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EPA 608 100

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 4hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many chlorine atoms does it take to destroy 100,000 ozone molecules in the stratosphere?

a)

10

b)

1

c)

100

d)

10,000

2.

Which of the following refrigerants is a CFC-type refrigerant?

a)

R-22

b)

R-123

c)

R-134a

d)

R-12

3.

Which of the following is an example of an HCFC refrigerant?

a)

R-12

b)

R-402

c)

R-22

d)

R-134a

4.

Which of the following refrigerants is considered an HFC-type of refrigerant?

a)

R-134a

b)

R-12

c)

R-22

d)

R-11

5.

Which type of refrigerant has the highest Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)?

a)

HFC

b)

HCFC

c)

CFC

d)

All have the same ODP.

6.

What effect is ozone depletion having on the environment?

a)

increased ground level ozone (smog)

b)

reduced marine life

c)

reduced crop yields

d)

all of the above

7.

The abbreviation for refrigerants containing chlorine, fluorine, and carbon is ____.

a)

HFC

b)

HCFC

c)

CFC

d)

HFAC

8.

The abbreviation for refrigerants containing hydrogen chlorine, fluorine, and carbon is ____.

a)

HFC

b)

HCFC

c)

CFC

d)

HFAC

9.

The abbreviation for refrigerants containing fluorine, carbon, and hydrogen is ____.

a)

HFC

b)

HCFC

c)

CFC

d)

HFAC

10.

To reprocess refrigerant to meet new product specifications is called ____.

a)

recovery

b)

renew

c)

reclaim

d)

recycle

11.

To clean refrigerant by the use of filter dryers and then reuse it is called ____.

a)

recovery

b)

renew

c)

reclaim

d)

recycle

12.

To remove the refrigerant from a system without any testing or processing and to be put back into the same system is called ____.

a)

recovery

b)

renew

c)

reclaim

d)

recycle

13.

Refrigerants that are made up of two refrigerants that, when blended in the right proportions, combine to make a third stable refrigerant, are called ____.

a)

blends

b)

azeotropes

c)

near azeotropes

d)

mixtures

14.

The ozone depletion potential of R-12 is ____.

a)

0.8

b)

0.016

c)

0.05

d)

1.0

15.

The DOT-approved cylinder used for recovering refrigerant is _________.

a)

gray top yellow bottom

b)

gray bottom white top

c)

gray bottom yellow top

d)

gray and yellow striped

16.

The Clean Air Act requires a technician to be certified to handle refrigerants as of what date?

a)

11/15/93

b)

7/1/1992

c)

11/14/1994

d)

1/1/2001

17.

Which agency has to approve refrigerant cylinders before they can be transported?

a)

ARI

b)

EPA

c)

DOT

d)

IRS

18.

What is the state of refrigerant as it is leaving the condenser?

a)

low pressure liquid

b)

high pressure liquid

c)

low pressure gas

d)

high pressure gas

19.

Which of the following refrigerants does not contain chlorine?

a)

R-22

b)

R-134a

c)

R-12

d)

R-11

20.

Over evacuation of a system

a)

causes the tubes to collapse.

b)

damages the vacuum gauges.

c)

causes vacuum pump damage.

d)

does not occur.

21.

Ozone in the stratosphere above the earth consists of:

a)

molecules containing 3 oxygen atoms

b)

molecules containing 2 oxygen atoms

c)

radioactive particles

d)

pollutants that have risen from ground level

22.

Which of the following is an approved "drop-in" replacement for R-12?

a)

HFC-134a

b)

HFC -125

c)

CFC-502

d)

none of the above

23.

The state of the refrigerant entering the compressor is?

a)

lowpressure liquid

b)

low pressure vapor

c)

high pressure liquid

d)

high pressure vapor

24.

While servicing a system, the technician discovers that some R-502 was added to a R-22 system. The technician should:

a)

vent the refrigerant since it cannot be reclaimed.

b)

recycle the refrigerant.

c)

recover the refrigerant into a separate tank.

d)

recover and use it in a different system.

25.

What is being done in the U.S. to stop damage to the stratospheric ozone layer?

a)

using natural gas instead of coal to generate electricity.

b)

capturing and ultimately eliminating use of CFCs

c)

enforcing strict emission requirements on incinerators.

d)

all of the above

26.

Type I certification defines small appliances as products that are manufactured, fully charged, and hermetically sealed in a factory with____pounds or less of refrigerants.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

7

d)

15

27.

A drop-in replacement for R-12 is...

a)

R-22

b)

R-123

c)

R-134a

d)

none of the above

28.

A Type I Technician can service package terminal air conditioners with a charge not exceeding.

a)

5 lb.

b)

10 lb.

c)

15 lb.

d)

none of the above.

29.

In order to service small appliances, a technician must be certified.

a)

Type II

b)

Type III

c)

Type I or Universal

d)

All of the above.

30.

Different refrigerants may be mixed in a single recovery cylinder.

a)

any time you don't know what refrigerant you are recovering.

b)

as long as you mark the cylinder with the name of each refrigerant.

c)

never.

d)

only if the refrigerant is going to be reclaimed.

31.

Once you become certified, the law states that you must repair all leaks in small appliances.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

It depends on the size of the leak

d)

All of the above

32.

If the appliance compressor dose not run in passive recovery, it is required that you...

a)

recover from both the high and low side.

b)

recover from the high side only.

c)

recover from the low side only

d)

not recover, just vent the refrigerant to the air.

33.

A container of new R-12 is color coded.

a)

light blue

b)

orange

c)

white

d)

green

34.

Which group of refrigerants does not harm the ozone layer?

a)

CFC

b)

HCFC

c)

HFC

d)

All of the above

35.

When you are finished with a disposable refrigerant cylinder you should

a)

dispose of it in a construction dumpster

b)

refill it again as long as you do not use a CFC

c)

recover any refrigerant, render the cylinder unusable, and properly dispose of it

d)

use it as an air tank

36.

CFC's were no longer produced after what year?

a)

1992

b)

1994

c)

1995

d)

1998

37.

When using nitrogen, the nitrogen tank must be equipped with...

a)

an automatic shut-off.

b)

low loss fittings

c)

a regular and pressure relief valve

d)

a purge device.

38.

When brazing or exposing refrigerants to open flames or red hot metal,

a)

R-12 and R-22 can form a phosgene gas.

b)

R-12 and R-22 can form hydrochloric and hydroflouric acids

c)

ensure you are in a well ventilated area.

d)

All of the above

39.

When brazing or exposing refrigerants to open flames or red hot metal,

a)

R-12 and R-22 can form a phosgene gas.

b)

R-12 and R-22 can form hydrochloric and hydroflouric acids

c)

ensure you are in a well ventilated area.

d)

All of the above

40.

What would be the pressure on a tank of R-22 if it was at 70 degrees F.

a)

70 PSIG

b)

41 PSIG

c)

130 PSIG

d)

121 PSIG

41.

Under conditions of ARI 740-1993, recovery devices manufactured before November 15,1993, must...

a)

be able to remove 80% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuue.

b)

be able to remove 90% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuue, if the compressor is in operation.

c)

be able to remove 80% of the refrigerant charge of achieve 4" Hg vacuue, if the compressor is not operating.

d)

be able to remove 70% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuum.

42.

Under conditions of ARI 740-1993, recovery devices manufactured after November 15, 1993, must...

a)

Be able to remove 80% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuum.

b)

Be able to remove 70% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuum, if the compressor is in operation.

c)

Be able to remove 80% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuum, if the compressor is not operating.

d)

Be able to remove 70% of the refrigerant charge or achieve 4" Hg vacuum.

43.

The color code for refrigerant recovery tanks is...

a)

yellow top, gray body.

b)

gray top with a yellow body.

c)

yellow top, white body

d)

all yellow

44.

When using system dependent (passive) recovery, the EPA requires

a)

80% of the refrigerant to be removed if the compressor is operating

b)

80% of the refrigerant to be removed if the compressor is not operating.

c)

90% of the refrigerant to be removed if the compressor is not operating

d)

70% of the refrigerant to be removed if the compressor is operating

45.

Which of the following refrigerants must be recovered with a current recovery system?

a)

R-12 CFC

b)

R-502 azeotrope

c)

R-717 ammonia

d)

R-22 HCFC

46.

While recovering refrigerant, why is it necessary to install a piercing valve on both the high and the low side of a small appliance that has an inoperative compressor?

a)

It will help drain the oil out of the system while recovering the refrigerant.

b)

It will help decrease the rate of refrigerant evaporating

c)

It is just a waste of time and is not necessary at all

d)

It will decrease the time of the refrigerant recovery

47.

What may cause a pungent odor in a CFC or HCFC system?

a)

A burnt compressor

b)

An overcharged system.

c)

A defective filter dryer

d)

A dead mouse

48.

Which refrigerant is the closest match to R-12 on your pressure temperature chart?

a)

R-22

b)

R-134a

c)

R-502

d)

R-124

49.

If after you install piercing valves on a sealed system you connect your manifold gauges and read 0 psig.

a)

Do not begin the recovery process

b)

You should pressure test the system

c)

Report to the EPA that someone must have vented the refrigerant

d)

Recover as you normally

50.

ARI 740 deals with

a)

recovery equipment

b)

venting CFC's

c)

technicians becoming certified to buy refrigerants

d)

homeowners maintaining refrigerant logs on all pieces of equipment in the home that contain refrigerant

51.

EPA definition of a small appliance would include

a)

a small residential window air conditioner

b)

a home dehumidifier

c)

a water cooler

d)

all of the above

52.

Type II certification applies to-

a)

high and very high pressure refrigerants

b)

low pressure refrigerants

c)

appliances with charges less than 5 lbs.

d)

low pressure chillers

53.

Recovery speed can be increased by

a)

placing the recovery vessel in hot water

b)

placing the recovery vessel in ice water

c)

using an oversized recovery cylinder

d)

using longer hoses leading to the recovery tank

54.

After installation of a refrigeration system, the technician should first

a)

evacuate the system

b)

pressure test the system using R-22

c)

pressure test the system using nitrogen

d)

charge the system using the correct refrigeration

55.

What maintenance task must always be done to recovery/recycle equipment?

a)

Change the system's oil and filters

b)

vacuum test the equipment after every system recovery/

c)

pressure test the equipment after every recovery

d)

change the pressure gauges after every 25 recovery cycles

56.

What type of leak detection device is used to pinpoint a leak?

a)

An electronic leak detector

b)

soap bubbles

c)

an ultrasonic leak detector

d)

a halide torch

57.

An open compressor that has sat for several months is most likely

a)

not to operate due to seized bearings

b)

to leak from the shaft seal

c)

to need a hard start kit

d)

to need to have its oil changed

58.

Two indications that a high pressure system has a leak are

a)

oil traces on flared fittings and high superheat

b)

low super heat and bubbles in the sight glass

c)

low super heat and low sub-cooling

d)

high head pressure and low super heat

59.

EPA defines a Major Repair as

a)

replacing a compressor

b)

replacing a condenser

c)

replacing an evaporator

d)

all of the above

60.

Under the exceptions to required evacuation levels, an appliance can be evacuated to 0 psig when

a)

the appliance is being thrown away

b)

the repair consists of a condenser replacement

c)

the required levels cannot be reached due to leaks

d)

all of the above

61.

Refrigerant should be recovered as

a)

vapor first

b)

liquid first

c)

liquid from the low side first

d)

vapor from the low side first

62.

The EPA requires the all comfort cooling systems with more than a 50 lbs. charge be repaired when the annual leak rate exceeds

a)

15%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

50%

63.

The EPA requires that all commercial and industrial process refrigeration equipment with more than a 50 lb. charge be repaired when the leak rate exceeds

a)

15%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

50%

64.

Why is it likely for recovery and recycling machines to overheat when drawing a deep vacuum?

a)

because a deep vacuum causes high head pressure

b)

because refrigerant is needed to cool the compressor

c)

because the refrigerant oil has evaporated

d)

a recovery and recycling machine would not overheat when drawing a deep vacuum

65.

What component is directly after the condenser on a system that uses a TXV as a metering device?

a)

the TXV

b)

a reciever

c)

a filter dryer

d)

an accumulator

66.

After removing refrigerant from a system, the refrigerant

a)

may be recycled and sold to another customer

b)

may be reused in the same system, or in another system owned by the same person

c)

may not be reused

d)

must be reclaimed

67.

Noncondensables (air) in an appliance cause

a)

low superheat

b)

high head pressure

c)

low suction pressure

d)

low head pressure

68.

Defined by ASHREA standard 15, a sensor and alarm are required for A-1 refrigerants

a)

to sense oxygen depletion

b)

to sense ozone depletion

c)

to sense CFCs

d)

to sense carbon monoxides

69.

When using recovery and recycling equipment manufactured after November 15, 1993, technicians must evacuate an appliance containing more than 200 lb. of HCFC-22 to what level before making a major repair?

a)

0 psig

b)

4" Hg

c)

10" Hg

d)

30" Hg

70.

When using recovery and recycling equipment manufactured before November 15, 1993, technicians must evacuate an appliance containing less than 200 lb. of HCFC-22 to what level before making a major repair?

a)

0 psig"

b)

4" Hg

c)

10" Hg

d)

30" Hg

71.

When servicing an open system, which of the following should always be replaced?

a)

filter dryer

b)

sight glass

c)

pressure control

d)

relief valve

72.

In a refrigeration system, high pressure liquid exits

a)

the condenser and metering device

b)

the receiver and metering device

c)

the evaporator and the compressor

d)

the condenser and the receiver

73.

A technician must never

a)

front seat the discharge service valve while the compressor is in operation

b)

front seat the king valve while the compressore is in operation

c)

back seat the the discharge service valve while the compressor is in operation

d)

mid-seat the suction service valve while the compressor is in operation

74.

When evacuating a system, it is required that the vacuum pump pull a minimum of

a)

50 microns

b)

500 microns

c)

1000 microns

d)

5000 microns

75.

Type II technicians are certified to service

a)

all refrigeration equipment containing more than 5 pounds of refrigerant

b)

high pressure equipment only

c)

high pressure and very high pressure equipment, including small appliances and motor vehicle a/c

d)

high pressure and very high pressure equipment, excluding small appliances and motor vehicle a/c

76.

The sale of CFC and HCFC refrigerants has been restricted to certified technicians since

a)

November 15, 1993

b)

July 1, 1992

c)

December 31, 1995

d)

November 14, 1994

77.

If the EPA regulations change after a technician has been certified

a)

the technician will be "grandfathered" into the new changes

b)

this will only affect technicians who have not yet been certified

c)

it is the technicians responsibility to comply with all future changes

d)

this will only affect technicians who have been certified after January 1, 2000

78.

Why is it easier to have air enter gaskets and fittings on a low pressure system than on a high pressure system?

a)

because air is attracted to R-11 and R-123 more than to R-12 and R-22

b)

because a low pressure system operates in a vacuum

c)

because low pressure systems often use a centrifugal compressor

d)

because low pressure systems often use gaskets that are semi-permeable

79.

At what pressure does a rupture disk open on a low pressure system?

a)

10 psig

b)

15 psig

c)

20 psig

d)

25 psig

80.

What is the easiest way to leak test a low pressure system?

a)

connect your gauges and add 15 psig of nitrogen

b)

connect your gauges and add 150 psig of nitrogen with a trace amount of R-22

c)

Add warm water over the coils until you reach 10 psig

d)

recover all refrigerant, then pull the system down to a 500 micron vacuum and see if the vacuum holds

81.

Why is it important not to exceed 10 psig when leak testing a low pressure system?

a)

Because the relief valve on the reciever would blow

b)

Because the condenser test pressure is 10 psig max.

c)

because the rupture disc on the evaporator could fail

d)

because the shaft seals cannot withstand more than 10 psig without leaking

82.

When using an electronic leak detector, where is a water box leak tested after the water has been removed?

a)

at the drain valve

b)

at the rupture disk

c)

at the inlet valve

d)

at the shaft seal

83.

What is used when leak testing a water tube on a low pressure chiller?

a)

a hydrometer

b)

a psychrometer

c)

a manometer

d)

a hydrostatic tube test kit

84.

The EPA requires that all comfort cooling systems with more than 50 lb. of refrigerant be repaired when the annual leak rate exceeds

a)

50%

b)

30%

c)

25%

d)

15%

85.

The EPA requires that all commercial and industrial process refrigeration systems with more that 50 lb. of refrigerant be repaired when leak rates exceed

a)

15%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

50%

86.

What pressure is a high-pressure cut-out set for on a recovery system that is used on low-pressure refrigeration systems?

a)

10 psig

b)

15 psig

c)

20 psig

d)

25 psig

87.

When recovering R-11 or R-123 from a low pressure system, always recover

a)

liquid first

b)

vapor first

c)

vapor and liquid at the same time

d)

none of the above

88.

What is commonly done to prevent a low pressure system from freezing during evacuation?

a)

stop the water from running through the chiller tubes

b)

run the water through the chiller tubes

c)

remove the water from the chiller tubes

d)

add salt to the water in the tubes to prevent freezing

89.

What does the ASHREA guide line 3-1990 state about a vacuum test?

a)

If a 1 mm Hg vacuum level rises to 2.5 mm Hg, the system should be leak tested

b)

If a 1 mm Hg vacuum level rises to 2.5 mm Hg, the system is not leaking

c)

If a 1 mm Hg vacuum level rises to 2.5 mm Hg, the chiller coil should be replaced

d)

If a 1 mm Hg vacuum level rises to 2.5 mm Hg, the system is in danger of blowing off the relief valve

90.

How is refrigerant added to a low pressure chiller system after it has been evacuated?

a)

By use of a king valve

b)

By use of the suction service valve

c)

By use of the evaporator charging valve

d)

By use of the master charge valve

91.

After a chiller system has had a deep system evacuation, what is commonly done to decrease the possibility of a system freeze-up prior to a liquid charge?

a)

Pressurize the system with liquid up to 36 degrees F saturation temperature

b)

Pressurize the system with vapor up to 36 degrees F saturation temperature

c)

Pressurize the system with liquid or vapor up to 20 degrees F saturation temperature

d)

Pressurize the system with liquid up to 36 psig

92.

When using recovery or recycling equipment manufactured or imported before November 15, 1993 the required level of evacuation for low pressure equipment is

a)

25 mm Hg absolute

b)

25" Hg

c)

27" Hg

d)

30" Hg

93.

What is used on a low pressure chiller to remove non-condensables from the system?

a)

a vent system

b)

an aerator

c)

a purge unit

d)

a relief valve

94.

From where does the purge unit remove trapped air in a low pressure system?

a)

the top of the evaporator

b)

the top of the receiver

c)

the top of the condenser

d)

the top of the accumulator

95.

The equipment room that contains a chiller using R-123 group B-1 refrigerant requires a(n)

a)

carbon monoxide sensor

b)

ozone depletion sensor

c)

refrigeration sensor

d)

smog sensor

96.

It is important to recover the vapor refrigerant in a chiller after the liquid has been removed, since there are approximately ____ lbs. of vapor in a common 350 ton R-11 chiller

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

97.

Refrigerants

a)

are heavier than air

b)

are lighter than air

c)

are the same weight as air

d)

always have enough oxygen to maintain the necessary levels

98.

Heating the refrigerant cylinder during charging will result in

a)

faster vapor transfer

b)

slower moving liquid

c)

nothing that will affect the process

d)

a slower charging process

99.

R-123 is code grouped as a(n) _____ refrigerant

a)

A-1

b)

A-2

c)

B-1

d)

B-2

100.

To protect from over pressurization, low pressure chillers typically use a rupture disc mounted on the

a)

condenser

b)

compressor

c)

metering device

d)

evaporator

101.

Once the technician has reached the required level of vacuum when recovering a system, they should wait a few minutes and monitor the system. If the pressure rises, indicating that there is _________ in the system, recovery must be repeated.

a)

nitrogen

b)

refrigerant

c)

ozone

d)

non-condensables