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Worksheets

Comprehensive Practice

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about a controlled experiment is true?

a)

All variables must be kept the same

b)

Only one variable is tested at a time

c)

Everything can be studied by setting up a controlled experiment

d)

Controlled experiments cannot be performed on living thing

2.

A scientific theory is

a)

the same as a hypothesis

b)

a well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations

c)

the same as the conclusion of an experiment

d)

the first step of a controlled experiment

3.

The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions relatively stable is called

a)

metabolism

b)

a genome

c)

evolution

d)

homeostasis

4.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starch. The optimum pH for this reaction is 6.7. The rate of this reaction would NOT be affected by which action?

a)

maintaining the pH of the reaction at 6.7

b)

increasing the concentration of the substrate

c)

increasing the concentration of the substrate

d)

decreasing the temperature of the reaction by 5°C

5.

How do lipids mainly function in living organisms?

a)

as sources of stored energy

b)

as inorganic compounds

c)

as catalysts of chemical reactions

d)

as transmitters of genetic information

6.

What subunits of the molecule are shown?

a)

fatty acid

b)

nucleotide

c)

amino acid

d)

monosaccharide

7.

During replication, the strands of a double-stranded DNA molecule separate from each other when a set of bonds are broken. What did these bonds join together?

a)

phosphate groups

b)

5-carbon sugars

c)

amino acids

d)

nitrogenous bases

8.

During replication, which sequence of nucleotides would bond with the DNA sequence TATGA?

a)

TATGA

b)

ATACT

c)

CACTA

d)

AGTAT

9.

The scientist(s) responsible for the discovery of bacterial transformation is (are)

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Avery

c)

Griffith

d)

Franklin

10.

The two "backbones" of the DNA molecule consist of

a)

adenines and sugars

b)

phosphates and sugars

c)

adenines and thymines

d)

thymines and sugars

11.

When prokaryotic cells copy their DNA, replication begins at

a)

one point of the DNA molecule

b)

two points on the opposite ends of the DNA molecule

c)

dozens to hundreds of points along the molecule

d)

opposite ends of the molecule

12.

The enzyme that unwinds DNA during DNA replication

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

heliocase

c)

helicase

d)

RNA polymerase

13.

This enzyme adds new nucleotides during transcription

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

RNA helicase

d)

Amylase

14.

This enzyme adds new nucleotides during DNA replication

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA helicase

d)

Amylase

15.

How does RNA differ from DNA?

a)

RNA contains uracil and deosyribose

b)

RNA contains ribose and thymine

c)

RNA contains uracil and ribose

d)

RNA contains adenine and ribose

16.

Using the chart, Which of the following codons signifies the end of translation?

a)

CAA

b)

UGA

c)

AUC

d)

CCA

17.

Which of the chains of amino acids corresponds to the nucleotide sequence UCAAGCGUA?

a)

glu-cys-pro

b)

glu-asp-"stop"

c)

thr-arg-met

d)

ser-ser-val

18.

In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA molecules are made from

a)

exons spliced together after introns are removed

b)

introns spliced together after exons are removed

c)

exons spliced together with introns

d)

long pieces of RNA shortened by the Dicer enzyme

19.

Which of the following describes how ALL consumers get their energy?

a)

directly from the sun

b)

from eating primary producers

c)

from inorganic chemicals like hydrogen sulfide

d)

from eating organisms that are living or were once living

20.

The total amount of living tissue at each trophic level in an ecosystem can be shown in a (an)

a)

energy pyramid

b)

pyramid of numbers

c)

biomass pyramid

d)

biogeochemical cycle

21.

Nutrients move through an ecosystem in

a)

biogeochemical cycles

b)

water cycles

c)

energy pyramids

d)

ecological pyramids

22.

An increase in the greenhouse effect causes and increase in

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

temperature

d)

water

23.

A relationship in which an organism is helped and another organism is neither helped nor hurt is called

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

competition

d)

commensalism

24.

Fires, hurricanes, and other natural distrubances can result in

a)

commensalism

b)

competition

c)

parasitism

d)

succession

25.

The first organisms to repopulate an area affected by a volcanic eruption are called

a)

keystone species

b)

climax species

c)

primary producers

d)

pioneer species

26.

The number of individuals of a single species per unit area is known as

a)

carrying capacity

b)

logistic growth

c)

population density

d)

population growth rate

27.

The area inhabited by a population is known as its

a)

growth rate

b)

geographic range

c)

age structure

d)

population density

28.

The maximum number of organisms of a particular species that can be supported by an environment is called

a)

logistic growth

b)

carrying capacity

c)

exponential growth

d)

population density

29.

The demographic transition is considered complete when

a)

population growth stops

b)

the birthrate is greater than the death rate

c)

the death rate begins to fall

d)

the death rate is greater than the birthrate

30.

Which of the following human activities has NOT had an important role in transforming the biosphere to date?

a)

agriculture

b)

industry

c)

development

d)

aquaculture

31.

The conversion of a once soil-rich area to an area of little or no vegetation is called

a)

fragmentation

b)

deforestation

c)

desertification

d)

acid rain

32.

The concept of using natural resources at a rate that does not deplete them is called

a)

conservation

b)

sustainable development

c)

reforestation

d)

successful use

33.

The burning of fossil fuels is a direct cause of each of the following EXCEPT

a)

acid rain

b)

global warming

c)

smog

d)

the ozone hole

34.

In many cells, the structure the controls the cell's activities is the

a)

cell membrane

b)

organelle

c)

nucleus

d)

nuclear pores

35.

Despite difference in size and shape, at some point all cells have DNA and a

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

nuclues

36.

What distinguishes a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cells is the presence of

a)

a cell wall

b)

a nucleus

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

37.

Cell membranes consist mainly of

a)

lipid bilayers

b)

protein pumps

c)

carbohydrates

d)

proteins

38.

Which of the following is true of ALL single-celled organisms?

a)

They are all prokaryotes

b)

They are all bacteria

c)

They all reproduce

d)

They all have a nucleus

39.

The movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane is known as

a)

exocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

endocytosis

d)

osmosis

40.

A substance that moves by passive transport tends to move

a)

away from the area of equilibrium

b)

away from an are less concentrated

c)

away from an area where it is more concentrated

d)

toward the area where it is more concentrated

41.

Which of the following are autotrophs?

a)

deer

b)

plants

c)

leopards

d)

mushrooms

42.

The principle chemical compound that livings things use to store energy is

a)

DNA

b)

ATP

c)

H2O

d)

CO2

43.

In addition to light and chlorophyll, photosynthesis requires

a)

water and oxygen

b)

water and sugars

c)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

water and carbon dioxide

44.

The leaves of aplant appear green because chlorophyll

a)

reflects blue light

b)

absorbs blue light

c)

reflects green light

d)

absorbs green light

45.

The first process in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is

a)

light absorption

b)

electron transport

c)

oxygen production

d)

ATP formation

46.

The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis are known as the

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

sugar cycle

c)

carbon cycle

d)

ATP cycle

47.

The process that releases energy from food in the presence of oxygen is

a)

synthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

ATP synthase

d)

photosynthesis

48.

The first step in releasing the energy of glucose in the cell in known as

a)

fermentation

b)

glycolysis

c)

the Krebs cycle

d)

electron transport

49.

The net gain of energy from glycolysis is

a)

4 ATP molecules

b)

2 ATP molecules

c)

8 ADP molecules

d)

3 pyruvic acid molecules

50.

The Krebs cycle takes place within the

a)

chloroplast

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytoplasm

51.

The electron transport chain uses high-energy electrons from the Krebs cycle to

a)

produce glucose

b)

move H+ ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

convert acetyle-CoA to citric acid

d)

convert glucose to pyruvic acid

52.

Because fermentation takes place in the absence of oxygen, it is said to be

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

c)

cyclic

d)

oxygen-rich

53.

The process carried out by yeast that causes bread dough to rise is

a)

alcoholic fermentation

b)

lactic acid fermentation

c)

cellular respiration

d)

yeast mitosis

54.

During heavy exercise, the buildup of lactic acid in muscle cells results in

a)

cellular respiration

b)

oxygen debt

c)

fermentation

d)

the Krebs cycle

55.

The process that increases genetic diversity within a population is

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

cell division

d)

binary fission

56.

Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area called the

a)

centriole

b)

spindle

c)

centromere

d)

chromosome

57.

In plant cells, what forms midway between the divided nuclei during cytokinesis

a)

nuclear membrane

b)

centromere

c)

cell membrane

d)

cell plate

58.

Which of the following is the correct order of mitosis

a)

metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase

b)

interphase, prophase, anaphase,telophase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

59.

Which type of cell has the potential to develop into any type of cell?

a)

totipotent

b)

pluripotent

c)

multipotent

d)

differetiated

60.

A situation in which a gene has more than two alleles is known as

a)

complete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

polygenic dominance

d)

multiple alleles

61.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of

a)

one haploid gamete

b)

three diploid gametes

c)

four diploid gametes

d)

four haploid gametes

62.

Suppose that an organism has the diploid number 2N=8. How many chromosomes do this organism's gametes contain?

a)

four

b)

two

c)

eight

d)

sixteen

63.

Which of the following disorders can be observed in a human karyotype?

a)

color blindness

b)

trisomy 21

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

sickle cell disease

64.

A normal human diploid zygote contains

a)

23 chromosomes

b)

46 chromosomes

c)

44 chromosomes

d)

XXY chromosomes

65.

Organisms that contain genes from other organisms are called

a)

transgenic

b)

mutagenic

c)

donors

d)

clones

66.

When cell transformation is successful, the recombinant DNA

a)

undergoes mutation

b)

is treated with antibiotics

c)

becomes part of the transformed cell's genome

d)

becomes a nucleus

67.

Which of the following characteristics is often genetically engineered into crop plants?

a)

improved flavor

b)

resistance to herbicides

c)

shorter ripening times

d)

thicker stems

68.

To separate DNA fragments from one another, scientists use

a)

polyermase chain reaction

b)

DNA microarrays

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

restriction enzymes

69.

Genetic markers allow scientists to

a)

clone animals

b)

spearate strands of DNA

c)

synthesize antibiotics

d)

identify transformed cells

70.

Which of the following ideas proposed by Lamark was later found to be incorrect?

a)

acquired characteristics can be inherited

b)

all species are descended from other species

c)

living things change over time

d)

there is a relationship between and organism and its environment

71.

An inherited characteristic that increases and organisms's ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is a (an)

a)

vestigial structure

b)

adaptation

c)

speciation

d)

analogous structure

72.

Structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissue are called

a)

analogous

b)

adaptations

c)

homologous

d)

fossils

73.

The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population forms a

a)

gene pool

b)

niche

c)

phenotype

d)

population

74.

The type of selection in which individuals of average size have greater fitness than small or large individuals have is called

a)

disruptive selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

neutral selection

75.

A random change in a population's allele frequency is known as

a)

genetic drift

b)

a gene pool

c)

variation

d)

fitness

76.

Temporal isolation occurs when two different populations

a)

develop different mating behaviors

b)

become geographically separated

c)

reproduce at different times

d)

interbreed

77.

When two populations no longer interbreed, what is the result?

a)

genetic equilibrium

b)

reproductive isolation

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

artificial selection

78.

The science of naming and grouping organisms is called

a)

anatomy

b)

systematics

c)

botany

d)

paleontology

79.

Solely from its name, you know that Rhizopus nigricans must be

a)

a plant

b)

an animal

c)

in the genus Nigricans

d)

in the genus Rhizopus

80.

A specific trait that is used to construct a cladogram is called a

a)

taxon

b)

structural feature

c)

clade

d)

derived characteristic

81.

A branch of a cladogram that consists of a single common ancestor and all the descendants of that ancestor is called

a)

cladistics

b)

a kingdom

c)

a clade

d)

a class

82.

The three domains are

a)

animalia, plantae, and archaebacteria

b)

plantae, fungi, and eukarya

c)

bacteria, archaea, eukarya

d)

protista, bacteria, animalia

83.

Which of the following kingdoms includes only heterotrophs?

a)

protista

b)

fungi

c)

plantae

d)

eubacteria

84.

Which of the following is a characteristic specific of primates?

a)

body hair

b)

rotation at the shoulder joint

c)

notochord

d)

ability to control body temperature

85.

How many hominine species exist today?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

nine

d)

twelve

86.

Hominoids include all great apes. The hominoids in the lineage that led to humans are called

a)

hominines

b)

humanoids