagram best shows the end result of diffusion?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
54.

In a "high concentration," molecules

a)

are spread out

b)

are tightly packed together

c)

are uncrowded

d)

are unevenly dispersed

55.

Movement of molecules through the cell membrane from high to low concentration

a)

passive transport

b)

active transport

56.
Active transport moves substances against a concentration gradient 
a)
true
b)
false 
57.

An example of a substance that requires active transport to enter or leave a cell is

a)

protein

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

58.
Which form of active transport is being shown?
a)
Pinocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
59.

When cells take in food molecules through active transport, what is it called?

a)

diffusion

b)

phagocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

osmosis

60.
Which is NOT a form of active transport?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Osmosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Pinocytosis
61.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
62.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
63.
What part of the phage is the DNA?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
64.
What part of the phage is the DNA?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
65.

A virus may have DNA or RNA as its genetic material.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The protein coat of a virus is known as the __________.

a)

capsid

b)

genome

c)

cell membrane

d)

envelope

67.

Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by breaking it open?

a)

lytic

b)

lysogenic

68.

The ___________ cycle allows replication of the phage genome without destroying the host.

a)

lysogenic

b)

lytic

69.

Virus are considered to be a living organism.

a)

True

b)

False

70.
Viruses are cells. 
a)
True 
b)
False
71.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
72.
What is a pathogen?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Type of disease infection
d)
Protist
73.
Certain viruses only infect certain cells.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
depends upon the DNA in the virus
d)
depends upon the bacteriophage
74.
Immunity is
a)
an organism's ability to go through gene therapy
b)
the process of getting a vaccine
c)
the use of antibiotics to resist infection
d)
an organism's ability to resist infection using antibodies
75.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
76.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
77.
Photo means
a)
sun
b)
light
78.
Synthesis means 
a)
to make
b)
to tear apart
79.
The products of cellular respiration are
a)
carbon dioxide, water, energy
b)
oxygen and sugar (glucose)
80.
The products of photosynthesis are
a)
carbon dioxide, water, energy
b)
sugar (glucose), oxygen, water
81.
The reactants in photosynthesis are
a)
carbon dioxide, water
b)
sugar (glucose), oxygen
82.
The green pigment in plants is called
a)
melanin
b)
chlorophyll
83.
The green pigment in plants absorbs
a)
oxygen
b)
light
84.
How many atoms are in this chemical formula?   C6H12O6
a)
12
b)
24
85.
Select the balanced equation that represents cellular respiration.
a)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 −−> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
2C6H12O6 + 4O2 −−> 4CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
86.
A botanist is a scientist who studies
a)
plants
b)
animals
87.
Something that can change in an experiment is a 
a)
variance
b)
variable
88.
In a controlled experiment, how many variables do you change?
a)
one
b)
more than one
89.
Which of the following is not a part of interphase?
a)
G2
b)
M
c)
G1
d)
S
90.
The cell carries out normal functions during..
a)
interphase
b)
cytokinesis
c)
mitosis
91.
Cells spend the majority of their lifes in
a)
interphase
b)
M
c)
S
d)
G2
92.
the uncontrolled division of cells that results in malignant growth 
a)
tissues
b)
cancer
c)
mitosis
d)
anaphase
93.
Which of the following statements is true of cytokinesis
a)
takes place in plant cells only
b)
completes the cell cycle
c)
organizes DNA
d)
occurs in prophase
94.
The part of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm of the cell
a)
Synthesis Phase
b)
G1 Phase
c)
G2 Phase
d)
Cytokinesis
95.
Stage in which the cells nuclear material divides and seperates
a)
G1
b)
Synthesis
c)
G2
d)
Mitosis
96.
Where does DNA synthesis happen in eukaryotic cells?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
Golgi apparatus
97.
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
a)
cell division
b)
the division of cytoplasm
c)
DNA replication
d)
replication of mitochondria and other organelles
98.
Who is credited for discovering the shape of DNA?
a)
James Lebron and Francis Oneill
b)
James Watson and Francis Crick
c)
Henry Ford
d)
Rosalind Franklin
99.
What 3 things make up a nucleotide?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, Nitrogen Base
b)
Sugar, Hydrogen, Carbon
c)
Carbon, Phosphate, Nitrogen
d)
mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
100.
How many base pairs would be needed to chain together 3 amino acids?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
101.
What is assembled during transcription?
a)
transfer RNA
b)
messenger RNA
c)
DNA replication
d)
court proceedings
102.
What is made during translation?
a)
transfer RNA
b)
messenger RNA
c)
Proteins
d)
Spanish Rice
103.
What stores the code for making an individual protein?
a)
DNA
b)
a gene
c)
a chromosome
d)
transfer RNA
104.
What is another name for a protein?
a)
a chain of amino acids
b)
polypeptide
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
105.
Why do we need proteins?
a)
To taste good
b)
Everything is made of or by them
c)
Do digest our food
d)
to make pizza
106.
What amino acid would be coded for by the DNA AAA?
a)
Lysine
b)
Phenylalanine
c)
Leucine
107.
How is a mutation caused?
a)
changing the tRNA
b)
a mutagen
c)
cancer
108.
A 3 nucleotide sequence of mRNA
a)
codon
b)
anticodon
109.
The site of protein synthesis?
a)
nucleus
b)
ER
c)
Ribosome
d)
Golgi Body
110.
Deoxyribose is the sugar in RNA
a)
True
b)
False
111.
Which of the following is the process of reading mRNA code to produce a protein?
a)
replication
b)
translation
c)
transcription
112.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
113.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
114.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
115.
Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
116.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
117.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
118.
What do experts say is the most common form of Down Syndrome?
a)
Trisomy 47
b)
Trisomy 46
c)
Trisomy 21
d)
Trisomy 23
119.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
120.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
121.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
122.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
123.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
124.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
125.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
126.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
127.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
128.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
129.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
130.
Brown fur color is dominant over black fur color. Which of the following is the actual genotype of ALL of the offspring in the next generation of this cross for fur color?
AA x aa
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
brown fur
131.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
132.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
133.

A population comprises all the individuals of a given species in a specific area or region at a certain time.  Which of the following factors in the environment will likely increase the population in an area?

a)

Increase in food supply

b)

Increase in emigration

c)

Limited amount of resources

d)

Increase in the number of predators

134.

An ecologist compared the diversity of different communities by counting the number of species within each community. What measure of diversity is used?

a)

Genetic diversity

b)

Species richness

c)

Alpha diversity

d)

None of these

135.

Which point on the curve in the graph best represents the carrying capacity of the environment for the given population?

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

C and D

d)

E only

136.

Carrying capacity is the maximum population size an environment can support.  When can you say that the carrying capacity has already been reached in an area?

a)

Food resources are plentiful

b)

A population damages the environment

c)

The growth rate of a population reaches a plateau

d)

There is scarcity in food sources

137.

A measure of variation at the genetic, species and ecosystem level.

a)

BIODIVERSITY

b)

EVOLUTION

c)

BIODIVERSITY AND EVOLUTION

d)

ECOLOGY

138.

A process that results in changes in the genetic content of a population over time.

a)

BIODIVERSITY

b)

EVOLUTION

c)

BIODIVERSITY AND EVOLUTION

d)

ECOLOGY

139.

Are living things capable of reacting to stimuli, reproduction, growth, and homeostasis.

a)

ORGANISMS

b)

SPECIES

c)

BIOTIC

d)

ABIOTIC

140.

Environmental conditions that keep

a population from over increasing in

size and thus help balance

ecosystems

a)

LIMITING FACTOR

b)

EXTINCTION

c)

CARRYING CAPACITY

d)

GLOBAL WARMING

141.

_____________________are similar structures which species have, but which perform different functions. They provide evidence of a common ancestor.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

142.

Recently, scientists have been able to use ___________to find common proteins and amino acids to determine how closely related species are.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

143.

_____________________are features present in modern organisms which are no longer in use.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

144.

Click on ALL examples of a vestigial structure?

a)

A whale's pelvis and femur.

b)

A snake's hind legs.

c)

A human's nose.

d)

A human's appendix.

e)

A human's wisdom teeth.

145.

_________________ show clear changes in an organism over time, the environment organisms lived in, the time period the organism lived in, and where the organism lived.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

146.

When vertebrates are in the early stages of development (an embryo) they all possess....

a)

gill slits and tails

b)

backbone and hands

c)

hands and feet

d)

tongue and mouth

147.

Tiktaalik is an important ____________________because it shows how fish evolved into tetrapods.

a)

theory

b)

funny name

c)

transition fossil

d)

omnivore

148.

The coelacanth is considered a __________________because it existed for a long time, then there was a gap in the fossil record, and it has been discovered living in modern times.

a)

scary sea creature

b)

monster

c)

fish

d)

living fossil

149.

Because whales have a pelvis and femurs, it shows whales are descended from an ancestor that was able to _____________________.

a)

walk

b)

sing

c)

swim

d)

polka

150.
Drawn observed several different types of finches.  Why are there so many different types?
a)
Finches live in different places, but eat the same food.
b)
Finches live in the same place, but eat different types of food.
c)
Finches live in different habitats and eat different types of food.
d)
Finches are found all over the world.
151.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
152.
Organisms with the most beneficial traits will survive.  This is commonly known as
a)
theory of evolution.
b)
variations.
c)
survival of the fittest.
d)
ecosystems.
153.
This scientist developed the theory of evolution as he studied the finches.
a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Isaac Newton
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Marie Curie
154.
Behavioral changes of individuals of a species that allow for better survival. (Acquired traits)
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
155.
Behavioral changes of individuals of a species that allow for better survival. (Acquired traits)
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
156.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
157.
What are the most studied animals in the galapagos?
a)
Finches
b)
Tortoises
c)
Turtles
d)
Lizards
158.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
159.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.

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