WorksheetsBiology B
Total questions: 111
Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Why do scientists use the scientific method?
a)
To make sure they get credit for their discoveries.
b)
To make sure their results are valid and can be performed by other scientists.
c)
So that other scientist don't get mad at them
2.
True or False: Your hypothesis can never be wrong.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
If plants are exposed to sunlight, then they will grow taller.
What part of the scientific method is this an example of?
What part of the scientific method is this an example of?
a)
Procedure
b)
Hypothesis
c)
Question
d)
Results
4.
What step does every scientific experiment begin with?
a)
hypothesis
b)
question/problem
c)
procedures
d)
conclusion
5.
The summary at the end of an experiment that explains the results.
a)
conclusion
b)
procedures
c)
materials
d)
hypothesis
6.
Observations made during an experiment are considered:
a)
data
b)
problems
c)
conclusions
d)
questions
7.
What is a hypothesis?
a)
an educated guess stating what you believe will be the result of your experiement
b)
a random guess
c)
a statement of the outcome of your experiment
d)
step by step directions for your experiment
8.
The independent variable is the ONE thing you _____.
a)
change on purpose
b)
control or keep constant
c)
measure
9.
B=brown eyes
b= blue eyes
What is true about two brothers that have brown eyes?
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
b= blue eyes
What is true about two brothers that have brown eyes?
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
a)
they have same phenotype and genotype
b)
they have different genotypes and phenotypes
c)
they have same phenotype but different genotypes
d)
they have same genotype but different phenotypes
10.
A dog gives birth to 5 puppies. What percentage of the chromosomes does each puppy share with the mother?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
11.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
12.
If a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what are the possible genotypes of the future offspring?
a)
100% Tt
b)
50% Tt, 50% tt
c)
75%Tt, 25%tt
d)
25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt
13.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
14.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
15.
A corn plant heterozygous for tall sprouts mates with a corn plant with short sprouts. If tall sprouts are dominant, how many different phenotypes are possible in the offspring?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
16.
A heterozygous yellow pea plant's genotype would be:
a)
YY
b)
yy
c)
Yy
d)
Yg
17.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
18.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
19.
What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
offspring are identical to parents
b)
offspring are resistant to viruses
c)
offspring are born live, rather thna from eggs
d)
offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information
20.
How many times in meiosis does the cell divided?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
3
d)
1
21.
When two haploid sex fuse together during fertilization they become ______________
a)
haploid cells
b)
meiosis
c)
mitochondria
d)
diploid cells
22.
The sex of an offspring is determined by ______________________.
a)
the mother
b)
the father
c)
the mother and the father
d)
by the environment
23.
W=white hair
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
a)
none
b)
3/4
c)
1/2
d)
all
24.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; what you see.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
25.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
26.
The inherited combination of alleles is known as the offspring's
a)
heredity
b)
phenotype
c)
genotype
d)
redigree
27.
An organism's appearance is known as its
a)
heredity
b)
phenotype
c)
genotype
d)
pedigree
28.
Sex cells are produced through the process of
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
binary fission
d)
meiosis
29.
Who is the father of evolution?
a)
Darwin
b)
Mendel
c)
Newton
d)
Einstein
30.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
31.
What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
32.
When all of the organisms of a species have died it is called
a)
evolution
b)
extinction
c)
adaptation
d)
natural selection
33.
What is the study of organisms at the early stages of development?
a)
DNA studies
b)
embryology
c)
extinction
d)
fossil record
34.
What is an organism that has similar characteristics and can reproduce?
a)
species
b)
organism
c)
embryology
d)
vestigial
35.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
36.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
37.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light
b)
dark
38.
When the DNA of an organism is altered it is referred to as…
a)
Mutation
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Sexual Selection
39.
When individuals choose traits possessed by the opposite sex it is called…
a)
Mutation
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Sexual Selection
40.
The cause of artificial selection is…
a)
The environment
b)
Humans
c)
Mutation
d)
Gene Flow
41.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
42.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
43.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?
a)
Evolution
b)
Variation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
44.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
45.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
46.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
47.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
48.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
49.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
50.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
fitness
51.
An organism that produces its own food supply from inorganic compounds is called a(an)
a)
heterotroph
b)
consumer
c)
detritivore
d)
autotroph
52.
What is the original source of almost all energy in most ecosystems?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
sunlight
c)
water
d)
carbon
53.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
54.
Autotrophs make up the _______ level in all ecosystems.
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
55.
which symbiosis is this
a)
parasitism
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
d)
nonalism
56.
symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit
a)
competition
b)
Mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
energy pyramid
57.
A living relationship between two species in which one organism is harmed is called...
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
niche
58.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms.
d)
How carnivores get their food.
59.
The image provided is an example of a(n):
a)
Carnivore
b)
Herbivore
c)
Producer
d)
Autotroph
60.
An illustration that uses arrows to show the many possible directions in which matter and energy can pass through the organisms in an ecosystem.
a)
Food chain
b)
Food web
c)
Energy Pyramid
d)
Succession Map
61.
The nonliving aspects of an ecosystem.
a)
Abiotic factors
b)
Biotic factors
62.
The living portions of the ecosystem.
a)
Biotic factors
b)
Abiotic factors
63.
A collection of organisms that belong to different populations but all live in the same area and interact with one another.
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Ecosphere
64.
A place where an organism lives.
a)
Terrain
b)
Habitat
c)
Community
d)
Population
65.
A collection of organisms that make up a community as well as all of the nonliving aspects of the environment.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecosystem
66.
Organisms that can capture energy from inorganic, nonliving sources.
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Detritivores
d)
Carnivores
67.
Organisms that feed on both living producers and other consumers.
a)
Carnivores
b)
Omnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Detritivores
68.
An organism at the second trophic level would be considered a...
a)
Top carnivore
b)
Producer
c)
Herbivore
d)
Carnivore
69.
An organism at the second trophic level would be considered a...
a)
Top carnivore
b)
Producer
c)
Herbivore
d)
Carnivore
70.
A graphic illustration that shows each trophic level and the amount of useable energy contained within.
a)
Food chain
b)
Food web
c)
Energy Pyramid
d)
All of these
71.
The chewing and grinding of food into smaller pieces is an example of...
a)
Mechanical Digestion
b)
Chemical Digestion
72.
Bile is made by which digestive organ?
a)
Gallbladder
b)
Stomach
c)
Rectum
d)
Liver
73.
Nutrients from digested food are absorbed in which digestive organ?
a)
Small Intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Large Intestine
d)
Gallbladder
74.
Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive tract? (Hint: Identify the secondary organ.)
a)
Mouth
b)
Esophagus
c)
Small Intestine
d)
Liver
75.
Which organ pushes food down to the stomach?
a)
Mouth
b)
Esophagus
c)
Rectum
d)
Large intestine
76.
Which body system gets ride of solid waste?
a)
Excretory (Urinary)
b)
Digestive
c)
Circulatory
d)
Respiratory
77.
As waste moves through the digestive system, the ______ absorbs water before storing waste in the rectum.
a)
Small intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Esophagus
d)
Large intestine
78.
What is the substance found in the stomach that allows for chemical digestion to take place?
a)
Gastric Juices
b)
Saliva
c)
Bile
79.
Which is NOT a function of the Digestive System?
a)
To rid the body of solid waste
b)
Absorb nutrients for energy & growth
c)
Break down nutrients from food
d)
Pump blood around the body
80.
Which secondary organ makes digestive juices like insulin to help absorb food in the small intestine?
a)
Large intestine
b)
Pancreas
c)
Liver
d)
Gallbladder
81.
Gastric juices in the stomach digest food into a thick liquid. This is...
a)
Mechanical digestion
b)
Chemical digestion
82.
Enzymes (chemicals) in your saliva help break down food while chewing. This is...
a)
Mechanical digestion
b)
Chemical digestion
83.
Most chemical digestion takes place in which organ?
a)
Stomach
b)
Small intestine
c)
Rectum
d)
Esophagus
84.
True/False: Your body cannot make antibodies for pathogens that you have never been in contact with.
a)
True, because your body needs to encounter the pathogen at least once in order to create the antibodies.
b)
False, because you can make antibodies via immunizations given by a doctor.
85.
What is the function of antibodies within the immune system?
a)
Antibodies kill off any antigen that enters the body.
b)
Antibodies are only made when you are given a vaccination for specific antigens.
c)
Antibodies bind to specific antigens to flag for destruction.
d)
Antibodies are part of an external defense mechanism.
86.
Which of the following statements are TRUE about vaccinations?
a)
Allow B cells to make antibodies for any type of antigen the body comes in contact with.
b)
Triggers the body to make memory cells for specific pathogens.
c)
They are substances prepared from killed or weakened pathogens.
d)
Always allows the body to resist an infectious disease any time it comes into contact with it.
87.
What happens after the second time you are exposed to a pathogen?
a)
The body will not be able to fight off the pathogen quickly, because it knows how to get into the body easier.
b)
The body's immune system will react the same was as it did during the first exposure.
c)
The body can only be exposed to a pathogen a second time if you do not have a vaccine.
d)
The body will know how to fight off the pathogen quickly, because memory cells have been created after the first encounter.
88.
How do T cells differ from B cells?
a)
T cells fight pathogens by killing pathogens directly, while B cells fight pathogens by making antibodies.
b)
T cells only make memory cells, and B cells only make antigens
c)
T cells fight pathogens by making antibodies, while B cells fight pathogens by killing pathogens directly.
d)
T cells can only fight off pathogens the body has encountered once, and B cells can fight off any pathogen the body comes across.
89.
Cells that ingest pathogens are
a)
plasma cells.
b)
phagocytic cells.
c)
helper T cells.
d)
antibodies.
90.
Mast cells produce __________________ which causes the inflammatory response.
a)
interleukin
b)
histamine
c)
antibodies
d)
interstitial fluid
91.
A nonspecific defensive response of the body to tissue injury characterized by dilation of blood vessels and swelling.
a)
immunity
b)
interferon
c)
immunization
d)
inflammation
92.
T cells that kill infected cells are
a)
cytotoxic T's.
b)
helper T's.
c)
plasma cells.
d)
antigen presenting cell.
93.
What is another name for B cells that produce antibodies?
a)
plasma cells
b)
memory cells
c)
natural killer cells
d)
macrophages
94.
All of the following are aspects of inflammation except:
a)
constriction of blood vessels
b)
phagocytes and neutrophils produce cytokines that signal the brain to produce a fever
c)
increase in permeability of blood vessels
d)
pain
95.
A key part of the humoral immune response is
a)
the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
b)
the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
c)
perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
d)
the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
96.
Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
a)
memory cells.
b)
macrophages.
c)
stem cells.
d)
B cells.
97.
Antibodies are
a)
carbohydrates.
b)
amino acids.
c)
lipids.
d)
proteins.
98.
HIV attacks and kills which of the following?
a)
Plasma B cells
b)
Memory B cells
c)
Helper T cells
d)
Cytotoxic T cells
99.
Antibiotics do not work on
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
fungi
d)
children
100.
Make new bone and help repair damage.
a)
Osteoblast
b)
Osteoclast
c)
Osteocytes
d)
Osetoblank
101.
Osteocytes
a)
Make new bone and help repair damage
b)
–Carry nutrients and waste products to and
from blood vessels in the bone.
c)
They grow within the bone to aid in
flexibility.
d)
Break down bone and help to sculpt and
shape it.
102.
Osteo means?
a)
Bone
b)
Bone tissue
c)
skin
d)
tissue
103.
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
a)
Thigh, Calf, & Shoulder
b)
Traps, Forearm, & Abs
c)
Hamstring, Biceps, & Triceps
d)
Smooth Muscle, Cardiac Muscle, & Skeletal Muscle
104.
Which muscle type is found in your stomach, bladder, and intestines?
a)
Skeletal
b)
Smooth
c)
Cardiac
d)
Straight
105.
Which type of muscle is found in your heart?
a)
Skeletal
b)
Smooth
c)
Cardiac
d)
Straight
106.
Which muscles are involuntary?
a)
skeletal
b)
cardiac
c)
smooth
d)
smooth and cardiac
107.
When a muscle contracts, it _______
a)
gets longer
b)
gets shorter
c)
gets thinner
d)
grows hair
108.
Skeletal muscles are attached to the _________.
a)
Stomach
b)
Lungs
c)
Bones
d)
Involuntary Muscles
109.
Cardiac muscles are ONLY located in the heart
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
110.
The cardiac muscle is
a)
Voluntary
b)
Involuntary
111.
The smooth muscle is located
a)
In the heart
b)
Bones
c)
Head
d)
Within organs
100 %
