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WorksheetsA&P I Final Exam Review
Total questions: 165
Worksheet time: 4hrs 27mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Towards the Front.
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
2.
The scapula is on the anterior/posterior side of the body?
a)
deep
b)
posterior
c)
medial
d)
anterior
3.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
4.
Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feat)
a)
Medial Plane
b)
Sagittal
c)
Proximal
d)
Transverse Plane
5.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
6.
Closer to midline in relation to another part
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Medial
d)
Proximal
7.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
8.
The head is ______ to the chest.
a)
superior
b)
dorsal
c)
inferior
d)
ventral
9.
In the anatomical position, the palms are facing-
a)
forward
b)
backward
10.
Which body cavity is surrounded by the pelvic bones?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
11.
The cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
abdominal
d)
throacic
12.
Which body cavity contains organs including the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
13.
Which body cavity is located above the diaphragm and is surrounded by the rib cage?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
14.
Abdominal region
a)
Region between the thorax and pelvis
b)
The ribs
c)
The area between the pod and the pelvis
d)
What even?
15.
What is the definition of Distal?
a)
Closer to the point of attachment
b)
Further from the point of attachment
16.
What is the middle of the thorax, anteriorly?
a)
Mammary
b)
Sternal
c)
Occipital
d)
Pattelar
17.
What is the nasal cavity?
a)
The nose area
b)
The chin
c)
The reproductive organs
d)
The chest
18.
The posterior region behind the hip bones is...
a)
Pectoral region
b)
Sacral region
c)
Umbilical region
d)
Pelvic region
19.
What is the depressed area of the abdominal wall near the thigh (groin)?
a)
Inguinal region
b)
Otic
c)
Pedal
d)
Popliteal
20.
True or False Blood clotting and uterine contractions are good examples of negative feedback.
a)
True
b)
False
21.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
22.
a body system that controls and coordinates all body activities through electric impulses/messages between brain, spinal cord and nerves.
a)
endocrine system
b)
nervous system
c)
nerve
d)
neuron
23.
a body system that controls growth and homeostasis by secreting hormones from glands.
a)
skeletal system
b)
nervous system
c)
endocrine sytem
d)
integumentary system
24.
Homeostasis in the human body is often maintained by a:
a)
neutral feedback loop
b)
solar feedback loop
c)
positive feedback loop
d)
negative feedback loop
25.
Function of pancreas:
a)
control blood pressure
b)
produces hormones that control BSL (blood sugar level)
c)
control female characteristics
d)
control sperm production
26.
An example of Negative Feedback Loop could be
a)
Hormones released when giving birth
b)
Production of milk during nursing
c)
Water constantly running
d)
Maintaining Oxygen levels
27.
Which of these is an example of the ions being moved down the concentration gradient?
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Na/K Pump
28.
Which part inside the plasma membrane provides a pathway for ions to enter and exit the cell?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Cholesterol
29.
Which part inside the plasma membrane identifies chemical signals?
a)
Lipids
b)
Diffusion
c)
Cholesterol
d)
Carbohydrates
30.
Which parts of the plasma membrane are polar?
a)
Hydrophilic Heads
b)
Hydrophobic Tails
c)
Hydrophobic Heads
d)
Hydrophilic Tails
31.
Which of these help to maintain the pH levels in our body?
a)
Sweat
b)
Glucose
c)
Buffer
d)
None of These
32.
Which type of transport uses protein channels?
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Diffusion
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis
33.
What is the difference between active and passive transport?
a)
active does not require energy
b)
passive does not require energy
c)
both require energy
d)
neither require energy
34.
chemical made by glands that tell cells to make something or respond in some way.
a)
acid
b)
enzyme
c)
perspiration
d)
hormone
35.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
36.
This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body
a)
insulation
b)
structure for tissues and organs
c)
speed up chemical reactions
d)
transport things through cell membrane
37.
Which macromolecule is made of simple and complex sugars?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
38.
A disaccharide forms when
a)
two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis.
b)
two starches join by dehydration synthesis.
c)
two monosaccharides join by hydrolysis.
d)
two starches join by hydrolysis.
39.
Sucrose is formed
a)
from two glucose molecules.
b)
from two monosaccharides through dehydration synthesis.
c)
when ionic bonds link two monosaccharides.
d)
when glucose and lactose are combined.
40.
A compound that stabilizes the pH of a compound by removing or releasing hydrogen ions.
a)
buffer
b)
protein
c)
cellulose
d)
lipids
41.
In the carbonic acid-bicarbonate system, which substance is created to lower the pH of the solution?
a)
bicarbonate
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
water
d)
carbonic acid
42.
In a _____ reaction water is produced as a by-product.
a)
hydrolysis
b)
dehydration
c)
combustion
d)
single replacement
43.
Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?
a)
glucose
b)
cellulose
c)
fructose
d)
galactose
44.
Which of the following processes does not require energy?
a)
Na/K pump
b)
calcium pump
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
exocytosis
45.
A solution that has more dissolved solute within the cell as compared to outside is said to be a _____ solution.
a)
hypotonic
b)
hypertonic
c)
isotonic
46.
What %NaCl solution is isotonic to a RBC?
a)
1%
b)
0.85%
c)
0.50%
d)
1.3%
47.
The breakdown of RBCs is called _____.
a)
hydrolysis
b)
crenation
c)
hemolysis
48.
The Golgi apparatus _____.
a)
packages cell products for export
b)
eliminates waste
c)
stores DNA
d)
makes energy
49.
This organelle creates energy.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
d)
ER
50.
This organelle moves materials throughout the cell.
a)
ER
b)
Ribosomes
c)
FedEx
d)
Golgi Complex
51.
What organelle destroys bacteria in the cell?
a)
lysosomes
b)
peroxisome
c)
centrosomes
d)
ribosomes
52.
This stores the DNA that contains information for the cell. It is covered by a double membrane, called the nuclear envelope.
a)
nucleus
b)
nucleolus
c)
mitochondria
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
53.
This is part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is used to make proteins that will be used by other cells. It is lined with ribosomes.
a)
Vesicles
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
54.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
55.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
56.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
57.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
58.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
59.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
60.
Which tissue is this?
a)
Simple squamous
b)
simple columnar
c)
transitional
d)
simple cuboidal
61.
The top surface of an epithelial tissue
a)
Apical Suface
b)
Basement membrane
62.
which tissue is this?
a)
Pseudostratified columnar
b)
Stratified Squamous
c)
Simple Columnar
d)
Transitional
63.
Which type of epithelial tissue would allow oxygen to quickly pass through it?
a)
Simple Squamous
b)
Simple Cuboidal
c)
Simple Columnar
d)
Transitional
64.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
65.
What type of tissue SIGNALS the intestines to move food along?
a)
Nervous Tissue
b)
Blood Tissue
c)
Smooth muscle tissue
d)
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
66.
What type of Connective Tissue are TENDONS and LIGAMENTS
a)
Dense Connective Tissue
b)
Osseous Tissue
c)
Loose connective Tissue
d)
Cartilage
67.
Most abundant form of cartilage
a)
Fibrocartilage
b)
Elastic cartilage
c)
Hyaline cartilage
68.
What type of muscle tissue is in the stomach and intestines?
a)
cardiac
b)
smooth
c)
skeletal
69.
Involuntary muscle tissue
a)
skeletal
b)
cardiac
c)
smooth
d)
smooth and cardiac
70.
What is the correct order of organization?
a)
cells->tissue->organs->organ systems-> organism
b)
tissue->cells->organs->organ systems-> organism
c)
organs->organ systems-> organism->cells->tissue
d)
cells->tissue->organs->organism->organ system
71.
Goblet cells secrete
a)
oil
b)
sweat
c)
mucus
d)
acid
72.
What tissue is this
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
73.
Where is the pectoralis major?
a)
Chest
b)
Back
c)
Legs
d)
Arms
74.
Insertion of the Deltoid?
a)
Humerus
b)
Pubis
c)
Proximal Tibia
d)
Proximal Femur
75.
Plantar flexes the foot, flexes knee
a)
Gluteus maximus
b)
Gastrocnemius
c)
Semitendinosus
d)
tibialis anterior
76.
Flexes elbow and supinates the arm
a)
Biceps femoris
b)
triceps brachii
c)
biceps brachii
d)
deltoid
77.
Flexes elbow and supinates the arm
a)
Biceps femoris
b)
triceps brachii
c)
biceps brachii
d)
deltoid
78.
There are 4 quadriceps muscles that help with knee extension, which of the following is NOT a knee extensor?
a)
Rectus Femoris
b)
Vastus Lateralis
c)
Vastus Medialis
d)
Biceps Femoris
79.
Name this muscle. (Function: Scapular Elevation, adduction/retraction, upward rotation, depression, extend the neck)
a)
Levator Scapulae
b)
Rhomboid Major
c)
Trapezius
d)
Pectoralis Minor
80.
This muscle functions to flex and medially rotate the shoulder, abduct the arm, and extend and laterally rotate the arm.
a)
Deltoid
b)
Latissimus Dorsi
c)
Trapezius
d)
Coracobrachialis
81.
Name this tissue
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
82.
Name this tissue
a)
Skeltal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
83.
Name the tissue
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
84.
What are the three types of muscles?
a)
Cardiac, Elastic, Smooth
b)
Smooth, Curly, Skeletal
c)
Smooth, Cardiac, Skeletal
d)
None of the above
85.
What muscle is this?
a)
Biceps brachii
b)
Brachialis
c)
Bhrachioradialis
d)
Gastrocnemius
86.
A muscle attachment is called an __________ if it connects to a bone that moves during action.
a)
Insertion
b)
Origin
c)
Prime Mover
d)
Tendon
87.
A muscle attachment is called an __________ if it connects to a bone that remains immobile for an action.
a)
Muscles
b)
Insertion
c)
Origin
d)
Prime Mover
88.
__________ decreases the angle between two bones.
a)
Extension
b)
Ligament
c)
Muscle
d)
Flexion
89.
__________ increases the angle between two bones.
a)
Joint
b)
Muscle
c)
Extension
d)
Flexion
90.
Thin filaments in the microanatomy of a muscle are known as __________________.
a)
actin
b)
myosin
c)
tropomyosin
d)
troponin
91.
Thick filaments in the microanatomy of a muscle are known as __________________.
a)
actin
b)
myosin
c)
tropomyosin
d)
troponin
92.
A microscopic repeating structural unit of a muscle necessary for contraction.
a)
actin
b)
myosin
c)
sarcomere
d)
sarcolemma
93.
What ion floods troponin during muscle contraction?
a)
Ca+
b)
Fe+
c)
Na+
d)
O-
94.
What is the structure that stores the Calcium in the muscle cell.
a)
Sarcoplasm
b)
Sarcolemma
c)
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Myoglobin
95.
The Light I Band consists of...
a)
Myosin filaments only
b)
Actin filaments only
c)
Myosin and actin filaments
d)
none of the above
96.
The outside covering of the muscle is called the-
a)
epimysium
b)
endosteum
c)
perimysium
d)
tendon
97.
An entire muscle cell is called a(n)-
a)
myofibril
b)
sarcofiber
c)
myofiber
d)
myogloblin
98.
Calcium must be present for this to be moved and expose binding sites.
a)
tropomyosin
b)
actin
c)
myosin
d)
sarcomyosin
99.
List the structures of the muscle organ from smallest to largest
a)
sarcomere, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle organ
b)
fascicle, muscle organ, myofibril
c)
fascicle, sarcomere, muscle organ
100.
The neurotransmitter that signals muscle contraction is called...
a)
ACh
b)
Myosin
c)
Actin
d)
Calcium
101.
The A-band is represented by the number
a)
2
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
102.
The I band is represented by the number
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
103.
The Z disc is represented by the number
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
104.
The H-Zone is represented by the number
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
105.
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the "Fight of Flight" response?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Endorphins
c)
Norepinephrine
d)
Serotonin
106.
Which neurotransmitter inhibits brain activity?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
GABA
c)
Endorphins
d)
Dopamine
107.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate:
a)
learning and memory
b)
pain and pleasure
c)
muscle movements
d)
sleep, moods/emotions
108.
This neurotransmitter is most often associated with pleasure/reward sensations:
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
GABA
c)
Dopamine
d)
Serotonin
109.
The junction between 2 neurons is called the
a)
dendrite
b)
axon
c)
node of Ranvier
d)
synapse
110.
If a neuron responds at all, it responds completely. This is known as the
a)
threshold
b)
all-or-none response
c)
neuronal pool
d)
withdrawal reflex
111.
This is the electrical charge that travels down an axon when a neuron is firing
a)
Resting Potential
b)
Action Potential
c)
Threshold
d)
Refractory Period
112.
This is a fatty layer that prevents interference and increases the speed of impulses going down the axon
a)
Dendrites
b)
Nodes of Ranvier
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
End Bulbs
113.
These receive messages and conduct impulses to the Cell Body
a)
Axon
b)
End Bulbs
c)
Dendrites
d)
Myelin Sheath
114.
Which neurotransmitter is involved in cognition, memory, and learning, and is considered the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?
a)
GABA
b)
norepinephrine
c)
serotonin
d)
glutamate
115.
Lobe of cerebrum that processes vision
a)
Occipital
b)
Frontal
c)
Temporal
d)
Parietal
116.
Lobe of cerebrum that processes hearing?
a)
Temporal
b)
Occipital
c)
Parietal
d)
Frontal
117.
Area of cerebrum that allows us to speak
a)
Broca's Area
b)
Wernicke's area
c)
Precentral Gyrus
d)
Postcentral Gyrus
118.
Parts of the Brain Stem
a)
Pons & Cerebrum
b)
Cerebrum and Cerebellum
c)
Thalamus and Hypothalamus
d)
Pons & Medulla Oblongata
119.
What is this red bulging area?
a)
Pons
b)
Medulla Oblongata
c)
Epithalamus
d)
3rd Ventricle
120.
When the ___ is damaged it makes movement nearly or completely impossible.
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Sensory Strip
c)
Spinal Cord
d)
Hypothalamus
121.
What functions does this lobe carry out?
a)
Hearing and auditory processing
b)
Vision and visual processing
c)
Processing fear
d)
Judgment, impulse control, planning
122.
The amygdala, hypothalamus, and hippocampus are all structures that make up the
a)
limbic system
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Hind Brain
d)
parietal lobe
123.
Life sustaining functions such as heartbeat, breathing, and swallowing are controlled by which structure?
a)
pons
b)
cerebellum
c)
hypothalamus
d)
medulla
124.
Receives sensory information and relays it to the proper part of brain for further processing
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Thalamus
125.
ascending tracts
a)
sensory tracts
b)
motor tracts
126.
spinothalamic tract
a)
sensory tracts
b)
motor tracts
127.
stimulate the skeletal muscles to contract
a)
sensory tracts
b)
motor tracts
128.
corticospinal tract
a)
sensory tracts
b)
motor tracts
129.
the knee-jerk reflex; assists in maintaining balance
a)
baroreceptor reflex
b)
patellar tendon reflex
c)
withdrawal reflex
d)
Babinski reflex
130.
this reflex is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot
a)
baroreceptor reflex
b)
pupillary reflex
c)
Achilles’ tendon reflex
d)
Babinski reflex
131.
fibers that carry the signal from the spinal cord to the effector organ (muscle)
a)
afferent
b)
efferent
c)
diencephalon
d)
reflex
132.
nerve responsible for the movement of the eyeballs
a)
phrenic
b)
oculomotor
c)
olfactory
d)
trigeminal
133.
nerve responsible for the sensation of vision
a)
phrenic
b)
oculomotor
c)
optic
d)
trigeminal
134.
nerve responsible for the sensation of hearing
a)
vestibulocochlear
b)
oculomotor
c)
optic
d)
trigeminal
135.
called the “wanderer,” this tenth cranial nerve wanders throughout the abdominopelvic cavity, innervating many of the organs
a)
vestibulocochlear
b)
oculomotor
c)
hypoglossal
d)
vagus
136.
the inflammation of this seventh cranial nerve causes Bell’s palsy; facial expression is lost on the affected side of the face
a)
facial
b)
phrenic
c)
hypoglossal
d)
vagus
137.
Which of these UMN tracts will decussate in the medulla oblongata?
a)
anterior corticospinal tract
b)
lateral corticospinal tract
c)
reticulospinal tract
d)
tectospinal tract
138.
Which of these nuclei would not be in the Pons?
a)
motor nucleus of CN V
b)
facial nucleus
c)
abducens nucleus
d)
hypoglossal nucleus
139.
Which of these cranial nerves has a lower motor neuron component?
a)
Vestibulocochlear
b)
Olfactory
c)
Trigeminal
d)
Optic
140.
Which pair properly describes Lower Motor Neurons (NMJ end)?
a)
ACh, electrical transmission
b)
ACh, chemical transmission
c)
glutamate, electrical transmission
d)
glutamate, chemical transmission
141.
Which pair properly describes Lower Motor Neurons (NMJ end)?
a)
ACh, electrical transmission
b)
ACh, chemical transmission
c)
glutamate, electrical transmission
d)
glutamate, chemical transmission
142.
Which of these is an indication of Lower Motor Neuron Sydrome?
a)
Babinski's sign
b)
Loss of fine voluntary movement
c)
Increased tone
d)
Hypoactive deep reflexes
143.
Division of the ANS that is fight or flight
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
144.
Division of the ANS that's rest & digest
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
145.
What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System?
a)
Brain & Chest
b)
Spinal Cord & Spinal Nerves
c)
Brain & Spinal Cord
d)
Heart & Brain
146.
What are the two main parts of the Peripheral Nervous System?
a)
Spinal Nerves & Receptors
b)
Arms & Legs
c)
Brain & Spinal Cord
d)
Optic Nerves & Receptors
147.
What are the divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System?
a)
Sensory Division & Motor Division
b)
Central Division & Peripheral Division
c)
Somatic Division & Automatic Division
d)
Sympathetic Division & Parasympathetic Division
148.
What is the name of the Neuron that is also described as the Integration Center in the Reflex Arc?
a)
Sensory Neuron
b)
Motor Neuron
c)
Interneuron
d)
Primary Neuron
149.
What is the first step of the reflex arc?
a)
Afferent Neuron
b)
Affector
c)
Efferent Neuron
d)
Effector
150.
What is the correct sequence of the Reflex Arc?
a)
Afferent Neuron ->
Affector ->
Interneuron ->
Effector ->
Efferent Neuron
Affector ->
Interneuron ->
Effector ->
Efferent Neuron
b)
Affector ->
Afferent Neuron -> Interneuron ->
Efferent Neuron -> Effector
Afferent Neuron -> Interneuron ->
Efferent Neuron -> Effector
c)
Efferent Neuron ->
Effector ->
Interneuron ->
Affector ->
Afferent Neuron
Effector ->
Interneuron ->
Affector ->
Afferent Neuron
d)
Effector ->
Efferent Neuron ->
Interneuron ->
Afferent Neuron ->
Affector
Efferent Neuron ->
Interneuron ->
Afferent Neuron ->
Affector
151.
Which tissues are innervated by the ANS?
a)
smooth muscle
b)
neurons of the gut
c)
exocrine glands
d)
all answers are correct
152.
Where are the neuron cell bodies of the sympathetic nervous system located?
a)
medial gray horn
b)
lateral gray horn
c)
cranial nerves
d)
muscle spindle
153.
The neurotransmitter released by the preganglionic neuron of the parasympathetic nervous system is _____.
a)
acetylcholine
b)
norepinephine
c)
GABA
d)
glutamate
154.
Name the neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic neuron in the sympathetic nervous system.
a)
acetylcholine
b)
serotonin
c)
norepinephrine
d)
glutamate
155.
Albuterol, a drug taken by asthmatics that relaxes the muscles and opens the passageways of the respiratory tract, is an example of a _____.
a)
sympathomimetic drug
b)
sympatholytic drug
c)
parasympahtomi
156.
What type of paralysis is seen with upper motor neuron damage?
a)
spastic
b)
flaccid
157.
Which part of the eye provides oxygen and nourishment to the outer layers of the retina
a)
choroid
b)
Ciliary body
c)
Central fovea
d)
Vitreous humor
158.
Which type of humor is located between the iris and the inner surface of the cornea (the anterior chamber)?
a)
Aqueous humor
b)
Vitreous humor
159.
The area of the eye with the sharpest vision?
a)
Blind spot
b)
Central fovea
c)
Ciliary body
d)
Retina
160.
Which of the following structures are part of the external ear?
a)
Vestibule
b)
Cochlea
c)
Auricle
d)
Round window
161.
Which of the following structures is part of the middle ear?
a)
Tympanic membrane
b)
Cochlea
c)
Oval window
d)
Malleus
162.
What passageway connects the antrum of the ear with the nasopharynx?
a)
Malleus
b)
Incus
c)
Stapes
d)
Eustachian tube
163.
Which cranial nerve transmits the sound impulses to the brain?
a)
CN VIII
b)
CN V
c)
CN IV
d)
CN X
164.
Is there a cranial nerve that carries sympathetic nerve impulses?
a)
yes
b)
no
165.
Which type of deafness is caused by damage to the thalamus?
a)
Conduction
b)
Sensorineural
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