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8th Science CPA #3 Review

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
2.
As a pendulum swings from its highest to lowest position, what happens to its kinetic and potential energy? 
a)
Both the potential energy and kinetic energy decrease
b)
The potential energy decreases while the kinetic energy increases 
c)
The kinetic energy decreases while the potential energy increases 
d)
Bothe the potential energy and kinetic energy increase 
3.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
4.
The Law of Conservation of Energy states that
a)
energy cannot be created nor destroyed, only transformed or transferred
b)
energy can be destroyed but not created
c)
energy can be created but not destroyed
5.
If a man is pulling a wagon up a hill, describe what is occurring in terms of energy. 
a)
Decreasing Potential energy, Increasing Kinetic energy
b)
Increasing Potential energy, Decreasing Kinetic energy
c)
Both potential and kinetic are increasing
d)
Both potential and kinetic are decreasing
6.

What type of graph works best for percents?

a)

Pie Charts

b)

Line Graphs

c)

Histograms

d)

Bar Graph

7.

Using this type of graph allows you to organize ____.

a)

information about the proportion of parts relative to the whole.

b)

the total number of each category.

c)

how much data occurs within a range of numbers.

d)

the spread of the data.

8.

To display data showing your heights over the first ten years of your life, use a...

a)

Circle Graph

b)

Bar Graph

c)

Line Graph

d)

Pictograph

9.

To display data comparing time spent on each activity to the total time spent at summer camp, use a...

a)

Circle Graph

b)

Bar Graph

c)

Line Graph

d)

Histogram

10.

I have an x-axis and a y-axis. I help to track changes over time. What am I?

a)

Circle Graph

b)

Histogram

c)

Line Graph

d)

Dot Plot

11.

I have an x-axis and a y-axis. I help to compare categories. There are spaces. What am I?

a)

Bar Graph

b)

Histogram

c)

Line Graph

d)

Dot Plot

12.

I have an x-axis and a y-axis. I help to show frequency. There are NO spaces. What am I?

a)

Bar Graph

b)

Histogram

c)

Line Graph

d)

Dot Plot

13.
When would I use a graph like this?
a)
To see changes over time
b)
To compare parts to a whole
c)
To compare categories
d)
To see frequency
14.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
15.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
16.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
17.
Which graph shows the object standing still?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
18.
What is the equation to calculate speed?
a)
speed = distance/time
b)
speed = time/distance
c)
speed = time x distance 
d)
speed = speed/time 
19.
What is the equation to calculate time?
a)
time = speed/distance
b)
time = distance/speed 
c)
time = speed x distance 
d)
time = distance x speed
20.
What is the equation to calculate distance?
a)
distance = speed/time
b)
distance = time/speed
c)
distance = speed/distance
d)
distance = speed x time 
21.

How are speed and velocity different?

a)

Speed includes how fast something is moving and its direction and velocity does not

b)

Speed tells how fast an object is moving in a particular direction and velocity does not

c)

Velocity includes how fast an object is moving and its direction and speed is only how fast an object is moving

d)

Velocity does not tell how fast something is moving and speed does tell how fast something is moving

22.

What is the difference between positive and negative acceleration?

a)

Positive acceleration applies to fast objects; negative acceleration applies to slow objects.

b)

Positive acceleration occurs when objects speed up; negative acceleration occurs when objects slow down

c)

Positive acceleration applies to objects traveling on earth; negative acceleration applies to objects traveling in space

d)

Positive acceleration is expressed in meters per second; negative acceleration is expressed in kilometers per hour.

23.
What does the central nervous system consist of?
a)
brain & spinal cord
b)
spinal cord & nerves
c)
brain & nerves
d)
sensory and motor nerves
24.

Which of the following is an example of an external stimuli?

a)

Becoming dehydrated and then taking a drink of water

b)

Getting a headache and then taking Excedrin

c)

Having hunger pains and then eating a sandwich

d)

Smelling Pizza and then eating a piece

25.

Which of the following is an example of internal stimuli?

a)

Smelling BBQ from across the street and walking over to buy and eat a shredded sandwich.

b)

Seeing ice cream on television and then eating a bowl of ice cream

c)

After working out feeling sore in your legs and then placing ice on the sore spot

d)

After working out seeing a bottle of water and drinking water

26.
Jackson is around his friend who is constantly sick. Jackson begins coughing and sneezing the next day at school. What is the possible stimulus and response?
a)
Internal stimulus is coughing, the response is getting sick
b)
External stimulus is coughing, the response is getting sick
c)
Internal stimulus is germs/bacteria, the response is coughing
d)
External stimulus is germs/bacteria, the response is coughing
27.
There is high temperature outside. What type of response can a person's body have to regulate body temperature?
a)
Wearing a jacket
b)
Sweating
c)
Taking an ice bath
d)
Wearing a visor
28.

What would be a function of proprioceptors?

a)

detect blood pressure of body

b)

determine damage of body tissues

c)

detect limits in exercising

d)

measure heat energy of body

29.

What is NOT a purpose / function of the skin?

a)

ensuring protection

b)

maintaining body temperature

c)

sensory reception

d)

balance

30.

Which of the following is the largest accumulation of tissues that includes the highest number of receptors?

a)

brain

b)

lungs

c)

skin

d)

nerves

31.

You feel a ant crawling on top of your foot. Which receptor enables you to "feel" this contact?

a)

Lateral lines

b)

Photoreceptors

c)

Mechanoreceptors

d)

Electroreptors

32.

Cold-blooded animals such as lizards maintain safe body temperatures by moving into locations of favourable temperatures. This behaviour is largely influenced by _____ in the skin.

a)

Photoreceptors

b)

Eletroreceptors

c)

Chemoreceptors

d)

Thermoreceptors

33.
Another term for one's sense of taste is:
a)
olfaction
b)
gustation
c)
otic acuity
d)
mastication
34.

A _____________________ is a bump surrounded by a trench that traps saliva. These structures help to grip food and move it around while you chew.

a)

papillae

b)

taste bud

c)

bulb

d)

follicle

35.
What are 4 basic tastes that different areas on the tongue react to? 
a)
spicy, sweet, bitter, and sour 
b)
sour, bitter, tangy, and spicy 
c)
sweet, salty, sour, and bitter 
36.

What taste buds are locted at A?

a)

sweet

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

salty

37.

What taste buds are locted at C?

a)

sweet

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

salty

38.

What taste buds are locted at B?

a)

sweet

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

salty

39.

What taste buds are locted at D?

a)

sweet

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

salty

40.

The brain processes scents from a mix of sensory input from different _______ receptors

a)

Olfactory

b)

Gustatory

c)

Auditory

d)

Optical

41.

Where are the receptors for smell located?

a)

taste buds

b)

mucus in the roof of the mouth

c)

under the tongue

d)

nostrils

42.
The type of receptor that detects substances dissolved in fluids (important in smell and taste)
a)
chemoreceptor
b)
photoreceptor
c)
mechanoreceptor
d)
tastebud
43.
Which part of the ear is responsible for capturing sound and moving it into your ear? 
a)
outer ear
b)
middle ear
c)
inner ear
d)
eardrum
44.
Where does HEARING (interpreting the nerve impulses) take place?
a)
outer ear
b)
middle ear
c)
inner ear
d)
brain
45.

Sound is caused by ______________.

a)

vibrations

b)

light

c)

the sun

d)

aroma

46.

Which of the following stimuli do photoreceptors respond to?

a)

touch

b)

light

c)

heat

d)

chemicals

47.
Which nerve transmits information from the eye to the brain?
a)
Optic
b)
Olfactory
c)
Occulomotor
d)
Trigeminal
48.
Opens and closes to adjust the total amount of light entering the eye.
a)
Iris
b)
Scelera
c)
Cornea
d)
Human lens
49.
Which part of the eye contracts and dilates based on the environment? 
a)
Pupil
b)
Cornea
c)
Sclera
d)
Iris
50.

Signal that enters the body in the form of electromagnetic stimuli

a)

chemical input

b)

mechanical input

c)

electromagnetic input

d)

stimulus

51.

Which of the following represents the function of the AXON in a neuron?

a)
b)
c)
d)
52.

Which of the following represents the function of the myelin sheath?

a)
b)
c)
d)
53.

What structure is labeled 1?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

54.

What structure is labeled b

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

55.

What structure is color coded YELLOW?

a)

Synapse

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Dendrite

56.

Why might you feel something touching you on your face quicker than on your hand.

a)

The message from the face travels a shorter distance to the brain

b)

the message from the face travels farther to the brain

c)

The hand is less sensitive than the foot

d)

The hand doesn't send messages to the brain

57.
Which of followings show correct steps of nerve pathway?
a)
Dendrite --> Cell body --> along axon --> synapse --> dendrite
b)
Dendrite -->  along axon --> cell body --> synapse --> dendrite
c)
Axon -->  along axon --> cell body --> synapse --> dendrite
d)
Dendrite -->  along axon --> cell body --> synapse --> axon --> dendrite
58.
Which Lobe?
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal 
d)
Occipital
59.
Which Lobe?
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
60.

Reason we shiver when we are COLD and sweat with we are HOT.

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Medulla

e)

Cerebellum

61.
What is this?
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Diencephalon
62.

Aggression

a)

medula oblongata

b)

amygdala

c)

hippocampus

d)

thalamus

63.

A squirrel fails to react with fear to a signal of impending shock if they have suffered damage to the:

a)

Amygdala

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Hypothalamus

e)

Thalamus

64.
Damage this and you won't form new memories
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Hippocampus
c)
Amygdala
d)
Thalamus
65.

Emmanuel has suffered brain trauma as a result of an accident. He has difficulty understanding language and forming sentences that make logical sense. He has most likely damaged

a)

spinal cord

b)

temporal lobe

c)

occipital lobe

d)

parietal lobe

66.

Which of the following is an example of the parasympathetic nervous system in action?

a)

pupils dilated

b)

inhibited digestion

c)

heartbeat speed up

d)

steady breathing

67.

Which of the following is an example of the sympathetic nervous system in action?

a)

heart beat slows down

b)

dry hands

c)

pupils contract

d)

stimulated digestion

68.
The _____ response is known as fight or flight.
a)
parasympathetic
b)
sympathetic
c)
somatic
d)
peripheral
69.

The ____ nervous system controls involuntary activities.

a)

somatic

b)

sympathetic

c)

parasympathetic

d)

autonomic

70.

A person that has dilated pupils, increased heart rate, rapid breathing and inhibited digestion is probably undergoing _____ .

a)

A Flight or Eat response

b)

A Medulla oblongata response

c)

A Rest or Digest response

d)

A Fight or Flight response

71.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate:
a)
learning and memory
b)
pain and pleasure
c)
muscle movements
d)
sleep, moods/emotions
72.

Who is responsible for stealing this image to which revealed the exact structure of the DNA molecule?

a)

Francis Cross

b)

James Watson

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Oswald Avery

73.

Where is deoxyribose found in a DNA molecule?

a)

on the "steps" of the DNA ladder

b)

it's the "glue" between nucleotides

c)

on the sides of the DNA molecule

d)

at the bottom or top ONLY

74.

Where is DNA located in a sperm cell?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

e)

lysosome

75.

Which of the following does NOT represent the role that hydrogen plays in a DNA molecule?

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.

If the percentage of thymine in a DNA molecule is 22%--what is the percentage of adenine?

a)

78%

b)

44%

c)

22%

d)

66%

77.

What was the purpose for genetically modifying the tomato?

a)

increase the number of seeds

b)

improve juice production

c)

delay rotting process

d)

make fruit grow faster and larger

78.

The scientist(s) who settled the debate about whether it was proteins or DNA that was the genetic material of the cell to which they also confirmed was passed from one generation to the next...

a)

Franklin and Crick

b)

Hershey and Chase

c)

Chargiff and Avery

d)

Mullins and Sanger

79.

What was the sole responsibility of Genetech?

a)

change genes that were bad in an organism

b)

determine paternity

c)

organize genes in an organism

d)

fix the crime issue

80.

Who was responsible for designing the method determining the order of bases in a DNA strand?

a)

Crick

b)

Sanger

c)

Mullins

d)

Chargaff

81.

Which organism was genetically modified to accomplish a gene splice that would create a genetically identical organism?

a)

mouse

b)

bacteria

c)

tomato

d)

sheep

82.

Which of the following is the SMALLEST genetic component?

a)

Gene

b)

DNA

c)

Chromosome

d)

Nitrogen Base

83.

Each parent contributes one chromosome to determine the zygote gender. Which of the following karyotypes is a male?

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

YY

d)

AT

84.

What was Watson and Crick's greatest accomplishment?

a)

confirming the structure of DNA

b)

reading DNA sequences

c)

discovering that DNA is passed through generations

d)

genetically engineering substances to improve human health

85.
Which of the following items BEST represents the shape of a DNA molecule?
a)
apple
b)
staircase
c)
box
d)
pyramid
86.

The enzyme that repairs the DNA to prepare for replication

a)

helicase

b)

replicase

c)

polymerase

d)

ligase

87.

During transcription, where does messenger RNA deliver instructions for making proteins?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

88.

How many amino acids are coded for in the following sequence of mRNA nucleotides?

CGAUACAGUAGCCCCAUA

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

12

89.
Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a)
adenine
b)
uracil
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
90.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
91.

Which process is used to make DNA from the DNA in the nucleus?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

92.

What would be the DNA for the mRNA codon CAG?

a)

GTC

b)

GUC

c)

CUG

d)

CAG

93.

_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.

a)

mRNA / a protein

b)

a protein / mRNA

c)

DNA / mRNA

d)

mRNA / tRNA

94.

Which DNA bases would pair with CGUAGG at the beginning of transcription?

a)

AUGCUU

b)

ATGCTT

c)

GCATCC

d)

GCAUCC

95.

The enzyme that attaches the complimentary base pairs to the original strand of DNA to begin the process of making a protein is referred to as ___.

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

replicase

d)

primase

e)

RNA polymerase

96.
Give the correct order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
97.
DNA replication results in:
a)
2 completely new DNA molecules
b)
2 DNA molecules that each contain a strand of the original
c)
 1 new DNA molecule, 1 old molecule is conserved
d)
1 new molecule of RNA
98.

How many codons: AAU GCG AUG

a)

9

b)

1

c)

3

d)

15

99.

Transcribe the following DNA


TAC -TTA - CGA

a)

ATG - AAU - GCA

b)

ATG - AAT - GCA

c)

AUC - AAT - GCT

d)

AUG - AAU - GCU

100.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
smooth ER
101.
The process of making mRNA from DNA is called.
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
102.
Which molecule brings the amino acid to the ribosome?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
103.
Given the following sequence of mRNA, what series of amino acids are coded for?
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC
a)
Ser-Tyr-Arg-Gly
b)
Val-Asp-Pro-His
c)
Leu-Lys-Cys-Phe
d)
Pro-Glu-Leu-Val
104.
In an mRNA strand, the codon AAG codes for the amino acid , while GUU codes for the amino acid .
a)
Lysine (Lys), Valine (Val)
b)
Lysine (Lys), Leucine (Leu)
c)
Asparagine (Asn), Valine (Val)
d)
Arginine (Arg), Glutamine (Glu)
105.
In an mRNA strand, the codon GCC codes for the amino acid ______ , while CCG codes for the amino acid _______
a)
Proline (Pro), Valine (Val)
b)
Alanine (Ala), Lysine (Lys)
c)
Valine (Val), Lysine (Lys)
d)
Alanine (Ala), Proline (Pro)
106.
What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:
GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
a)
CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
b)
GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
c)
CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
d)
CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
107.
What is the transcribed mRNA strand for CATTAA
a)
GUAAUU
b)
GTAATT
c)
AUGGUU
d)
CATTAA
108.
YOU NEED YOUR CODON CHART!
mRNA: GGACCUAUUCAG
What is the amino acid sequence coded for by the mRNA above?
a)
Gln-Ile-Pro-Gly
b)
Pro-Gly-Stop-Val
c)
Ser-Tyr-Arg-Gly
d)
Gly-Pro-Ile-Gln
109.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
110.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
111.
Which change below would result in a different Amino Acid? 
3'-GCT-5'
a)
GTT
b)
TCT
c)
TCC
d)
GCA
112.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
113.
Identify the INSERTION mutation from the following DNA sequence: 
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA  AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
114.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
115.

If a mutation occurs in a body cell, will the trait be passed onto the organism's offspring?

a)

No, the trait is in a somatic cell

b)

Yes, the trait is in a somatic cell

c)

No, the trait must be in a sex cell

d)

Yes, the trait is in a sperm cell

116.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
117.
How are mutations passed on to offspring?
a)
Any mutation that an organism acquires in its life can be passed on to the offspring through its gametes (sex cells)
b)
Only mutations that occur in the gametes can be passed on to the offspring
c)
Mutations are not usually passed on to the offspring. A mutation stays within the original organism.
d)
Mutations are not passed to offspring. They only occur within developing embryos.
118.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
119.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
120.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
d)
sister chromatids
121.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
d)
sister chromatids
122.
Chimpanzee body cells have 48 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting chimpanzee daughter cell to have ...
a)
24 chromosomes.
b)
48 chromosomes.
c)
96 chromosomes.
d)
46 chromosomes.
123.
Which of these lists presents the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order?
a)
interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
c)
mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
d)
interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis
124.
Which phase occurred PREVIOUS to this phase?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
125.
Which phase happened AFTER this phase?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
126.
What is the CURRENT phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
127.
What phase occurred PREVIOUS to this phase?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
128.
What is the CURRENT phase represented?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
129.
What phase happened AFTER this phase?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
130.
What phases are techincally represented from this image?
a)
Interphase and Prophase
b)
Cytokinesis and Interphase
c)
Prophase and Metaphase
d)
Telophase and Cytokinesis
131.
Which phase comes BEFORE the two shown?
a)
Prophase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
132.
Which phase comes between the two phases shown?
a)
Prophase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
133.
What is the CORRECT order of the cell cycle?
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
134.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
135.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase