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WorksheetsIB Biology Term 1 Revision
Total questions: 125
Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What structures are found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?
a)
naked DNA and mitochondria
b)
Golgi apparatus and 70S ribosomes
c)
70S ribosomes and nuclear membrane
d)
mitochondria and nuclear membrane
2.
Why is stem cell research considered unethical by some groups?
a)
Stem cells are living organisms.
b)
New organisms could be produced from stem cells.
c)
Use of stem cells could involve the culture of pluripotent cells.
d)
Use of embryonic cells involves the death of early-stage embryos.
3.
What is happening at the structure labelled X?
a)
Synthesis of proteins
b)
Transport of proteins to the nucleus
c)
Modification of proteins prior to export
d)
Secretion of proteins through the plasma membrane
4.
Cyclins were discovered by Timothy R Hunt in 1982 while studying sea urchins. What is a function of cyclins?
a)
Circulation of seawater for gas exchange
b)
Rotation of flagella
c)
Control of the cell cycle
d)
Recycling of nutrients
5.
Which statement is a part of cell theory?
a)
All cells have a cell wall.
b)
Every cell shows emergent properties.
c)
All organisms are made of one or more cells.
d)
Every cell carries out all the functions of life.
6.
Which combination of features is found in most plant and animal cells?
a)
plasma membrane, lysosome, Golgi apparatus
b)
cytoplasm, mitochondria, ribosomes
c)
rough ER, nucleus, centrioles
d)
plastids, cytoplasm, nucleus
7.
What is the size range for the diameters of most plant and animal cells?
a)
100 nm to 1μm
b)
1μm to 10 μm
c)
10 μm to 100 μm
d)
100 μm to 1mm
8.
Which pair features is correct for BOTH plant and prokaryotic cells?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
9.
Which of the following are associated with mitosis?
I. Tissue repair
II. Growth
III. Asexual reproduction
I. Tissue repair
II. Growth
III. Asexual reproduction
a)
I and II only
b)
I and III only
c)
II and III only
d)
I, II, and III
10.
What are homologous chromosomes?
a)
Two chromosomes with differing sets of genes, in the same sequence, with the same alleles.
b)
Two chromosomes with the same get of genes, in a different sequence, with the same alleles.
c)
Two chromosomes with a different set of genes, in the same sequence, with different alleles.
d)
Two chromosomes with the same set of genes, in the same sequence, sometimes with different alleles.
11.
What route is used to export proteins from the cell?
a)
Golgi apparatus → rough endoplasmic reticulum → plasma membrane
b)
rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus → plasma membrane
c)
Golgi apparatus → lysosome → rough endoplasmic reticulum
d)
rough endoplasmic reticulum → lysosome → Golgi apparatus
12.
Which of the following take(s) place during either interphase or mitosis of an animal cell?
I. Re-formation of nuclear membranes
II. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
III. DNA replication
I. Re-formation of nuclear membranes
II. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
III. DNA replication
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
I and III only
13.
What prevents antibiotics from being effective against viruses?
a)
Viruses have a high rate of mutation.
b)
Viruses have no RNA.
c)
Viruses hae no metabolism.
d)
Viruses have a protein shell that protects them.
14.
How do prokaryotic cells reproduce?
a)
by mitosis
b)
by meiosis
c)
by budding
d)
by binary fission
15.
What are the fundamental structural units of a eukaryotic chromosome?
a)
nucleosomes
b)
centromeres
c)
histones
d)
nucleoids
16.
A students observes and draws an Amoeba, using the high power lens of a microscope. The diameter of the drawing is 100 mm. The actual diameter of the Amoeba is 100 μm. What is the magnification of the drawing?
a)
0.001
b)
100
c)
400
d)
1000
17.
What happens during the G2 stage of interphase?
a)
Homologous chromosomes pair
b)
Synthesis of proteins
c)
Homologous chromosomes separate
d)
Replication of DNA
18.
What is a difference between a cell in the G1 phase of and a cell in the G2 phase of the cell cycle.
a)
A cell in the G2 phase would be smaller than a cell in the G1 phase.
b)
A cell in the G2 phase would have more mitochondria than a cell in the G1 phase.
c)
A cell in the G1 phase would have more DNA in its chromosomes than a cell in the G2 phase.
d)
DNA replication occurs in the G1 phase but not in the G2 phase.
19.
The electron micrograph shows part of a palisade mesophyll cell. Which of the labelled structures controls the exchange of substances to and from the cell?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
20.
The image shows an electron micrograph of mesophyll cells. What is the name of the structure labelled X?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
mitochondrion
c)
nucleus
d)
chloroplast
21.
The diagram shows the concentration of four cyclins during the cell cycle. Which curve represents the cyclin that promotes the assembly of the mitotic spindle?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
22.
What is evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?
a)
RNA can catalyze metabolic reactions.
b)
Meteorites contain organic molecules.
c)
Amino acids can be synthesized from organic compounds.
d)
Mitochondria possess their own DNA
23.
Stem cells that can differentiate into any type of cell are called
a)
totipotent stem cells
b)
pluripotent stem cells
c)
multipotent stem cells
d)
adult stem cells
24.
Which type of gene when functioning correctly acts to slow the cell cycle?
a)
oncogene
b)
proto-oncogene
c)
tumor suppressor gene
d)
tumor necrosis factor gene
25.
What property of water makes it suitable as a coolant?
a)
Water is a good solvent so it can transport heat from the body
b)
Water molecules are cohesive and stick to the skin.
c)
It takes a lot of energy for water to evaporate
d)
It takes a lot of energy to increase the temperature of water.
26.
What is a difference between carbohydrates and lipids in energy storage?
a)
Carbohydrates are used for long term storage and lipids for short term storage.
b)
Carbohydrates contain more energy per 100g than lipids
c)
Carbohydrates store food only in plants whereas lipids store food in plants and animals.
d)
Carbohydrates are more easily transported to where energy is required than lipids.
27.
Which molecule is a polysaccharide?
a)
Cellulose
b)
Fructose
c)
Maltose
d)
Sucrose
28.
What are the most frequently occurring elements in living organisms?
a)
nitrogen, carbon, oxygen and hydrogen
b)
carbon, phosphorus, oxygen and nitrogen
c)
calcium, sodium, nitrogen and phosphorus
d)
calcium, phosphorus, iron and sodium
29.
What type of Molecule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
30.
Which molecules show a monosaccharide and a fatty acid?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
31.
Why does exposure to high temperatures cause an enzyme to lose its biological properties?
a)
The substrate blocks the active site at high temperatures
b)
The three dimensional structure of the enzyme becomes changed
c)
Chemical reactions cannot take place at high temperatures
d)
High temperatures increase the activation energy of reactions.
32.
Molecules A and B are amino acids and C is a dipeptide. Which reaction represents a condensation reaction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
33.
How can the activity of a human amylase enzyme be increased during a laboratory experiment?
a)
Adding sugar to the mixture
b)
Decreasing the pH from 7 to 3C.
c)
Increasing the temperature from 20°C to 37°C
d)
Adding water to the mixture
34.
What contributes to the structure of an enzyme?
a)
Sequence of bases linked by hydrogen bonds
b)
Sequence of substrates linked by condensation reactions
c)
Sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds
d)
Sequence of polypeptides linked by hydrolysis reactions
35.
Which is the activation energy of a reaction when it is catalyzed by an enzyme?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
36.
Which correctly identifies the parts labelled I and II?
a)
I-base II-phosphate
b)
I- ribose II- uracil
c)
I- deoxyribose II- base
d)
I- ribose II-adenine
37.
What provides evidence for the universal nature of the genetic code?
a)
mRNA codons are assigned to the same amino acids in different species
b)
The amount of A is equal to the amount of T and the amount of G is equal to the amount ofC
c)
Nucleic acids contain the same bases in all species
d)
Uracil replaces thymine in RNAB.
38.
What is “naked DNA”?
a)
DNA not surrounded by a nuclear envelope
b)
DNA that is single-stranded due to heat treatment
c)
DNA not associated with proteins
d)
DNA not super-coiled into chromosomes
39.
How is the sequence of DNA conserved?.
a)
Unwinding of the double helix by helicase during DNA replication
b)
Separation of sister chromatids to opposite poles during mitosis
c)
Transcription into complementary RNA for protein synthesis
d)
Complementary base pair matching during DNA replication
40.
Which molecules are formed as a direct result of translation and transcription?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
41.
Organisms can be genetically modified to produce the human blood clotting factor IX.What characteristic of the genetic code makes this possible?
a)
It is conservative
b)
It is degenerate
c)
It is complementary
d)
It is universal.
42.
Which model represents transcription?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
43.
Which sequence represents the order of events in protein synthesis?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
44.
What helps to regulate transcription?
a)
Nucleosomes
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
tRNA
d)
Ribosomes
45.
In this electronmicrograph of a eukaryotic nucleus, what could be happening to DNA at any of the arrows?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
46.
What substance is produced from glucose during anaerobic respiration in all organisms?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Ethanol
c)
Lactate
d)
Pyruvate
47.
What is produced overall per glucose molecule, during glycolysis?
a)
1 pyruvate 2 ATP 1 NADH
b)
1 pyruvate 4 ATP 2 NADH
c)
2 pyruvate 4 ATP 1 NADH
d)
2 pyruvate 2 ATP 2 NADH
48.
What happens during glycolysis for one molecule of glucose?
a)
Two pyruvates are formed
b)
There is a net gain of two NADPH + H+
c)
There is a net loss of two ATP
d)
Two acetyl CoA are formed
49.
How can the rate of photosynthesis be measured?
I. By the amount of oxygen produced
II. By the increase in biomass
III. By the amount of carbon dioxide produced
I. By the amount of oxygen produced
II. By the increase in biomass
III. By the amount of carbon dioxide produced
a)
I
b)
I & II
c)
I & III
d)
I, II & III
50.
How does chlorophyll respond to the red, green and blue wavelengths in white light?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
51.
Glucose is absorbed through protein channels in the plasma membrane of epithelium cells in the small intestine. Which characteristics of glucose prevent its diffusion through the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
it is non-polar and therefore hydrophobic
b)
its hydrogen bonds link with amino acids in the protein channel
c)
it is polar and therefore hydrophilic
d)
its covalent bonds interact with the phospholipids
52.
What type of molecule is shown in this diagram?
a)
trans saturated fatty acid
b)
cis unsaturated fatty acid
c)
cis saturated fatty acid
d)
trans unsaturated fatty acid
53.
A polymer of alpha-D-glucose found in plants has mostly 1,4 linkages and some 1,6 linkages. Which molecule fits this description?
a)
glycogen
b)
cellulose
c)
amylose
d)
amylopectin
54.
What is a role of cholesterol in animal cells?
a)
it increases body fat
b)
it controls membrane fluidity
c)
it lines the inner wall of capillaries
d)
it is a constituent of bile
55.
Which molecule diagram corresponds to the name?
a)
b)
c)
d)
56.
In which compounds would a double bond link carbon to oxygen (C=O)?
I. amino acid
II. fatty acid
III. glycerol
a)
I and II only
b)
II and III only
c)
I and III only
d)
I, II, and III
57.
Which of the following molecules is ribose?
a)
b)
c)
d)
58.
A benefit of GMOs is
a)
less reliance on chemical pesticides
b)
mutations of multiple species
c)
evolution
d)
more insecticide use
59.
Cloning involves
a)
recombinant DNA
b)
GMOs
c)
transgenic animals
d)
nuclear transfer
60.
Recombinant DNA benefits
a)
diabetic patients
b)
congenital dwarfs
c)
hemophiliacs
d)
all of these
61.
Recombinant DNA occurs in the __ of bacteria.
a)
chromosomes
b)
plasmids
c)
ribosomes
d)
viruses
62.
Two people believe they are related. Which would be the best technique to determine if they are related?
a)
testing blood types
b)
comparing DNA
c)
examining karyotypes
d)
testing for genetic disorders
63.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)
To produce millions of copies of restriction enzymes.
b)
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
c)
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
d)
To watch polymerase work.
64.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
65.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
66.
Which DNA fragment bands move faster and farther in a gel electrophoresis?
a)
there is no way to tell
b)
the largest ones
c)
the smallest ones
d)
none of these
67.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel elctrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
68.
Which two bat species are most closely related?
a)
Bat 1 and Bat 2
b)
Bat 1 and Bat 3
c)
Bat 2 and Bat 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
69.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
70.
Shannon does not know who her father is. There are three possibilities: Jack, Daniel and Bill. Who is the father?
a)
Jack
b)
Daniel
c)
Bill
71.
Which part of the blood is responsible for forming blood clots?
a)
Erythrocytes
b)
Leukocytes
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
72.
These have muscular walls:
a)
capillaries
b)
veins
c)
venules
d)
arteries
73.
These have valves that prevent backflow of blood
a)
arteries
b)
veins
c)
arterioles
d)
capillaries
74.
Where material exchange takes place between the cells and blood vessels:
a)
arteries
b)
veins
c)
venules
d)
capillaries
75.
Largest artery in the human body:
a)
Pulmonary artery
b)
femoral artery
c)
aorta
d)
carotid artery
76.
Carry oxygenated blood back to the heart, only type of these to do this:
a)
pulmonary arteries
b)
pulmonary veins
c)
pulmonary capillaries
d)
aorta artery
77.
The ________ is composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells
a)
tunica interna
b)
tunica media
c)
tunica externa
d)
none of the above
78.
In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the
a)
tunica interna
b)
tunica externa
c)
tunica media
d)
vasa vasorum
79.
a)
B = tunica interna
b)
B = tunica media
c)
B = tunica externa
d)
B = lumen
80.
a)
A = artery
B = vein
b)
A = artery
B = capilary
c)
A = vein
B = capillary
d)
A = capillary
B = vein
81.
Capillaries are....
a)
up to 10 µm wide
b)
up to 18 mm wide
c)
up to 30 mm wide
d)
up to 5 nm wide
82.
Identify...
a)
Pulmonary veins
b)
Pulmonary artery
c)
Aorta
d)
Vena cava
83.
Identify...
a)
Pulmonary veins
b)
Pulmonary artery
c)
Aorta
d)
Vena cava
84.
Identify...
a)
Left atrium
b)
Right atrium
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right ventricle
85.
The __________ is a wall of muscle that divides the right and left halves of the heart.
a)
Atrioventrucular Valve
b)
Semilunar Valve
c)
Septum
d)
Diaphragm
86.
Identify the circled valve
a)
Tricuspid
b)
Mitral
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Aortic
87.
Identify the circled valve
a)
Tricuspid
b)
Mitral
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Aortic
88.
When looking at the heart, which side is the right?
a)
my right
b)
my left
c)
the bottom
d)
the top
89.
The heart muscle is thickest on the left side of the heart because.....
a)
the left ventricle pumps blood to the entire body
b)
the right ventricle pumps blood to the entire body
c)
the left atrium pumps blood to the entire body
d)
the right atrium pumps blood to the entire body
90.
Which of the following define diastole and systole
a)
systole is the contraction of the heart and diastole is the relaxation of the heart
b)
diastole is the contraction of the heart and systole is the relaxation of the heart
c)
diastole and systole are both contractions of the heart
d)
diastole and systole are both relaxation phases of the heart
91.
The AV node is located at...
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
92.
An electrocardiogram measures what?
a)
The amount of pressure exerted on blood vessels.
b)
The electrical activity of the heart.
c)
How many times the heart contracts over time.
d)
The body's temperature caused by friction of blood in vessel.
93.
The 'Lub' sound of the heart's LUB DUB? are the....
a)
Atrioventricular valves closing
b)
Semilunar Valves closing
c)
Blood flowing through the Pulmonary Trunk and Aorta
d)
Blood Flowing down into the venticles
94.
During atrial contraction and ventricular filling,
a)
the AV valves are open
b)
the semilunar valves are open
c)
the ventricles are contracted
d)
the atria are relaxed
95.
What is the definition of the Cardiac Cycle?
a)
the contraction of the atria
b)
the sequence of events that occur during one complete heartbeat
c)
the contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
d)
the circulation of blood in the heart
96.
The pacemaker of the heart is also known as the....
a)
AV node
b)
SA node
c)
Purkinje fibres
d)
Bundle of His
97.
The large intestines function is to absorb large quantities of:
a)
water
b)
alcohol
c)
food
d)
fats
98.
The large intestine is also called the:
a)
colon
b)
colonoscopy
c)
colorectal
d)
colors
99.
Peristalsis involves the contraction of these layers of muscle:
a)
superior and inferior
b)
longitudinal and circular
c)
smooth and rough
d)
fast and slow
100.
The stomach contractions mix the bolus into smaller particles called:
a)
chyme
b)
mucous
c)
bile
d)
peristalsis
101.
The three parts of the small intestine, in the correct order:
a)
jejunum, ileum, duodenum
b)
duodenum, ileum, jejunum
c)
colon, appendix, cecum
d)
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
102.
Which enzyme is NOT secreted by the pancreas?
a)
exopeptidase
b)
amylase
c)
lipase
d)
endopeptidase
103.
What is the product of amylase digesting starch?
a)
Maltose and dextrin
b)
Maltose and glucose
c)
Glucose and dextrin
d)
Amylose and maltose
104.
What is the substrate of lipase?
a)
Triglycerides
b)
Fatty acids
c)
Amino acids
d)
Polypeptides
105.
Which of the following cannot be digested by humans?
a)
Cellulose
b)
Starch
c)
Glycogen
d)
Lipids
106.
Which of the following enzymes breaks down peptides into amino acids?
a)
Exopeptidase and dipeptidase
b)
Endopeptidase
c)
Dipeptidase
d)
Endopeptidase and dipeptidase
107.
Which of the following DOES NOT break down a disaccharide?
a)
Amylase
b)
Maltase
c)
Sucrase
d)
Lactase
108.
What is the role of bile?
I) Breaks down large fat droplets into smaller ones
II) Breaks down fats into fatty acids
III) Increases surface area of fat droplets
I) Breaks down large fat droplets into smaller ones
II) Breaks down fats into fatty acids
III) Increases surface area of fat droplets
a)
I and III
b)
I and II
c)
I, II and III
d)
I only
109.
Where does all the blood go after absorption?
a)
The liver
b)
The pancreas
c)
The kidney
d)
The large intestine
110.
What are the main roles of the large intestine?
I. Absorption of water
II. Storage of feces
III. Digestion of lipids
I. Absorption of water
II. Storage of feces
III. Digestion of lipids
a)
I and II
b)
I and III
c)
I, II and III
d)
II only
111.
Which of the following features of the villi increase surface area?
I. Microvilli of the epithelial cells
II. Capillary network inside the villus
III. Coiling of the small intestine inside the body
I. Microvilli of the epithelial cells
II. Capillary network inside the villus
III. Coiling of the small intestine inside the body
a)
I only
b)
I and II
c)
I, II and III
d)
I and III
112.
Which of the following vessels carries nutrient rich blood to the liver to be processed?
a)
Hepatic portal vein
b)
Renal vein
c)
Vena cava
d)
Aorta
113.
Which of the following methods is used to bring glucose from the lumen into the epithelial cell?
a)
Secondary active transport
b)
Active transport
c)
Simple diffusion
d)
Facilitated diffusion
114.
Which of the following is used to keep the concentration of Na+ inside the epithelial cell low?
a)
Active transport through the sodium-potassium pump
b)
Secondary active transport through the Na+/glucose co-transporter
c)
Facilitated diffusion through Na+ channels
d)
Simple diffusion through the cell membrane
115.
What is a similarity between active transport and passive transport?
a)
Both use a membrane protein
b)
Both use ATP
c)
Both move particles along the concentration gradient
d)
Both move particles against the concentration gradient
116.
How does glucose leave the epithelial cell and enter the capillaries?
a)
Facilitated diffusion through a membrane transport protein
b)
Active transport through the membrane pump
c)
Simple diffusion through the plasma membrane
d)
Osmosis
117.
How does the capillary network inside the villus provide an adaptation to absorption?
a)
It maintains a high concentration gradient
b)
It creates a long diffusion path
c)
It enables active transport
d)
It transports fats around the body
118.
How do fatty acids and monoglycerides enter the epithelial cell?
a)
Simple diffusion
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Active transport
d)
Osmosis
119.
What happens to fatty acids and monoglycerides once they enter the epithelial cell?
a)
They are resynthesized into triglycerides by the smooth ER
b)
They are resynthesized into triglycerides by the rough ER
c)
They are packaged into lipoproteins and absorbed by the lacteal
d)
They are packaged into lipoproteins and absorbed by the capillaries
120.
How do non-polar triglycerides travel through the lymph system and the blood?
a)
By being packaged into vesicles known as lipoproteins
b)
By being packaged into vesicles known as cholesterol
c)
By breaking back down into fatty acids and glycerol
d)
By bonding to amino acids
121.
Why is dialysis tubing a good model of the small intestine?
a)
It is semipermeable and allows small molecules to diffuse in and out
b)
It is semipermeable and allows large molecules to diffuse in and out
c)
It is semipermeable and allows all molecules to diffuse in and out
d)
It allows glucose, water and starch molecules to diffuse in and out
122.
What is the muscle action that propels food through the gut?
a)
Peristalsis
b)
Myogenic muscle contraction
c)
Voluntary muscle contraction
d)
Antagonistic muscle contraction
123.
Which muscle type contracts behind the food as it moves through the gut?
a)
Circular muscle
b)
Longitudinal muscle
c)
Oblique muscle
d)
Skeletal muscle
124.
What layer of the small intestine is represented by A?
a)
Mucosa
b)
Submucosa
c)
Circular muscle
d)
Longitudinal muscle
125.
Which layer of the small intestine is represented by the letter D?
a)
Longitudinal muscle
b)
Circular muscle
c)
Submucosa
d)
Serosa
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