WorksheetsAP EXAM & FINAL EXAM REVIEW
Total questions: 250
Worksheet time: 3hrs 48mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
involved in biological clock and seasonal activities
a)
insulin
b)
melatonin
c)
oxytocin
d)
thyroxine
2.
increase blood sugar
a)
glucagon
b)
insulin
c)
PTH
d)
ACTH
3.
stimulate development of male reproductive system
a)
ACTH
b)
androgens
c)
ADH
d)
epinephrine
4.
stimulate adrenal cortex to synthesize corticosteroids
a)
ACTH
b)
androgens
c)
ADH
d)
calcitonin
5.
increase available energy, heart rate, metabolism
a)
melatonin
b)
oxytocin
c)
epinephrine
d)
thyroxine
6.
regulate metabolism, growth, and development
a)
insulin
b)
PTH
c)
thyroxine
d)
androgens
7.
lower blood calcium levels
a)
ACTH
b)
androgens
c)
ADH
d)
calcitonin
8.
increase reabsorption of water by kidney
a)
ACTH
b)
ADH
c)
PTH
d)
glucagon
9.
stimulate contraction of uterus, milk secretion
a)
melatonin
b)
oxytocin
c)
thyroxine
d)
androgens
10.
Hormone that stimulates milk production
a)
Prolactin
b)
Oxytocin
c)
Progesterone
d)
Estrogen
11.
Hormone that increases heart rate during the "fight or flight" response
a)
Epinephrine
b)
Insulin
c)
Glucagon
d)
Parathyroid Hormone
12.
Hormone that stimulates the kidneys to retain water
a)
Antidiuretic hormone
b)
Insulin
c)
Oxytocin
d)
Parathyroid Hormone
13.
Hormone that stimulates the bones to store excess calcium
a)
Calcitonin
b)
Parathyroid Hormone
c)
Insulin
d)
Glucagon
14.
Hormone that stimulates the bones to break down to increase blood calcium levels
a)
Parathyroid Hormone
b)
Thyroid Hormone
c)
Calcitonin
d)
Insulin
15.
stimulates thyroid to secrete thyroxine and triiodothyronine
a)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b)
thyroxine
c)
calcitonin
d)
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
16.
secreted in response to light and is involved in circadian rhythms
a)
growth hormone (GH)
b)
cortisol
c)
progesterone
d)
melatonin
17.
causes kidneys to conserve Na+ and water and excrete K+
a)
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b)
aldosterone
c)
cortisol
d)
melatonin
18.
promotes uterine lining growth and maintenance in women
a)
progesterone
b)
testosterone
c)
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
19.
increases metabolic rate, stimulates lipid utilization
a)
estrogen
b)
thyroxine
c)
testosterone
d)
growth hormone (GH)
20.
lowers blood sugar
a)
calcitonin
b)
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c)
insulin
d)
glucagon
21.
Stimulates cell division and protein synthesis
a)
growth hormone (GH)
b)
insulin
c)
epinephrine
d)
glucagon
22.
Hormone that stimulates the bones to store excess calcium
a)
Calcitonin
b)
Parathyroid Hormone
c)
Insulin
d)
Glucagon
23.
Hormone that stimulates the bones to break down to increase blood calcium levels
a)
Parathyroid Hormone
b)
Thyroid Hormone
c)
Calcitonin
d)
Insulin
24.
How might antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion be regulated by negative feedback loop?
a)
ADH seretion will be inhibited by the presence of a cut
b)
ADH secretion will incraese when the body has high concentrations of water in the blood
c)
ADH secretion will be controlled by the adrenal glands and will slow down during stressful situations
d)
ADH secretion will be inhibited when the body has a high concentration of water in the blood
25.
Which hormone will be secreted in the following situation?
a)
Insulin
b)
Glucagon
c)
Melatonin
d)
Adrenaline
26.
Think about the concept of negative feedback loops. Which of the following would most likely occur once a hormone has brought the body back into homeostasis?
a)
The hormone will continue to be secreted at high levels.
b)
The secretion of the hormone will be accelerated (sped up).
c)
Secretion of the hormone will be inhibited (slowed or stopped)
d)
The hormone will cause an immune response leading to allergic reactions
27.
This hormone from the pancreas causes cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream.
a)
Insulin
b)
Glucagon
c)
Cortisol
d)
Epinephrine
28.
Growth stimulating genes are usually being repressed by a transcription factor in plants. Auxin and gibberellin remove the repressor.
a)
True
b)
False
29.
Cytokinin signal transduction involves a G protein membrane receptor.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
Response to light in which plant stems bend toward a light source
a)
gravitropism
b)
phototropism
c)
negative gravitropism
d)
negative phototropism
31.
Testosterone
a)
thyroid
b)
anterior pituitary
c)
testes
d)
ovaries
32.
Oxytocin
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Anterior Pituitary
c)
Adrenal
d)
Thyroid
33.
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
a)
posterior pituitary
b)
hypothalamus
c)
anterior pituitary
d)
ovaries
34.
Cortisol
a)
adrenal
b)
pancreas
c)
hypothalamus
d)
pineal
35.
How do hormones travel to target cells?
a)
Blood Stream
b)
Ducts
c)
Secretory Vessicles
d)
Goblet Cells
36.
Which cells respond to hormones?
a)
Target Cells
b)
Endocrine Cells
c)
Exocrine Cells
d)
Muscles and Nerves
37.
What type of hormone enters the target cell or organ to signal it?
a)
Steroid
b)
Nonsteroid
c)
Water soluble
d)
Sebaceous
38.
What is another term for steroid hormones?
a)
Lipid Soluble
b)
Water Soluble
c)
Androgens
d)
Cholesterol
39.
Alcohol suppresses _________, which leads to dehydration.
a)
ADH
b)
ACTH
c)
TSH
d)
FSH
40.
_______ stimulates follicle development (ovaries) or stimulates sperm production (testes).
a)
FSH
b)
LH
c)
TSH
d)
ADH
41.
What endocrine disorder is the result of hyposecretion of growth hormone?
a)
Pituitary dwarfism
b)
Gigantism
c)
Cretinism
d)
Acromegaly
42.
What endocrine disorder is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormone?
a)
Pituitary dwarfism
b)
Gigantism
c)
Cretinism
d)
Grave's Disease
43.
Which gland produces these hormones: Growth Hormone, Prolactin, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH?
a)
Anterior pituitary
b)
Posterior pituitary
c)
Thyroid
d)
Parathyroid
44.
Which gland produces these hormones: Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone?
a)
Anterior pituitary
b)
Posterior pituitary
c)
Thyroid
d)
Parathyroid
45.
An r-selected population has
a)
very few offspring
b)
many offspring
c)
offspring that require a lot of parental care
d)
offspring are larger in size at birth
46.
Fire ants were introduced in this country in the early 1900s. They have spread across the southern US and have driven out the native ant species. This is due to -
a)
mimicry
b)
niche reassignment
c)
competitive exclusion
d)
symbiosis
47.
How much of the original amount of energy is available at the 2nd trophic level of an ecological pyramid?
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
impossible to determine
48.
Which of the following could occupy the first trophic level of an ecological pyramid?
a)
primary producers
b)
primary consumers
c)
herbivores
d)
carnivores
49.
Which of the following would have plants that lose their leaves in the autumn?
a)
tropical rainforest
b)
taiga
c)
tundra
d)
deciduous forest
50.
The removal of water to form a bond is called -
a)
hydrolysis
b)
dehydration synthesis
c)
oxidation
d)
exergonic
51.
Which of the following are examples of carbohydrates?
a)
glucose, glycogen, starch
b)
fats, waxes, steroids, cholesterol
c)
phospholipids
d)
DNA, RNA
52.
Which property of water describes water attracted to itself?
a)
adhesion
b)
cohesion
c)
capillary action
d)
evaporative cooling
53.
Which of the following describes water attraction to your windshield?
a)
surface tension
b)
cohesion
c)
capillary action
d)
adhesion
54.
Which of the following properties of water allows insects to walk on it and leaves to float?
a)
adhesion
b)
surface tension
c)
capillary action
55.
Which of the following is the monomer of a carbohydrate?
a)
monosaccharide
b)
amino acid
c)
glycogen
d)
nucleotide
56.
Which of the following is the monomer of a protein?
a)
amino acid
b)
pyruvic acid
c)
monosaccharide
d)
polypeptide
57.
Which type of bonds allow water to water molecule bonding?
a)
ionic
b)
covalent
c)
hydrogen
d)
peptide
58.
What does a high concentration of H ions indicate about a solution?
a)
it is acidic
b)
it is basic
c)
it is neutral
d)
it has a high pH number
59.
Disulfide bonds are formed during which of the following structures of protein formation?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quarternary
60.
A cell that contains cytoplasm and ribosomes and DNA in the nucleoid region would be a(n) -
a)
eukaryote
b)
prokaryote
c)
virus
d)
protist cell
61.
Which of the following produces protein?
a)
lysosomes
b)
SER
c)
nucleolus
d)
ribosomes
62.
Which of the following packages products made in the ER?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
ribosome
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
lysosome
63.
Which of the following produce energy for cells?
a)
lysosomes & mitochondria
b)
mitochondria & chloroplasts
c)
nucleus & Golgi apparatus
d)
SER & RER
64.
Which of the following became part of a eukaryotic cell through endosymbiosis?
a)
RER
b)
lysosome
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
65.
A solution the would cause an animal cell to lyse would be ___ to the cell.
a)
isotonic
b)
hypertonic
c)
hypotonic
66.
Which of the following uses a protein to transport materials across the plasma membrane?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
pinocytosis
d)
facilitated diffusion
67.
Which of the following processes uses cellular energy?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
68.
A solution that contains more solutes than water has a ___ water potential than a solution with less solutes.
a)
higher
b)
lower
c)
impossible to tell
d)
zero
69.
Osmosis occurs from ___ water potential to ___ water potential.
a)
higher; lower
b)
lower; higher
c)
zero; higher
d)
zero; lower
70.
Which of the following is common to all organic compounds?
a)
the presence of nitrogen
b)
the presence of carbon
c)
OH groups
d)
hydrogen bonds
71.
Which of the following supports the Endosymbiotic Theory?
a)
cells produce their own proteins
b)
glycolysis is common to all cells
c)
mitochondria contain their own DNA and ribosomes
d)
chloroplasts developed from enfoldings of the cell membrane
72.
When more energy is gained from a reaction than is used to start it, this is called -
a)
exergonic
b)
endergonic
c)
anabolic
73.
Which organic monomer is characterized by the following groups:
N-C-C
COOH and
NH2
N-C-C
COOH and
NH2
a)
monosaccharide
b)
lipid
c)
nucleic acid
d)
amino acid
74.
Which of the following are prokaryotes and have members that could survive extreme temperatures?
a)
Eubacteria
b)
Protista
c)
Fungi
d)
Archaebacteria
75.
Which of the following describes all of the organic matter in an ecosystem by mass?
a)
pyramid of energy
b)
pyramid of numbers
c)
pyramid of biomass
76.
Which of the following would not be found in plant cells?
a)
plasmodesmata
b)
centrioles
c)
cell wall
d)
mitochondria
77.
Which of the following lowers the activation energy of reactions in biological systems?
a)
cellulose
b)
glycogen
c)
enzymes
d)
triglycerides
78.
Similar organisms that live in the same area may reduce competition through
a)
resource partitioning
b)
symbiosis
c)
occupying the same niche
d)
sharing a habitat
79.
Individuals who reproduce later in life, have few offspring and die at an old age is represented in a ___ survivorship curve.
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
80.
What does the light cycle provide for the Calvin cycle?
a)
pyruvate
b)
CO2 and light
c)
ATP and NADPH
d)
electrons
81.
Carbon dioxide is used to make sugars in the...
a)
ETC
b)
Krebs cycle
c)
light cycle
d)
Calvin cycle
82.
Why does the enzyme rate plateau?
a)
the enzyme gets used up
b)
the substrate gets used up
c)
the enzyme gets degraded
d)
the enzyme gets tired
83.
Which factor does not affect enzyme rate?
a)
volume of reaction
b)
pH
c)
temperature
d)
substrate concentration
84.
What is it called when free energy released from one reaction is used to run another reaction?
a)
entropy
b)
catabolism
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
energy coupling
85.
Which is a true statement regarding cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
a)
They both use CO2
b)
They both use O2
c)
Photosynthesis uses O2 and Cellular Respiration uses CO2
d)
Photosynthesis uses CO2 and Cellular Respiration uses O2
86.
Cellular respiration is also known as...
a)
substrate-level phosphorylation
b)
oxidative phosphorylation
c)
fermentation
d)
photosynthesis
87.
Reaction rate can be calculated from this graph by the equation...
a)
time/product
b)
product/time
c)
rate/time
d)
product x time
88.
Substrates are held in the active site of an enzyme by all of the following interactions except...
a)
covalent bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
hydrophobic interactions
d)
van der Waals interactions
89.
If pyruvate couldn't move into the mitochondria by this process, it would be forced into fermentation.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
active transport
90.
Which organism has the least available energy?
a)
the plant
b)
the snail
c)
the fish
d)
the bird
91.
What pigment in the chloroplast is required to absorb light energy for photosynthesis?
a)
stroma
b)
chlorophyll
c)
lactate
d)
NADPH
92.
Where is the electron transport chain in the chloroplast?
a)
the thylakoid space
b)
the thylakoid membrane
c)
the stroma
d)
the grana
93.
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by lowering the...
a)
entropy
b)
free energy
c)
activation energy
d)
heat
94.
Rate of a reaction can be determined by measuring...
a)
increase in amount of substrate
b)
decrease in amount of substrate
c)
decrease in amount of product
d)
increase in amount of enzyme
95.
What important enzyme is the major feedback inhibition point in cellular respiration?
a)
ATP synthase
b)
phosphofructokinase
c)
Acetyl-coA
d)
pyruvate
96.
What term describes when a concentration gradient provides potential energy to drive a process?
a)
phosphorylation
b)
glycolysis
c)
thermodynamics
d)
chemiosmosis
97.
Where is the electron transport chain in the mitochondria?
a)
matrix
b)
outer membrane
c)
intermembrane space
d)
inner membrane
98.
What is another word for a producer?
a)
consumer
b)
heterotroph
c)
autotroph
d)
animal
99.
What is another word for a consumer?
a)
producer
b)
heterotroph
c)
autotroph
d)
plant
100.
Which process starts a food chain?
a)
photosynthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
cellular respiration
d)
fermentation
101.
Why is a membrane required for chemiosmosis to function properly?
a)
It requires transfer of phospholipids
b)
The membrane provides ions for the process
c)
It relies on having a barrier to set up a gradient
d)
It allows for movement of water across the membrane
102.
If pyruvate cannot be transported into the mitochondria, what happens to it?
a)
It cannot enter the Krebs cycle and is used for fermentation
b)
It enters the Krebs cycle in the cytosol/cytoplasm
c)
It goes straght to the electron transport chain
d)
It is converted into acetyl coA so that it now can enter
103.
What is another term for a reactant molecule that an enzyme works upon within its active site?
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
inhibitor
d)
activator
104.
Which of the following correctly matches the final electron acceptor to the right process?
a)
Photosynthesis--O2; Cellular Respiration--NAD+
b)
Photosynthesis--NADP+; Cellular Respiration--O2
c)
Photosynthesis--H2O; Cellular Respiration--O2
d)
Photosynthesis--O2; Cellular Respiration--H2O
105.
Which is correctly matched?
a)
Catabolism--breakdown; Anabolism--breakdown
b)
Catabolism--breakdown; Anabolism--synthesis
c)
Catabolism--synthesis; Anabolism--synthesis
d)
Catabolism--synthesis; Anabolism--breakdown
106.
What function of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle is crucial for cellular respiration?
a)
production of ATP
b)
production of electron carriers (NADH and FADH2)
c)
formation of CO2
d)
pumping of H+ ions
107.
The enzyme that creates ATP is called...
a)
ATP synthase
b)
ATP anabolase
c)
ATPase
d)
ATP tunnelase
108.
What type of biological feedback involves "Self-limiting" feedback from a product? (feedback inhibition)
a)
positive feedback
b)
thermostatic feedback
c)
negative feedback
d)
primary feedback
109.
Which step of cellular respiration is an ancient process that ALL organisms perform?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Krebs Cycle
c)
Electron Transport Chain
d)
Calvin Cycle
110.
Which is NOT evidence that supports the endosymbiosis theory?
a)
mitochondria and chloroplasts have similar size to bacteria
b)
mitochondria and chloroplasts have DNA and ribosomes
c)
mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently
d)
mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own nucleus
111.
The place, other than the active site, where activators and inhibitors bind to an enzyme is called the ________ site.
a)
competitive
b)
allosteric
c)
alterior
d)
rate
112.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
tyrosine kinase receptor
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
gated ion channel
113.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
G-protein receptor
b)
tyrosine kinase receptor
c)
gated ion channel
114.
What is the name of the signaling molecule that triggers a transduction pathway?
a)
ligand
b)
GTP
c)
kinase
d)
phosphatase
115.
What is the name of the pathway that occurs when a signal is received and then converted into a cellular response?
a)
signal transduction
b)
biochemical
c)
catabolic
d)
anabolic
116.
What is the name of the secreted molecule that influences nearby cells?
a)
local regulator
b)
insulin
c)
epinephrine
117.
What is the name of the molecule used in signal transduction pathways that readily diffuse and broadcast signals quickly?
a)
secondary messengers
b)
ligand
c)
kinases
d)
phosphatases
118.
The death signal inactivates ced-9 and triggers programmed cell death. What is this called?
a)
apoptosis
b)
gated ligand channel
c)
cell communication
d)
G-protein reception
119.
What is the name of the large relay protein that drags other relay proteins simultaneously to amplify the signal?
a)
kinases
b)
scaffolding protein
c)
phosphatases
d)
local regulator
120.
What is the name of the molecule that is used in long distance signaling; travels from one gland to another location to trigger the signal?
a)
hormone
b)
neurotransmitter
c)
ion
121.
Neurotransmitters are used in _____ signaling.
a)
synaptic
b)
paracrine
c)
juxtacrine
d)
endocrine
122.
Hormones are used in ____ signaling.
a)
endocrine
b)
juxtacrine
c)
autocrine
d)
paracrine
123.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
124.
What type of transmembrane receptor forms dimers?
a)
tyrosine kinase
b)
G-protein
c)
gated ion channel
125.
Protein kinases activate other relay proteins by adding a(n) ____ to them.
a)
phosphate
b)
ATP molecule
c)
cAMP
d)
GTP
126.
Adenylyl cyclase is used in a G-protein pathway to
a)
cause ATP to form cAMP
b)
add a phosphate to a kinase
c)
remove a phosphate from a kinase
d)
attract a ligand
127.
cAMP is degraded by the enzyme
a)
phosphodiesterase
b)
protein kinase
c)
protein phosphatase
d)
amylase
128.
Bacteria use quorum sensing when they form biofilms. This type of signaling causes
a)
aggregation of bacteria
b)
rapid growth of bacteria
c)
attraction of parasites
d)
initiation of bacterial reproduction
129.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
gated ion channel
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
tyrosine kinase receptor
130.
NADH is a ______ form of NAD+.
a)
Reduced
b)
Oxidized
c)
Catabolized
d)
Hydrolized
131.
Which organelles assemble the amino acid chain of a protein?
a)
ribosomes
b)
rough ER
c)
smooth ER
d)
nucleolus
132.
Glycolysis is a _______ process
a)
Anabolic
b)
Catabolic
c)
Single Step
d)
Strictly Eukaryotic
133.
Where does glycolysis occur?
a)
Inner mitochondrial membrane
b)
Mitochondrial Matrix
c)
Cytosol
d)
At a ribosome
134.
Which organelles folds proteins and packages them into vesicles to be shipped to other organelles to be processed?
a)
free ribosomes
b)
rough ER
c)
smooth ER
d)
golgi apparatus
135.
What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
136.
Glycolysis is a __________ process.
a)
aerobic
b)
anaerobic
c)
aerobic and anaerobic
d)
neither aerobic nor anaerobic
137.
How many ATP are gained through glycolysis?
a)
0
b)
2
c)
4
d)
30-38
138.
In an Exergonic reaction, heat is ________.
a)
Absorbed
b)
Created
c)
Destroyed
d)
Released
139.
ATP hydrolysis is _________.
a)
Exergonic
b)
Endergonic
c)
Anabolic
d)
A condensation reaction
140.
Which four structures are found in all cells?
a)
DNA, ribosomes, cytosol, and a cell membrane
b)
nucleus, ribosomes, cytosol, and a cell membrane
c)
nucleus, ribosomes, cytosol, and mitochondria
d)
DNA, cell wall, cytosol, and a cell membrane
141.
Which type of cell contains a wall made of chitin?
a)
fungal
b)
bacteria
c)
plant
d)
animal
142.
Which organelles modifies proteins and packages them into vesicles to be shipped out of the cell?
a)
free ribosomes
b)
rough ER
c)
smooth ER
d)
golgi apparatus
143.
after strenuous exercise, a muscle cell would contain decreased amounts of ______ and increased amounts of ______ ____
a)
glucose ATP
b)
ATP glucose
c)
oxygen lactic acid
d)
lactic acid ATP
144.
Which of the following organelles is responsible for storing substances in plants and some protists?
a)
vacuoles
b)
vesicles
c)
ribosomes
d)
microtubules
145.
Which organelle detoxifies substances by producing hydrogen peroxide?
a)
peroxisome
b)
chloroplast
c)
smooth ER
d)
lysosome
146.
Which of the following is NOT a structure found in the plasma membrane?
a)
vesicle
b)
phospholipid
c)
cholesterol
d)
carbohydrate
147.
The soil surrounding the roots of a plant has a water potential of -15 bars. The leaves of the plant have a water potential of -18 bars.
What will happen?
What will happen?
a)
Water will leave the plant and the plant will wilt.
b)
Water will move from the roots to the leaves of the plant.
c)
Nothing - these solutions are isotonic.
d)
IDK - What is a bar????
148.
If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt, the water is _______ compared to the cell.
a)
hypertonic-
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
149.
The mitochondria is responsible for ...
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
fermentation
150.
Which organelle is found in animal and protist cells and uses hydrolytic enzymes to digest substances?
a)
lysosome
b)
peroxisome
c)
smooth ER
d)
central vacuole
151.
What type of reaction is occurring in this graph?
a)
endergonic
b)
exergonic
c)
unable to determine
152.
In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of
a)
ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
b)
ATP, CO2, and lactate.
c)
ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.
d)
ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen.
153.
The process carried out by yeast that causes bread to rise is
a)
alcoholic fermentation
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
cellular respiration
d)
yeast mitosis
154.
What carbon sources can yeast cells metabolize to make ATP from ADP under anaerobic conditions?
a)
glucose
b)
ethanol
c)
pyruvate
d)
lactic acid
155.
In a prokaryotic cell, what replaces the nucleus?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Nucleoid region
c)
Nuclear envelope
d)
Chromatin
156.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one gram of pure water by one degree Celsius is defined as:
a)
a joule
b)
a watt
c)
a calorie
d)
heat
157.
Endergonic reactions require:
a)
an input of energy
b)
a release of energy
c)
do not change energy
158.
In which type of reaction is there a positive free energy?
a)
Endergonic
b)
Exergonic
c)
Spontaneous
d)
Synthesis
159.
NADH and Pyruvic Acid are the reactants of
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
Fermentation
160.
Which of the following is an example of gene flow?
a)
A subordinate wolf successfully challenges the alpha male and mates with pack females
b)
A deer picks up spores from a plant as it grazes and deposits them next to that plant.
c)
A young stallion is driven out of its herd by the alpha stallion and begins its own herd in another location
d)
All of these answers
161.
When closely related individuals mate with each other, or inbreed, the offspring are often not as fit as the offspring of two unrelated individuals. Why?
a)
Inbreeding causes normally silent alleles to be expressed
b)
The DNA of close relatives reacts negatively in the offspring
c)
Close relatives are genetically incompatible
d)
Inbreeding can bring together rare, deleterious mutation that lead to harmful phenotypes.
162.
All of the following should be used to construct evolutionary trees EXCEPT
a)
DNA sequencing comparison
b)
morphological similarities and differences
c)
physical relationsips
d)
fossil records
163.
A newly identified organism has four limbs and amniotic eggs with shells. Which organism do they most likely share a common ancestor with?
a)
ray-finned fish
b)
birds
c)
rodents
d)
amphibians
164.
Using the cladogram: a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
165.
The wing of a bat and a humans' arm have different functions and appear very different. Yet, the underlying anatomy is basically the same. therefore, these structures are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
analogous structures
c)
homology
d)
reproductive isolation
166.
Human newborns usually weigh between 6-8 pounds
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
directional selection
c)
disruptive selection
d)
sexual selection
167.
Which statement best describes the modes of selection depicted in the figure?
a)
stabilizing selection, changing the average color of the population over time
b)
directional selection, favoring the average individual
c)
directional selection, changing the average age color of the population over time
d)
disruptive selection, favoring the average individual
168.
Northern elephant seals have reduced genetic variation. Hunting reduced their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has rebounded to over 30,000 they have much less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant seals that was not so intensely hunted. Which agent of change is this ?
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Gene Flow
d)
Mutation
169.
Mechanisms that reduce the viability or reproductive capacity of hybrid offspring are called
a)
Zygotes
b)
Prezygotic barrier
c)
Post Zygotic barrier
d)
Gene Flow
170.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the G2 phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
171.
Cells do not need growth factors to grow.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
172.
Cells are anchorage dependent.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
173.
Cyclin concentrations are in normal ranges.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
174.
Cell growth is not inhibited by contact with other cells.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
175.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the G1 phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
176.
Which description is true about cell cycle regulation?
a)
Changing concentrations of cdk result in binding to cyclin
b)
Changing concentrations of cyclin result in binding to cdk
c)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased cdk levels
d)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased cyclin levels
177.
In which stage are cells more susceptible to mutations?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
178.
When examining actively dividing cells under a microscope, in which stage will most of the cells be in?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Interphase
179.
Which description results in inhibition of signal transduction?
a)
An inactive molecule that blocks the active site of the receptor
b)
Binding of a ligand to a receptor
c)
Amplification of the signal
d)
Second messengers
180.
Which is a characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Chromosome structure
b)
Division of cytoplasm and cell membrane
c)
Nuclear membrane reformation
d)
Binary fission
181.
Water-soluble ligands bind to ___ receptors, and lipid-soluble ligands bind to ___ receptors.
a)
intracellular; intracellular
b)
intracellular; membrane-bound
c)
membrane-bound; membrane-bound
d)
membrane-bound; intracellular
182.
Which is not a step in Signal Transduction?
a)
Reception
b)
Transformation
c)
Transduction
d)
Response
183.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the M phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
184.
Which is true about secondary messengers?
a)
Secondary messengers are the ligands
b)
Secondary messengers serve as the receptors on the membrane
c)
Secondary messengers relay the signal into the cell
d)
Secondary messengers phosphorylate proteins
185.
What are the degrees of freedom for rolling a die (dice)?
a)
2
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
186.
Which one has the phases in sequential order?
a)
Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis, Prophase, Metaphase
c)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase
187.
What is the process called when the cytoplasm divides?
a)
Cytoskeleton
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
188.
Which of the following molecules of the cell membrane is most important in the reception phase?
a)
protein
b)
phospholipids
c)
cholesterol
d)
carbohydrates
189.
What is a G protein?
a)
a specific type of membrane receptor protein
b)
a protein on the cytoplasmic side of a receptor protein
c)
a membrane-bound enzyme that converts ATP to cAMP
d)
a guanine tha tconverts between GDP and GTP
190.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G protein
c)
protein phosphatase
d)
protein kinase
191.
The cell is carrying out its typical functions, not engaged in preparing for cell division
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 0
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Anaphase
192.
The greatest number of endemic species is expected in environments that are ...
a)
easily reached and ecologically diverse.
b)
isolated and show little ecological diversity.
c)
isolated and ecologically diverse.
d)
easily reached and show little ecological diversity.
193.
Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations?
a)
lower average fitness in both populations
b)
higher average fitness in both populations
c)
increased genetic difference between the two populations
d)
decreased genetic difference between the two populations
194.
You are confronted with a box of preserved grasshoppers of various species that are new to science and have not been described. Your assignment is to separate them into species. There is no accompanying information as to where or when they were collected. Which species concept will you have to use?
a)
biological
b)
phylogenetic
c)
ecological
d)
morphological
195.
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium,
a)
natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution.
b)
given enough time, most existing species will gradually give rise to new species.
c)
a new species accumulates most of its unique features as it comes into existence.
196.
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden" appearance of a new species in the fossil record means that...
a)
the species is now extinct.
b)
speciation occurred in one generation.
c)
speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time.
d)
the species will consequently have a relatively short existence, compared to that with other species.
197.
What is thought to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of life on Earth?
1) origin of mitochondria
2) origin of multicellular eukaryotes
3) origin of chloroplasts
4) origin of cyanobacteria
5) origin of fungal plant symbioses
1) origin of mitochondria
2) origin of multicellular eukaryotes
3) origin of chloroplasts
4) origin of cyanobacteria
5) origin of fungal plant symbioses
a)
4, 3, 2, 1, 5
b)
4, 1, 2, 3, 5
c)
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
d)
4, 3, 1, 5, 2
198.
If an organism has a relatively large number of Hox genes in its genome, it most likely...
a)
has Hox genes expressed in all cells of its body.
b)
has multiple paired appendages along the length of its body.
c)
has a relatively complex anatomy.
199.
The importance of computers and of computer software to modern cladistics is most closely linked to advances in ...
a)
light microscopy.
b)
radiometric dating.
c)
fossil discovery techniques.
d)
molecular genetics.
200.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A
201.
When cells are placed in a __________ solution they begin to swell.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Equalized
202.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following molecules act as a second messenger in the cascade by which epinephrine stimulates the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase?
Which of the following molecules act as a second messenger in the cascade by which epinephrine stimulates the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase?
a)
Adenosine
b)
Adenylyl cyclase
c)
Citric acid
d)
Cyclic AMP
203.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
204.
What is a phosphorylation cascade?
a)
travelling of hormones through the air
b)
travelling of hormones through the blood
c)
the removal of a phosphate
d)
a series of molecules that get phosphorylated
205.
when an individual produces gametes, the two copies of the gene separate, so that each gamete receives only one copy
a)
law of independent assortment
b)
law of segregation
c)
law of conservation of mass
d)
law of conservation of energy
206.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t). The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y).
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants. What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants. What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
a)
TtYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
207.
If a stem cell has 24 chromosomes, how many will it have at the end of meiosis?
a)
24
b)
12
c)
6
d)
the number varies per species
208.
When does crossing over occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase 1
c)
Prophase 2
d)
Metaphase 1
209.
One of the main reasons genes assort independently of one another is that
a)
they produce unrelated traits
b)
they produce related traits
c)
they are on the same chromosome
d)
they are on different chromosomes
210.
Which statement correctly describes meiosis?
a)
cells divide only once
b)
meiosis does not occur in reproductive cells
c)
the cells produced at the end of meiosis are genetically identical to the parent cell
d)
The cells produced at the end of meiosis contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
211.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Facilitated Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
212.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Facilitated Diffusion
c)
Active Transport Pump
d)
Osmosis
213.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
gated ion channel
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
tyrosine kinase receptor
214.
Neurotransmitters are used in _____ signaling.
a)
synaptic
b)
paracrine
c)
juxtacrine
d)
endocrine
215.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
216.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
217.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
218.
One of two paired chromosomes, one from each parent. Each chromosome has the same length, centromere positiion, and contains the same type of inherited genes.
a)
homologous chromosomes
b)
chromatids
c)
centromere
d)
centrosome
219.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "A" represent?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
220.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Cell Body
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Myelin Sheath
221.
What is another name for a nerve cell?
a)
Muscle Fiber
b)
Connective Tissue
c)
Impulse
d)
Neuron
222.
The part of the neuron that brings information to the cell body is called a(n) ___________.
a)
dendrite
b)
axon
c)
nucleus
d)
node of Ranvier
223.
The part of the neuron that takes information away from the cell body is called a(n) _____________.
a)
dendrite
b)
axon
c)
cell body
d)
Schwann cell
224.
What is the insulating membrane that surrounds parts of the axon that helps the impulses travel faster called?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrites
c)
Node of Ranvier
d)
Myelin Sheath
225.
The signal from your brain travels to the _____ neuron connected to a gland or muscle.
a)
Motor
b)
Inter
c)
Sensory
226.
This is the gap or space between two neurons
a)
Dendrites
b)
Cell Body
c)
Synapse
d)
Axon
227.
A weakened or dead virus can act as a-
a)
vaccine
b)
leukocyte
c)
allergen
d)
macrophage
228.
Viruses are made up of-
a)
A nucleic acid and protein coat
b)
A nucleus and a protein coat
c)
A nucleic acid and a nucleus
d)
A cell and a injection device
229.
These cells are responsible for making antibodies.
a)
Helper T Cells
b)
Killer T Cells
c)
B Cells
d)
Macrophages
230.
These cells are responsible for identifying the "enemy" in an immune response.
a)
Killer-T Cells
b)
Antibodies
c)
Helper-T Cells
d)
B Cells
231.
Killer T Cells-
a)
Kill the pathogen
b)
Kill your infected body cells
c)
Kill only viruses
d)
Kill only bacteria
232.
The first cells the respond to an immune attack are-
a)
Helper T Cells
b)
Suppressor Cells
c)
Macrophage
d)
Killer B Cells
233.
The four main types of germs are:
a)
Viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi
b)
Parasites, bacteria, lymphocytes, and fungi
c)
Viruses, parasites, fungi, and phagocytes
d)
Small, medium, large, and extra large
234.
When someone’s immune system overreacts to something harmless it’s called:
a)
A sneeze
b)
The measles
c)
Overreactus maximus
d)
an allergy
235.
The mucus in your nose and the acid in your stomach are both front-line defenses against pathogens. Which of the following is also a front-line defense?
a)
Your antibodies
b)
your booger
c)
Your skin
d)
Your hair
236.
What happens if your immune system does not recognize a germ?
a)
The body will fight against it
b)
The germ will multiply
c)
antibodies will attack each other
237.
What is the main function of antibodies?
a)
create new white body cells
b)
binding themselves to invading antogens
c)
surviving
d)
making up the immune system
238.
How do the cell membranes of a hibernating animal change in colder temperatures?
a)
They release all of their peripheral membrane proteins
b)
Saturated fatty acids are more tightly packed
c)
Integral membrane proteins increase in number
d)
Unsaturated fatty acids make up more of the lipid composition
239.
Which of the following functions as a recognition site for interactions between cells?
a)
Phospholipids
b)
Cholesterol
c)
Fatty acids
d)
Glycolipids
240.
The process of making a copy of DNA
a)
antiparallel
b)
DNA replication
c)
double helix
d)
origin of replication
241.
The transfer of genetic material in the form of DNA fragments from one cell to another or from one organism to another
a)
bacteriophage
b)
helicase
c)
transformation
d)
virus
242.
a virus that infects bacteria
a)
bacteriophage
b)
H1N1
c)
antiparallel
d)
virus
243.
The opposite arrangement of the sugar-phosphate backbones in a DNA double helix.
a)
antiparallel
b)
double helix
c)
origin of replication
d)
semiconservative
244.
Proteins that bind to and stabilize he single strands of DNA exposed when helicase unwinds the double helix in preparation for replication.
a)
helicase
b)
primer
c)
single strand binding proteins
d)
topoisomerase
245.
A protein that functions in DNA replication, helping to relieve strain in the double helix ahead of the replication fork.
a)
helicase
b)
primer
c)
single strand binding proteins
d)
topoisomerase
246.
Enzyme involved in DNA replication that joins individual nucleotides to produce a DNA molecule
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
Helicase
c)
Topoisomerase
d)
Wakase
247.
A discontinuously synthesized DNA strand that elongates in a direction away from the replication fork.
a)
Lagging Strand
b)
Leading Strand
c)
Okazaki fragments
248.
an enzyme that eventually joins the sugar-phosphate backbones of the Okazaki fragments
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
DNA Ligase
c)
Primase
d)
Topoisomerase
249.
the new continuous complementary DNA strand synthesized along the template strand in the mandatory 5' --> 3' direction.
a)
Lagging Strand
b)
Leading Strand
c)
Okazaki fragments
250.
Short fragments of DNA that are a result of the synthesis of the lagging strand during DNA replication..
a)
Lagging Strand
b)
Leading Strand
c)
Okazaki fragments
100 %
