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cardiac review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the average adult BPM?
a)
75 - 120
b)
67 - 98
c)
60 - 100
d)
73 - 110
2.
The sound of your heart beating is from valves closing in the chambers of your heart. How many valves are working in the chambers?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
3.
How often should you check up with you doctor?
a)
Daily
b)
Every other week
c)
Yearly
d)
Monthly
4.
Is heart cancer very rare?
a)
yes
b)
no
c)
maybe
d)
idk
5.
When the heart beats, this system sends an electrical signal from the top of the heart near the atria and down through the ventricles. What is it?
a)
convective system
b)
interventricular septum
c)
conduction system
d)
interatrial septum
6.
What can cause the electrical system to go down?
a)
A Heart Attack
b)
Diabetes
c)
High or Low blood pressure
d)
Nothing
7.

What is the average range for pulse?

a)

40-120 bpm

b)

60-100 bpm

c)

20-40 bpm

8.

What is "pulse"

a)

how many times you breathe per minute

b)

how many times you sneeze per minute

c)

how many times your heart beats per minute

9.

What is "blood pressure"

a)

how stressed your heart is

b)

how hard your muscles are pushing on the heart

c)

the force of the blood pumping through your veins

10.

What does "bpm" stand for?

a)

breaths per minute

b)

beats per minute

c)

boogers per minute

11.

What is an artery?

a)

a blood vessel that carries blood to the heart

b)

a blood vessel that carries blood to the left

c)

a blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart

12.

Low blood pressure

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Hypotension

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

13.

Condition when BP drops suddenly when changing position, usually quickly.

a)

Pulse pressure

b)

Wheezing

c)

Cyanosis

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

14.

High blood pressure

a)

Hypertension

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Fasting

d)

Hypotension

15.

Not eating

a)

Wheezing

b)

Fasting

c)

Dysphagia

d)

Dyspnea

16.

A drug that slows down body functions

a)

Stimulant

b)

Depressant

c)

Amphetamines

d)

Systole

17.

A pattern of rapid, shallow respirations

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Hypothermia

18.

An unusually rapid heart rate: over 100 bpm

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Metabolism

d)

A problem

19.

Difficult or labored breathing

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Dysphagia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Hypothermia

20.

Dusky bluish discoloration of the skin, lips, and nails due to lack of oxygen.

a)

Apnea

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Cyanosis

d)

Hypotension

21.

An unusually slow heartbeat

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Bradycardia

22.

A period of no respiration: an absence of breathing

a)

Apnea

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Depressant

d)

Diastole

23.

The lowering of core body temperature to 95o F or below

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Cyanosis

d)

Heat Stroke

24.

The act of evaluating and collecting information about a person; a nursing process step.

a)

Evaluation

b)

Assessment

c)

Charting

d)

Baseline

25.

Noticing or recognizing something; using the senses to collect information.

a)

Assessment

b)

Objective

c)

Subjective

d)

Observation

26.

Information that is seen, heard, felt, or smelled by an observer; signs.

a)

A headache

b)

Objective data

c)

Subjective data

d)

Assessment

27.

Things a person tells you about that you cannot observe through your senses.

a)

Subjective data

b)

Wheezing

c)

Objective data

d)

A rash

28.

Which temperature is considered the most accurate?

a)

aural/tympanic

b)

oral

c)

axillary

d)

rectal

29.

Respirations should be taken immediately following pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

A childs pulse is ________ than an adults.

a)

louder

b)

slower

c)

faster

d)

stronger

31.

Which phase of the heart is contracting taking place?

a)

systolic

b)

diastolic

32.

Normal location site for the CNA to take a pulse on an adult.

a)

popliteal

b)

pedal

c)

brachial

d)

radial

33.

Where is the axillary temperature taken?

a)

Under the arm

b)

Near the temple/forehead

c)

In the ear

d)

In the mouth

34.

An average respiration for an adult is

a)

10 - 14

b)

12 - 40

c)

16-30

d)

12- 20

35.

A diastolic blood pressure normal value is

a)

60 - 80

b)

50 - 100

c)

90 - 120

d)

70 - 150

36.

Which term means fever

a)

afebrile

b)

febrile

c)

hyperthermia

d)

hypothermia

37.

A stethoscope is used to take an apical pulse

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The CNA took a BP of 148/96. What is his/her best action?

a)

Tell the pt the BP reading

b)

Report the BP to nurse as hyptertension

c)

Report the BP to nurse as hypotension

d)

Tell the pt to stop eating salt

39.

Normal P for an adult

a)

98.6

b)

60-100

c)

12-24

d)

1-10

40.

Pain is ___________ because we cannot test for it.

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Not a vital sign

41.

Which of the following is true of vital signs?

a)

Vital signs are the only indicators of a patient's health.

b)

Measurement of pain isn't necessary if you have already measured the patient's vital signs.

c)

It is critical you know how to measure vital signs accurately.

d)

You will rarely need to measure a patient's vital signs

42.

Which method involves examination by listening to the sounds of the body?

a)

Palpation

b)

Auscultation

c)

Examination

d)

Bradycardia

43.

Which of these items INCREASES a person's pulse rate?

a)

Fever

b)

Coma

c)

Depressant drugs

d)

Sleep

44.

Where is radial pulse measured?

a)

Behind the patient's knee

b)

On the top of the patient's foot

c)

In the crook of the patient's arm

d)

On the thumb side of the patient's wrist

45.

Which respiration assessment is typically described as regular or irregular?

a)

Rate

b)

Character

c)

Rhythm

d)

All of the above

46.

Which of the following is a sign of cyanosis?

a)

Respiration is only easy when the patient is sitting straight up.

b)

Skin and lips turn bluish in color

c)

A pattern of short, shallow breaths followed by deeper breaths

d)

Respiration above 25 breaths per minute

47.

the area of the body where you take a carotid pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the groin area

c)

the wrist

d)

the inside of your elbow

48.

the area of the body where you take a radial pulse is

a)

the neck

b)

the wrist

c)

the groin

d)

the inside of the elbow

49.

the area of the body where you take a femoral pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the wrist

c)

the groin

d)

the forehead

50.

the following are routes to take a temperature EXCEPT ...

a)

oral

b)

temporal

c)

axillary

d)

femoral

51.

fast heart beat, over 100 bpm

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradycardia

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

52.

12 to 20 represents ...

a)

the respiratory range for an adult

b)

the pulse rate for an adult

c)

the temperature ranges for a baby

d)

the blood pressure range for an adult

53.

all the following are normal ranges for vital signs EXCEPT

a)

blood pressure of 140/90

b)

12-20 respirations per minute

c)

98.6*F temperature

d)

60-100 bpm

54.

A normal Oral temperature is

a)

98.6

b)

99.4

c)

100.2

d)

97.0

55.

The textbook blood pressure is

a)

120/80

b)

110-70

c)

110/80

d)

120-70

56.

All of these are pulse sites except:

a)

apical

b)

brachial

c)

ovarian

d)

carotid

57.

Temperature taken in the tympanic membrane is located in

a)

the mouth

b)

the ear

c)

the face

d)

the forehead

58.
What is a danger of high blood pressure?
a)
Hair loss
b)
Heart disease
c)
Skin discoloration
d)
Brain dysfunction
59.
When taking temperature, oral is...
a)
In the mouth
b)
In the armpit
c)
Through the anus
d)
In the ear canal
60.
Chronic high BP is called...
a)
Hypertrophy
b)
Atrophy
c)
Hypertension
d)
Hyperatrophy
61.
For a blood pressure reading, the number on top measures...
a)
Diastolic Pressure
b)
Systolic Pressure
c)
Diastemic Pressure
d)
Systemic Pressure
62.
Eating salt can help your hypertension.
a)
True
b)
False
63.
You are taking blood pressures on 4 different patients.  Which one needs to be reported to the nurse immediately? 
a)
16 year old- 92/58
b)
54 year old- 182/102
c)
98 year old- 98/50
d)
45 year old- 142/88
64.
What tool is used to measure blood pressure?
a)
ECG
b)
stethoscope
c)
sphygmomanometer
d)
thermometer
65.
If a person is suffering from pain or discomfort in the chest that lasts more than 3 to 5 minutes or that goes away and comes back, this person is most likely having a ______________. 
a)
seizure
b)
cold related emergency
c)
diabetic emergency
d)
 heart attack
66.
Common causes of a Heart Attack
a)
Stress
b)
Smoking tobacco
c)
Coronary heart disease (CHD)
d)
All the above
67.
What is a way to prevent heart attacks?
a)
Having a blocked coronary artery
b)
Keep your weight under control
c)
Doing CPR
d)
Calling 911
68.
Which is a risk factor for sudden cardiac arrest?
a)
Being Short
b)
Being Tall
c)
Having an Enlarged Heart
69.
Which patient may be having an MI?
a)
50 year old male with jugular vein distension, diaphoresis, and headache
b)
65 year old female with slurred speech, arm weakness, and constipation 
c)
35 year old male with tachycardia, arm pain, and dizziness
70.
What are the modifiable risk factors for CAD?
a)
diabetes, family history
b)
smoking, family history
c)
smoking, hereditary
d)
high cholesterol, obesity 
71.
What is the primary function of patient teaching after an MI?
a)
Explaining the disease process
b)
Assisting the pt in developing a healthy lifestyle
c)
Describing the precipitating causes and onset of the pain
d)
Educating the patient on causative factors that initiate cardiac vasoconstriction
72.

The predominant cause of an acute MI (AMI) is:

a)

Coronary vasospasm.

b)

Electrocution.

c)

Thromboembolism.

d)

Blunt trauma.

73.

A nurse is caring for four clients. Which one should the nurse see first?

a)

Client who needs a beta blocker, and has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg

b)

Client who had a first dose of captopril (Capoten) and needs to use the bathroom

c)

Hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 188/92 mm Hg

d)

Client who needs pain medication prior to a dressing change of a surgical wound

74.

Which of these assessment data obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider?

a)

Platelet count is 52,000/ml.

b)

A.There are bullae on the oral mucosa.

c)

A.The patient is difficult to arouse.

d)

A.There are large bruises on the back.

75.

A patient who has chest pain is admitted to the ED, and all the following diagnostic tests are ordered. Which one will the nurse arrange to be completed first?

a)

Chest X-Ray

b)

Troponin level

c)

CT scan

d)

ECG

76.

A form of arteriosclerosis characterized by accumulation of plaque, and blood products lining the wall of the artery causing partial or complete blockage of an artery is:

a)

poikilothermy

b)

point of maximal impulse

c)

claudication

d)

atherosclerosis

77.

An abnormal, disordered, or disturbed cardiac rhythm is referred to as a/an:

a)

pericardial friction rub

b)

thrill

c)

dysrhythmias

d)

pulse deficit

78.

The abnormal swishing sound heard on auscultation of the heart is a :

a)

Thrill

b)

Bruit

c)

Point of maximal impulse

d)

Murmur

79.

A condition in which the ends of the fingers and toes appear bulbous and shiny, and is most often the result of lung disease is called:

a)

clubbing

b)

claudication

c)

ischemia

d)

bruit

80.

A condition in which the number of pulse beats counted at the radial artery is less than the apical heart rate during the same period of time is known as a/an:

a)

claudication

b)

poikilothemy

c)

pulse deficit

d)

bruit

81.
A client is admitted with early-stage heart failure. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect?
a)
A decrease in blood pressure and urine output
b)
An increase in creatinine and extremity edema
c)
An increase in heart rate and respiratory rate
d)
A decrease in respirations and oxygen saturation
82.
The nurse notes that the client’s apical pulse is displaced to the left. What conclusion can be drawn from this assessment?
a)
This is a normal finding.
b)
The heart is hypertrophied.
c)
The left ventricle is contracted.
d)
The client has pulsus alternans.
83.
A client asks the nurse why it is important to be weighed every day if he has right-sided heart failure. What is the nurse’s best response?
a)
Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid.”
b)
Daily weights will help us make sure that you’re eating properly.”
c)
The hospital requires that all inpatients be weighed daily.”
d)
You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure.”
84.
The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction. The client develops increased pulmonary congestion; an increase in heart rate from 80 to 102 beats/min; and cold, clammy skin. Which action does the nurse implement before notifying the health care provider?
a)
Administer oxygen.
b)
Increase the IV flow rate.
c)
Place the client in supine position.
d)
Prepare the client for surgery.
85.
The thick muscular portion of the heart: 
a)
Endocardium
b)
Pericardium
c)
Myocardium
86.
When the heart is no longer able to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs and pumps out less blood than it collects it is called what? 
a)
Myocardial Infarction
b)
Hypertension
c)
Coronary Artery Disease
d)
Congestive Heart Failure
87.
The formation of a clot deep in the body, usually in the legs, due to abnormal venous circulation is called what: 
a)
PE
b)
DVT
c)
Embolus
d)
CVA 
88.
Headache, changes in alertness, confusion, dizziness, one sided-weakness and trouble speaking are signs of a: 
a)
Stroke
b)
DVT
c)
PE
d)
MI 
89.
The pacemaker of the heart: 
a)
SA node
b)
AV node 
c)
Purkinje Fibers
d)
Bundle branches 
90.
Slows electrical conduction impulses in the heart to allow time for the atrium to complete contraction and for the ventricles to fill up: 
a)
AV node
b)
SA node 
c)
Purkinje Fibers
d)
Bundle Branches 
91.
A patient with a holter monitor wants to remove it so he can participate in a 5K. What is the correct response? 
a)
Just put it back on when you're finished with the 5K
b)
The purpose of the holter monitor is to monitor your heart under all conditions. You may not take it off, even for periods of exercise, such as the 5K
c)
Just let us know how long you will have it off for
92.
Antibiotics kill viruses
a)
True
b)
False
93.

What diagnostic test would be most helpful to identify cardiomyopathy?

a)

Serial enzyme studies

b)

Cardiac catherization

c)

Echocardiogram

d)

Phonocardiogram

94.

BP

a)

bicuspid

b)

blood pressure

c)

brachial pulse

d)

blood and pulse rate

95.

CAD

a)

carotid artery disease

b)

capillary aneurysm disorder

c)

cardiac arrest disorder

d)

coronary artery disease

96.

CPR

a)

chest pulse rate

b)

coronary pulse rate

c)

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

d)

cardiac pulse rate

97.

DVT

a)

deep vein thrombosis

b)

disease of the vein and treatment

c)

disorder of the valve and treatment

d)

dysrthymia due to vein thrombosis

98.

ECG

a)

electrical graph of the heart

b)

electrocardiogram

c)

electrical conduction graph

d)

electrocution of graph

99.

MI

a)

muscle infarction

b)

myocardial infarction

c)

muscle ischemia

d)

measure in inches

100.

What is true about capillaries

a)

They only have oxygenated blood in them

b)

they only carry deoxygenated blood

c)

They are the smallest vessels

d)

they are found only in the lungs

101.

What is true about deoxygenated blood?

a)

It is found in the pulmonary veins

b)

It is found leaving the left ventricle

c)

It is found mostly in the arteries and aorta

d)

it is in most veins

102.

what are the main components of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Arteries, artillaries, veins

b)

veins, heart, capillaries and arteries

c)

vessuels, capillaries, heart and arteries

d)

heart, lungs, and arteries

103.

what are the 3 layers of the heart discussed in class?

a)

epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

b)

myocardium, pericardium, exocardium

c)

pericardium, myocardium, endocardium

d)

exocardium, myocardium, intercardium

104.

what area is the heart found in?

a)

behind the periastinal area in the ventrum

b)

in the mediastenium behind the ribs

c)

in the eipgastric cavity ventral to the sternum

d)

in the thoracic cavity to the left of the sternum

105.

what layer of the heart is damaged in a heart attack?

a)

endocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

pericardium

d)

myocardium

106.

where does blood go after it leaves the left ventricle?

a)

the pulmonary artery

b)

the pulmonary vein

c)

the aorta

d)

the left atrium

107.

what valve does blood pass through when it's going from the right atrium and ventricle?

a)

The tricuspid valve

b)

the aortic valve

c)

the pulmonary valve

d)

the mitral valve

108.

which vessel takes blood from the lower portion of the body and returns it to the heart?

a)

the aorta

b)

the right atrium

c)

the inferior vena cava

d)

the superior vena cava

109.

what primarily keeps blood moving forward in veins?

a)

smooth muscle

b)

the pumping action of the heart

c)

the superior vena cava

d)

the valves

110.

what is the natural pacemaker of the heart?

a)

The SA node in the right atrium

b)

the AED

c)

The SA node in the left atrium

d)

the AV node and Bundle of His

111.

what is an EKC/ECG used to best measure?

a)

The BORG exertion of the heart

b)

the electrical impulses in the heart

c)

The irregular rate of the heart

d)

The mitral valve function

112.

what is meant by saying a patient has a 'regular rhythm'

a)

their heart is beating between 60-80 BPM

b)

The heart is beating 65/100 BPM

c)

The heart is beating at a predictable rate/rhythm

d)

The heart is beating at an unpredictable rate/rhythm

113.

what can you do to decrease your risk of heart disease?

a)

stop/don't smoking

b)

minimal/no alcohol

c)

aerobic exercise regularly

d)

all of the above

114.

The mitral valve is also known as the:

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Bicuspid valve

c)

Aortic valve

115.
High blood pressure is often an indicator of ________Disease
a)
Cancer
b)
Heart Disease
c)
Lung
d)
Braint
116.
Antibiotics fight off what type of pathogen?
a)
Viruses
b)
Fungi
c)
Yeasts
d)
Bacteria
117.

In cases of acute anemia, the heart rate is _________________.

a)

changed slowly over time

b)

decreased

c)

elevated

d)

no change noted

118.

What organ(s) is affected by sickle cell anemia that impacts immunity?

a)

liver

b)

spleen

c)

kidneys

d)

lungs

119.
This disease is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells and by episodic blocking of blood vessels by the adherence of misshapen red blood cells to the vascular endothelium.
a)
Hemophilia
b)
Best disease
c)
Sickle Cell Disease
d)
Anemia
120.
Another name for Red Blood Cells (RBCs)?
a)
Thrombocytes
b)
Leukocytes
c)
Erythrocytes
d)
Eosinophils
121.
A condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells, in hemoglobin, or in total volume.
a)
Narcosis
b)
Anemia
c)
Hemophilia
122.
What's the difference between sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease?
a)
Sickle cell trait is a trait you get from your mother, when the disease is something you get from doing bad things
b)
People with sickle cell trait carry only a single copy of the altered hemoglobin gene and barely have any clinical symptoms related to the disease. In contrast, people with sickle cell disease carry 2 copies of the altered hemoglobin gene.
c)
Sickle cell trait is a trait inherited from your entire family, but on the other hand sickle cell disease is something you get from your partner
d)
People with sickle cell trait carry two copies of the altered hemoglobin gene and barely have symptoms related to the trait. In contrast, people with sickle cell disease carry three copies of the altered hemoglobin gene
123.
The common cold; caused by many types of viruses that can infect the upper respiratory tract
a)
tuberculosis
b)
acute rhinitis
c)
pneumonia
d)
emphysema
124.

A localized clotted mass of blood found in an organ, tissue or space. It is caused by a traumatic injury, such as a blow, that can cause a blood vessel to rupture

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Hematoma

c)

Septicemia

d)

Aneurysm

125.

A hereditary disease in which the blood clots slowly or abnormally. This causes prolonged bleeding with even minor cuts and bumps

a)

Anemia

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Embolism

d)

Atherosclerosis

126.

High blood pressure

a)

Heart Failure

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Hypertension

127.

Indicate some defects in the valves of the heart

a)

Murmurs

b)

Claudication

c)

Varicose Veins

d)

Atherosclerosis

128.

Bleeding from blood vessels within the brain

a)

Myocardial Infarction

b)

Cerebral Hemorrhage

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Aneurysm

129.

The ballooning out of an artery, accompanied by the thinning arterial wall, caused by weakening of the blood vessel

a)

Aneurysm

b)

Hematoma

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Coronary Artery Disease

130.

term for slow heart rate (less than 60 beats per minute)

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

131.

Term used for rapid heart rate (more than 100 beats per minute)

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

132.

Disease that occurs when deposits of fatty substances form along the walls of the arteries.

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Heart Failure

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Claudication

133.

The swollen veins that result from a slowing of blood flow back to the heart

a)

Peripheral Vascular Disease

b)

Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)

c)

Varicose Veins

d)

Arrhythmia

134.

A chronic blood disorder inherited from both parents. The disease causes red blood cells to form in the abnormal crescent shape. These cells carry less oxygen and break easily, causing anemia

a)

Arrhythmia

b)

Septicemia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Sickle cell anemia

135.

Disease that occurs when the arterial walls thicken because of a loss of elasticity as aging occurs.

a)

Arteriosclerosis

b)

Myocardial Infarction

c)

Cerebral Hemorrhage

d)

Varicose Veins

136.

A condition where an embolus is carried by the bloodstream until it reaches an artery too small for passage

a)

Hematoma

b)

Embolism

c)

Septicemia

d)

Arrhythmia

137.

Term used to discuss any change or deviation from the normal rate or rhythm of the heart

a)

Arrhythmia

b)

Aneurysm

c)

Hematoma

d)

Sickle cell anemia

138.
Reddish color of the skin caused by burns or congestion of blood in the vessels:
a)
jaundice
b)
cyanosis
c)
erythema
d)
ablinism
139.
Bluish discoloration of the skin caused by insufficient oxygen:
a)
erythema
b)
jaundice
c)
cyanosis
d)
albinsim
140.
Flat spot on the skin, such as freckles.
a)
papules
b)
macules
c)
vesicles
d)
pustules
141.
Blisters, or fluid-filled sacs
a)
macules
b)
papules
c)
vesicles
d)
pustules
142.
Areas of dried pus and blood; scabs.
a)
ulcer
b)
wheals
c)
crusts
143.
Cancer of the bottom layer of the epidermis is called
a)
Malignant melanoma
b)
Basal cell carcinoma
c)
Impetigo
d)
Squamous cell carcinoma
144.
Cold sores are caused by a 
a)
fungus
b)
bacteria (staphylococcus)
c)
autoimmune disease
d)
virus
145.
A skin disorder caused by accumulation of dead skin cells and oil in hair follicles is 
a)
acne
b)
eczema
c)
cancer
d)
warts
146.
Human papilloma virus causes
a)
warts
b)
cold sores
c)
eczema
d)
rosacea
147.
Full thickness burns involve damage to the 
a)
the epidermis, only
b)
the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
c)
the epidermis and dermis, only
d)
muscle, only
148.
Third degree burns to the face are always considered critical because
a)
the eyebrows and eyelashes might not grow back
b)
ears could melt closed
c)
facial scarring is traumatizing
d)
burning of the airways can cause suffocation 
149.

What are the three types of muscle?

a)

Smooth, Hard, Cardiac

b)

Cardiac, Smooth, Skeletal

c)

Skeleton, Heart, Bladder

150.

what muscle is on the BACK of your upper arm?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Biceps

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Triceps

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