WorksheetsHonors Bio EOC review all
Total questions: 67
Worksheet time: 58mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the increase in temperature by sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature. Which is demonstrated in this situation?
a)
excretion
b)
metabolism
c)
homeostasis
d)
synthesis
2.
The part of the enzyme that the substrate bonds to is called the _____.
a)
active site
b)
activation energy
c)
bond site
d)
peptide bond
3.
Which biomolecule's monomer (or building block) are monosaccharides?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Nucleic Acid
4.
Which best describes the function of enzymes?
a)
to speed up chemical reactions in a cell
b)
to produce cellular energy
c)
to produce proteins
d)
to speed up cell division
5.
What is the function of this molecule in organisms?
a)
Storage of genetic information
b)
Structure and support
c)
Short term energy storage
d)
Long term energy storage
6.
What type of organic molecules are enzymes?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
7.
A membrane that keeps out some molecules but allows others to pass:
a)
semi-permeable
b)
permeable
c)
diffusion
d)
concentration gradient
8.
In a cell, what does a buffer help maintain?
a)
A constant temperature
b)
A low temperature
c)
A constant pH
d)
A low pH
9.
This diagram shows a plant cell. Which structure is found in a plant cell but is absent in an animal cell?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
10.
Which list includes only structures that would be found in a prokaryotic cell?
a)
Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria
b)
Central vacuole, cell wall, lysosome
c)
Cell wall, plasma membrane, cytoplasm
d)
Plasma membrane, nucleus, mitochondria
11.
What type of cell is shown?
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic
c)
bacterial
d)
protist
12.
What is the movement of molecules or solutes from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?
a)
osmosis
b)
active transport
c)
merging
d)
diffusion
13.
Which of these requires ATP?
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
stasis
14.
What type of cell is shown?
a)
Eukaryotic because it has a nucleus
b)
Eukaryotic because it lacks a nucleus
c)
Prokaryotic because it has a nucleus
d)
Prokaryotic because it lacks a nucleus
15.
What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell?
a)
It will be unable to carry out respiration.
b)
It will lose water through osmosis.
c)
It will break down ribosomes in the cell
d)
It will be unable to photosynthesize.
16.
A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?
a)
They will swell because water will move into them.
b)
They will swell because salt will move into them
c)
They will shrink because water will move out of them.
d)
They will shrink because salt will move out of them.
17.
Which process uses ATP to move materials across the plasma membrane against the concentration gradient?
a)
passive transport
b)
active transport
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
osmosis
18.
How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?
a)
Aerobic respiration results in less energy.
b)
Aerobic respiration results in more energy.
c)
Each process results in equal amounts of energy.
d)
Each process results in variable amounts of energy.
19.
Cellular energy is produced in the membrane of this organelle.
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
lysosome
20.
This organelle packages proteins for export from the cell.
a)
Golgi apparatus
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
ribosome
d)
lysosome
21.
This organelle would NOT be found in animal cells.
a)
cell membrane
b)
nucleus
c)
lysosome
d)
chloroplast
22.
This organelle contains enzymes that help digest and break down unwanted cellular materials.
a)
Golgi body
b)
lysosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
vacuole
23.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
glucose and carbon dioxide
c)
glucose and water
d)
water, carbon dioxide, and energy
24.
What process best explains how a nerve cell and a muscle cell can both develop from the same fertilized egg?
a)
differentiation
b)
natural selection
c)
selective breeding
d)
genetic engineering
25.
Before mitosis begins, which happens before the nucleus starts dividing?
a)
The cytoplasm separates.
b)
The DNA replicates.
c)
The sister chromatids separate.
d)
The homologous chromosomes cross over.
26.
During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?
a)
cytokinesis
b)
anaphase
c)
prophase
d)
interphase
27.
What is the end result of mitosis
a)
2 cells that are identical to the parent cell
b)
2 cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
c)
4 cells that are identical to the parent cell
d)
4 cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
28.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
29.
Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?
a)
It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have triple the chromosome number of the organism.
b)
It allows gametes to have twice the original number of chromosomes of the organism.
c)
It allows gametes to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.
d)
It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.
30.
What is a gene?
a)
An entire chromosome that codes for a trait
b)
a piece of clothing
c)
a piece of a DNA on chromosome that codes for a trait
d)
Chemical messengers in your brain that code for a trait
31.
_____________________ is the physical expression of a trait, or how it looks
a)
phenotype
b)
ratio
c)
recessive trait
d)
heredity
32.
What would the phenotype be for the offsprings? T is dominant for tall pea plants
a)
50% tall, 50% short
b)
25% tall, 75% short
c)
100% tall, 0% short
d)
75% tall, 25% short
33.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
34.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
35.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
36.
How is this trait inherited?
a)
autosomal dominant
b)
autosomal recessive
c)
x-linked dominant
d)
x-linked recessive
37.
How many carrier females are in the third generation?
a)
4
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
38.
Looking at the karyotype, is this person male or female, and how do you know?
a)
There is no way to tell from a karyotype.
b)
Male - has two X's
c)
female - has two X's
d)
Male - has an X and Y
39.
Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA, and cells?
a)
Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA
b)
Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.
c)
DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function.
d)
Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins.
40.
What are the subunits of DNA and their function?
a)
nucleotides that store information
b)
monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell
c)
lipids that store energy and provide insulation
d)
proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of organisms
41.
A strand of DNA has these bases:
AGC CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary DNA strand?
AGC CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary DNA strand?
a)
ACG GAT CTA TAG
b)
TCG GTA CAT ATG
c)
TGC CTA GAT ATC
d)
UCG CUA CAU AUG
42.
How is do RNA and DNA differ?
a)
DNA contains adenine, RNA contains thymine
b)
DNA contains a sugar and RNA does not
c)
DNA is double stranded, RNA is single stranded
d)
DNA is found in the cytoplasm, RNA is only in the nucleus
43.
Which one shows the correct pairing of bases in DNA??
a)
A and C, T and G
b)
A and G, C and T
c)
A and T, C and G
d)
A and C, T and G
44.
Transcription takes place in the ___________, while translation takes place in the __________.
a)
cytoplasm; nucleus
b)
mitochondria; chloroplast
c)
nucleus; cytoplasm
d)
cell membrane; cellular matrix
45.
The process of using an mRNA to make a protein is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Cell Division
46.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
47.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAG?
a)
Aspartic Acid
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
48.
What type of mutation is represented in the second strand of DNA?
TACGGCACT
TACGGAACT
TACGGCACT
TACGGAACT
a)
Deletion
b)
Insertion
c)
Substitution
d)
No mutation
49.
Which technique would most likely be used by forensic scientists?
a)
gene cloning
b)
gene therapy
c)
DNA fingerprinting
d)
karyotyping
50.
Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms?
a)
to create new species of organisms
b)
to control microorganisms in the soil
c)
to prevent habitats from being destroyed
d)
to treat certain types of diseases
51.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells.
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells.
c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells.
d)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart.
52.
Which statement most correctly describes the difference between viruses and a bacteria?
a)
Bacteria are pathogens and viruses are not.
b)
Bacteria have a nucleus and viruses do not.
c)
Bacteria can spread throughout the body and viruses cannot.
d)
Bacteria are living and viruses are not.
53.
Which process produces the most variation within a species?
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Sexual reproduction
c)
mitosis
d)
cloning
54.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
The dorsal fin of a whale
c)
The fins of sharks
d)
the wings of an ostrich
55.
Physical separation of a population, leading to speciation.
a)
reproductive isolation
b)
geographic isolation
c)
speciation
d)
gene pool
56.
The use of pesticides on crops has been a common farming practice for decades. What has been the greatest effect of natural selection through the use of pesticides on certain insect populations?
a)
Natural selection has been altered because the insects and their predators are killed.
b)
The rate of selection is increased because the pesticides do not kill the insects that are naturally resistant to it.
c)
The rate of selection has decreased because the pesticides kill only young insects.
d)
The pesticides have altered natural selection by causing the insect DNA to spontaneously mutate.
57.
What trait separates sharks from ray-finned fish?
a)
Vertebrae
b)
Bony skeleton
c)
Four limbs
d)
None
58.
According to the phylogenetic tree shown, What traits do crocodiles and amphibians have in common?
a)
Vertebrae and hair
b)
Four limbs and amniotic eggs
c)
Bony skeleton and vertebrae
d)
Amniotic eggs and hair
59.
According to the diagram, when did the common ancestor of giant pandas and spectacled bears exist?
a)
5-10 mya
b)
10-15 mya
c)
15-20 mya
d)
20-25 mya
60.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
61.
What will most likely happen if the human population continues to grow at current rates?
a)
There will be fewer natural resources available for future generations.
b)
There will be an increase in nitrogen levels in the atmosphere.
c)
There will be a decrease in water pollution.
d)
There will be an increase in the number of strong hurricanes.
62.
What type of growth is shown by the human population?
a)
Carrying capacity
b)
Logistical
c)
Exponential
d)
Stabilizing
63.
Symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit:
a)
competition
b)
Mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
energy pyramid
64.
Two different populations of birds live in the same area and eat the same types of food. Which most likely describes the relationship between these two populations of birds?
a)
competition
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predator-prey
65.
The yucca plant releases a strong scent at night when the yucca moth is active. The yucca moth, attracted by the scent, gathers pollen from the yucca flower. The yucca moth then deposits her eggs and the pollen on another plant. This ensures that the plant will be cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth larvae have a steady food supply. Which relationship does this BEST illustrate?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
66.
Which process of the carbon cycle removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
a)
photosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
combustion of fossil fuels
d)
death and decomposing organisms
67.
What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?
a)
to use oxygen to produce glucose
b)
to take in excess water
c)
to use carbon dioxide to produce glucose
d)
to feed on herbivores
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